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Estatutos Estatales Seleccionados: Colorado

Estatutos Seleccionados: Colorado

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Estatutos Seleccionados: Colorado

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Vigente mediante legislación vigente a partir del 24 de febrero de 2022 del Primer Sesión Regular de la 74 Asamblea General (2023). En este momento no hay una versión oficial de las leyes de Colorado en español, pero puede encontrar la legislación en inglés en la Asamblea General de Colorado.

 

Title 13. Courts and Court Procedure

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Article 6. County Courts

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 4. County Court--Small Claims Division

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 13-6-403. Jurisdiction of small claims court--limitations

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) The small claims court has concurrent original jurisdiction with the county and district courts in all civil actions in which the debt, damage, or value of the personal property claimed by either the plaintiff or the defendant, exclusive of interest and costs, does not exceed seven thousand five hundred dollars, including such civil penalties as may be provided by law. By way of further example, and not limitation, the small claims court has jurisdiction to hear and determine actions in tort and assess damages in tort actions not to exceed seven thousand five hundred dollars.

(b) The small claims court division also has concurrent original jurisdiction with the county and district courts in actions where a party seeks:

(I) To enforce rights and responsibilities arising under the declaration, bylaws, covenants, or other governing documents of a unit owners’ association, as defined in section 38-33.3-103(3), in relation to disputes arising from assessments, fines, or fees owed to the unit owners’ association and for which the amount at issue does not exceed seven thousand five hundred dollars, exclusive of interest and costs.

(II) To enforce a restrictive covenant on residential property and the amount required to comply with the covenant does not exceed seven thousand five hundred dollars, exclusive of interest and costs;

(III) Replevin if the value of the property sought does not exceed seven thousand five hundred dollars; and

(IV) To enforce a contract by specific performance or to disaffirm, avoid, or rescind a contract and the amount at issue does not exceed seven thousand five hundred dollars.

(2) The small claims court has only that jurisdiction specifically conferred upon it by law, as provided in subsection (1) of this section. In particular, it does not have jurisdiction over the following matters:

(a) Those matters excluded from county court jurisdiction under section 13-6-105(1);

(b) Actions involving claims of defamation by libel or slander;

(c) Actions of forcible entry, forcible detainer, or unlawful detainer;

(d) Deleted by Laws 2001, Ch. 331, § 2, eff. Sept. 1, 2001.

(e) Deleted by Laws 2001, Ch. 331, § 2, eff. Sept. 1, 2001.

(f) Actions brought or defended on behalf of a class;

(g) Actions requesting or involving prejudgment remedies;

(h) Actions involving injunctive relief, except as required to:

(I) Enforce rights or responsibilities arising under the declaration, bylaws, covenants, or other governing documents of a unit owners’ association, as defined in section 38-33.3-103(3), and including actions seeking declaratory relief;

(II) Enforce restrictive covenants on residential property;

(III) Enforce the provisions of section 6-1-702.5;

(IV) Accomplish replevin; and

(V) Enter judgments in actions where a party seeks to enforce a contract by specific performance or to disaffirm, avoid, or rescind a contract;

(i) Traffic violations and other criminal matters; or

(j) Awards of body executions.

Article 14. Civil Protection Orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 13-14-100.2. Legislative declaration

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly hereby finds that the issuance and enforcement of protection orders are of paramount importance in the state of Colorado because protection orders promote safety, reduce violence and other types of abuse, and prevent serious harm and death. In order to improve the public’s access to protection orders and to ensure careful judicial consideration of requests and effective law enforcement, there shall be two processes for obtaining protection orders within the state of Colorado, a simplified civil process and a mandatory criminal process.

(2) The general assembly further finds and declares that domestic abuse is not limited to physical threats of violence and harm but also includes mental and emotional abuse, financial control, document control, property control, and other types of control that make a victim more likely to return to an abuser due to fear of retaliation or inability to meet basic needs. Many victims of domestic abuse are unable to access the resources necessary to seek lasting safety options. Victims need additional provisions in protection orders so that they can meet their immediate needs of food, shelter, transportation, medical care, and childcare for their appearance at protection order hearings. These needs may exist not only in cases that may end in dissolution of marriage but also in other circumstances, including cases in which reconciliation may occur.

(3) Additionally, the general assembly finds and declares that sexual assault affects Coloradans of all ages, backgrounds, and circumstances and is one of the most under-reported of all crimes. Sexual violence may occur in any type of relationship; however, the majority of sexual assault is perpetrated by someone whom the victim knows. Victims of sexual assault who do not report the crime, as well as victims who do report but whose case is not prosecuted, still need and deserve protection from future interactions with the perpetrator, as many victims experience long-lasting physical and emotional trauma from unwanted contact with the perpetrator.

(4) Finally, the general assembly finds and declares that stalking is a dangerous, high-risk crime that frequently escalates over time and that sometimes leads, tragically, to sexual assault or homicide. Countless youth and adults in Colorado have faced the fear, isolation, and danger of being victims of stalking, and many of these incidents go unreported and are not prosecuted. While stalking behaviors may appear innocuous to outside observers, the victims often endure intense physical and emotional distress that affects all aspects of their lives and are more likely than others to express anxiety, depression, and social dysfunction.

§ 13-14-101. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

For purposes of this article 14, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Abuse of the elderly or of an at-risk adult” means mistreatment of a person who is sixty years of age or older or who is an at-risk adult as defined in section 26-3.1-101(1.5), including but not limited to repeated acts that:

(a) Constitute verbal threats or assaults;

(b) Constitute verbal harassment;

(c) Result in the inappropriate use or the threat of inappropriate use of medications;

(d) Result in the inappropriate use of physical or chemical restraints;

(e) Result in the misuse of power or authority granted to a person through a power of attorney or by a court in a guardianship or conservatorship proceeding that results in unreasonable confinement or restriction of liberty; or

(f) Constitute threats or acts of violence against, or the taking, transferring, concealing, harming, or disposing of, an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by the elderly or at-risk adult, which threats or acts are intended to coerce, control, punish, intimidate, or exact revenge upon the elderly or at-risk adult.

(1.5) “Adult” means a person eighteen years of age or older.

(1.7) “Contact” or “contacting” means any interaction or communication with another person, directly or indirectly through a third party, and electronic and digital forms of communication, including but not limited to interaction or communication through social media.

(2) “Domestic abuse” means any act, attempted act, or threatened act of violence, stalking, harassment, or coercion that is committed by any person against another person to whom the actor is currently or was formerly related, or with whom the actor is living or has lived in the same domicile, or with whom the actor is involved or has been involved in an intimate relationship. A sexual relationship may be an indicator of an intimate relationship but is never a necessary condition for finding an intimate relationship. For purposes of this subsection (2), “coercion” includes compelling a person by force, threat of force, or intimidation to engage in conduct from which the person has the right or privilege to abstain, or to abstain from conduct in which the person has a right or privilege to engage. “Domestic abuse” may also include any act, attempted act, or threatened act of violence against:

(a) The minor children of either of the parties; or

(b) An animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either of the parties or by a minor child of either of the parties, which threat, act, or attempted act is intended to coerce, control, punish, intimidate, or exact revenge upon either of the parties or a minor child of either of the parties.

(2.2) “Minor child” means a person under eighteen years of age.

(2.3) “Protected person” means the person or persons identified in a protection order as the person or persons for whose benefit the protection order was issued.

(2.4)(a) “Protection order” means any order that prohibits the restrained person from contacting, harassing, injuring, intimidating, molesting, threatening, touching, stalking, or sexually assaulting or abusing any protected person or from entering or remaining on premises, or from coming within a specified distance of a protected person or premises, or from taking, transferring, concealing, harming, disposing of or threatening harm to an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by a protected person, or any other provision to protect the protected person from imminent danger to life or health that is issued by a court of this state or a municipal court and that is issued pursuant to:

(I) This article 14, section 18-1-1001, 19-2.5-607, or 19-4-111, or rule 365 of the Colorado rules of county court civil procedure;

(II) Sections 14-4-101 to 14-4-105, C.R.S., section 14-10-107, C.R.S., section 14-10-108, C.R.S., or section 19-3-316, C.R.S., as those sections existed prior to July 1, 2004;

(III) An order issued as part of the proceedings concerning a criminal municipal ordinance violation; or

(IV) Any other order of a court that prohibits a person from contacting, harassing, injuring, intimidating, molesting, threatening, touching, stalking, or sexually assaulting or abusing a person, or from entering or remaining on premises, or from coming within a specified distance of a protected person or premises, or from taking, transferring, concealing, harming, disposing of or threatening to harm an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by a person, or from entering or remaining on premises, or from coming within a specified distance of a protected person or premises.

(b) For purposes of this article only, “protection order” includes any order that amends, modifies, supplements, or supersedes the initial protection order. “Protection order” also includes any emergency protection order, as described in section 13-14-103, any restraining order entered prior to July 1, 2003, and any foreign protection order as defined in section 13-14-110.

(2.8) “Restrained person” means a person identified in a protection order as a person prohibited from doing a specified act or acts.

(2.9) “Sexual assault or abuse” means any act, attempted act, or threatened act of unlawful sexual behavior, as described in section 16-11.7-102(3), C.R.S., by any person against another person regardless of the relationship between the actor and the petitioner.

(3) “Stalking” means any act, attempted act, or threatened act of stalking as described in section 18-3-602, C.R.S.

§ 13-14-103. Emergency protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) Any county or district court shall have the authority to enter an emergency protection order pursuant to the provisions of this subsection (1).

(b) An emergency protection order issued pursuant to this subsection (1) may include:

(I) Restraining a party from contacting, harassing, injuring, intimidating, threatening, molesting, touching, stalking, sexually assaulting or abusing any other party, a minor child of either of the parties, or a minor child who is in danger in the reasonably foreseeable future of being a victim of an unlawful sexual offense or domestic abuse;

(II) Excluding a party from the family home or from the home of another party upon a showing that physical or emotional harm would otherwise result;

(III) Awarding temporary care and control of any minor child of a party involved;

(IV) Enjoining an individual from contacting a minor child at school, at work, or wherever he or she may be found;

(V) Restraining a party from molesting, injuring, killing, taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, disposing of or threatening harm to an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by any other party, a minor child of either of the parties, or an elderly or at-risk adult; or

(VI) Specifying arrangements for possession and care of an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by any other party, a minor child of either of the parties, or an elderly or at-risk adult.

(c) In cases involving a minor child, the juvenile court and the district court have the authority to issue emergency protection orders to prevent an unlawful sexual offense, as defined in section 18-3-411(1), or to prevent domestic abuse, as defined in section 13-14-101(2), when requested by the local law enforcement agency, the county department of human or social services, or a responsible person who asserts, in a verified petition supported by affidavit, that there are reasonable grounds to believe that a minor child is in danger in the reasonably foreseeable future of being the victim of an unlawful sexual offense or domestic abuse, based upon an allegation of a recent actual unlawful sexual offense or domestic abuse or threat of the same. Any emergency protection order issued pursuant to this subsection (1) must be on a standardized form prescribed by the judicial department, and a copy must be provided to the protected person.

(d) The chief judge in each judicial district shall be responsible for making available in each judicial district a judge to issue, by telephone, emergency protection orders at all times when the county and district courts are otherwise closed for judicial business. Such judge may be a district court or county court judge or a special associate, an associate, an assistant county judge, or a magistrate.

(e) When the county, district, and juvenile courts are unavailable from the close of business at the end of the day or week to the resumption of business at the beginning of the day or week and a peace officer asserts reasonable grounds to believe that an adult is in immediate and present danger of domestic abuse, assault, stalking, sexual assault or abuse, or that a minor child is in immediate and present danger of an unlawful sexual offense, as defined in section 18-3-411(1), C.R.S., or of domestic abuse, as defined in section 13-14-101(2), a judge made available pursuant to paragraph (d) of this subsection (1) may issue a written or verbal ex parte emergency protection order. Any written emergency protection order issued pursuant to this subsection (1) shall be on a standardized form prescribed by the judicial department, and a copy shall be provided to the protected person.

(f) An emergency protection order issued pursuant to this subsection (1) shall expire not later than the close of judicial business on the next day of judicial business following the day of issue, unless otherwise continued by the court. The court may continue an emergency protection order filed to prevent abuse pursuant to this subsection (1) only if the judge is unable to set a hearing on plaintiff’s request for a temporary protection order on the day the complaint was filed pursuant to section 13-14-104.5; except that this limitation on a court’s power to continue an emergency protection order shall not apply to an emergency protection order filed to protect a minor child from an unlawful sexual offense or domestic abuse. For any emergency protection order continued pursuant to the provisions of this paragraph (f), following two days’ notice to the party who obtained the emergency protection order or on such shorter notice to said party as the court may prescribe, the adverse party may appear and move its dissolution or modification. The motion to dissolve or modify the emergency protection order shall be set down for hearing at the earliest possible time and shall take precedence over all matters except older matters of the same character, and the court shall determine such motions as expeditiously as the ends of justice require.

(2)(a) A verbal emergency protection order may be issued pursuant to subsection (1) of this section only if the issuing judge finds that an imminent danger in close proximity exists to the life or health of one or more persons or that a danger exists to the life or health of the minor child in the reasonably foreseeable future.

(b) Any verbal emergency protection order shall be reduced to writing and signed by the officer or other person asserting the grounds for the order and shall include a statement of the grounds for the order asserted by the officer or person. The officer or person shall not be subject to civil liability for any statement made or act performed in good faith. The emergency protection order shall be served upon the respondent with a copy given to the protected party and filed with the county or district court as soon as practicable after issuance. Any written emergency protection order issued pursuant to this subsection (2) shall be on a standardized form prescribed by the judicial department, and a copy shall be provided to the protected person.

(3) The court shall electronically transfer into the central registry of protection orders established pursuant to section 18-6-803.7, C.R.S., a copy of any order issued pursuant to this section and shall deliver a copy of such order to the protected party or his or her parent or an individual acting in the place of a parent who is not the respondent.

(4) If any person named in an order issued pursuant to this section has not been served personally with such order but has received actual notice of the existence and substance of such order from any person, any act in violation of such order may be deemed sufficient to subject the person named in such order to any penalty for such violation.

(5) Venue for filing a complaint pursuant to this section is proper in any county where the acts that are the subject of the complaint occur, in any county where one of the parties resides, or in any county where one of the parties is employed. This requirement for venue does not prohibit the change of venue to any other county appropriate under applicable law.

(6) A person failing to comply with any order of the court issued pursuant to this section shall be found in contempt of court and, in addition, may be punished as provided in section 18-6-803.5, C.R.S.

(7) At any time that the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction to enforce the emergency protection order has cause to believe that a violation of the order has occurred, it shall enforce the order. If the order is written and has not been personally served, a member of the law enforcement agency shall serve a copy of said order on the person named respondent therein. If the order is verbal, a member of the law enforcement agency shall notify the respondent of the existence and substance thereof.

(8) The availability of an emergency protection order shall not be affected by the person seeking protection leaving his or her residence to avoid harm.

(9) The issuance of an emergency protection order shall not be considered evidence of any wrongdoing.

(10) If three emergency protection orders are issued within a one-year period involving the same parties within the same jurisdiction, the court shall summon the parties to appear before the court at a hearing to review the circumstances giving rise to such emergency protection orders.

(11) The duties of peace officers enforcing orders issued pursuant to this section shall be in accordance with section 18-6-803.5, C.R.S., and any rules adopted by the Colorado supreme court pursuant to said section.

§ 13-14-104.5. Procedure for temporary civil protection order

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) Any municipal court of record, if authorized by the municipal governing body; any county court; and any district, probate, or juvenile court shall have original concurrent jurisdiction to issue a temporary or permanent civil protection order against an adult or against a juvenile who is ten years of age or older for any of the following purposes:

(I) To prevent assaults and threatened bodily harm;

(II) To prevent domestic abuse;

(III) To prevent emotional abuse of the elderly or of an at-risk adult;

(IV) To prevent sexual assault or abuse; and

(V) To prevent stalking.

(b) To be eligible for a protection order, the petitioner does not need to show that he or she has reported the act that is the subject of the complaint to law enforcement, that charges have been filed, or that the petitioner is participating in the prosecution of a criminal matter.

(2) Any civil protection order issued pursuant to this section shall be issued using the standardized set of forms developed by the state court administrator pursuant to section 13-1-136.

(3) Venue for filing a motion or complaint pursuant to this section is proper in any county where the acts that are the subject of the motion or complaint occur, in any county where one of the parties resides, or in any county where one of the parties is employed. This requirement for venue does not prohibit the change of venue to any other county appropriate under applicable law.

(4) A motion for a temporary civil protection order shall be set for hearing at the earliest possible time, which hearing may be ex parte, and shall take precedence over all matters, except those matters of the same character that have been on the court docket for a longer period of time. The court shall hear all such motions as expeditiously as possible.

(5) Any district court, in an action commenced under the “Uniform Dissolution of Marriage Act”, article 10 of title 14, C.R.S., shall have authority to issue temporary and permanent protection orders pursuant to the provisions of subsection (1) of this section. Such protection order may be as a part of a motion for a protection order accompanied by an affidavit filed in an action brought under article 10 of title 14, C.R.S. Either party may request the court to issue a protection order consistent with any other provision of this article.

(6) At the time a protection order is requested pursuant to this section, the court shall inquire about, and the requesting party and such party’s attorney shall have an independent duty to disclose, knowledge such party and such party’s attorney may have concerning the existence of any prior protection or restraining order of any court addressing in whole or in part the subject matter of the requested protection order. In the event there are conflicting restraining or protection orders, the court shall consider, as its first priority, issues of public safety. An order that prevents assaults, threats of assault, or other harm shall be given precedence over an order that deals with the disposition of property or other tangible assets. Every effort shall be made by judicial officers to clarify conflicting orders.

(7)(a) A temporary civil protection order may be issued if the issuing judge or magistrate finds that an imminent danger exists to the person or persons seeking protection under the civil protection order. In determining whether an imminent danger exists to the life or health of one or more persons, the court shall consider all relevant evidence concerning the safety and protection of the persons seeking the protection order. The court shall not deny a petitioner the relief requested because of the length of time between an act of abuse or threat of harm and the filing of the petition for a protection order. The court shall not deny a petitioner the relief requested because a protection order has been issued pursuant to section 18-1-1001 or 18-1-1001.5.

(b) If the judge or magistrate finds that an imminent danger exists to the employees of a business entity, he or she may issue a civil protection order in the name of the business for the protection of the employees. An employer is not be liable for failing to obtain a civil protection order in the name of the business for the protection of the employees and patrons.

(8) Upon the filing of a complaint duly verified, alleging that the respondent has committed acts that would constitute grounds for a civil protection order, any judge or magistrate, after hearing the evidence and being fully satisfied therein that sufficient cause exists, may issue a temporary civil protection order to prevent the actions complained of and a citation directed to the respondent commanding the respondent to appear before the court at a specific time and date and to show cause, if any, why said temporary civil protection order should not be made permanent. In addition, the court may order any other relief that the court deems appropriate. Complaints may be filed by persons seeking protection for themselves or for others as provided in section 26-3.1-102(1)(b) and (1)(c), C.R.S.

(9) A copy of the complaint, a copy of the temporary civil protection order, and a copy of the citation must be served upon the respondent and upon the person to be protected, if the complaint was filed by another person, in accordance with the rules for service of process as provided in rule 304 of the rules of county court civil procedure or rule 4 of the Colorado rules of civil procedure. The citation must inform the respondent that, if the respondent fails to appear in court in accordance with the terms of the citation, a bench warrant may be issued for the arrest of the respondent, and the temporary protection order previously entered by the court made permanent without further notice or service upon the respondent.

(10) The return date of the citation must be set not more than fourteen days after the issuance of the temporary civil protection order and citation. If the petitioner is unable to serve the respondent in that period, the court shall extend the temporary protection order previously issued, continue the show of cause hearing, and issue an alias citation stating the date and time to which the hearing is continued. The petitioner may thereafter request, and the court may grant, additional continuances as needed if the petitioner has still been unable to serve the respondent.

(11)(a) Any person against whom a temporary protection order is issued pursuant to this section, which temporary protection order excludes the person from a shared residence, is permitted to return to the shared residence one time to obtain sufficient undisputed personal effects as are necessary for the person to maintain a normal standard of living during any period prior to a hearing concerning the order. The person against whom a temporary protection order is issued is permitted to return to the shared residence only if the person is accompanied at all times by a peace officer while the person is at or in the shared residence.

(b) When any person is served with a temporary protection order issued against the person excluding the person from a shared residence, the temporary protection order must contain a notification in writing to the person of the person’s ability to return to the shared residence pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (11). The written notification shall be in bold print and conspicuously placed in the temporary protection order. A judge, magistrate, or other judicial officer shall not issue a temporary protection order that does not comply with this section.

(c) Any person against whom a temporary protection order is issued pursuant to this section, which temporary protection order excludes the person from a shared residence, may avail himself or herself of the forcible entry and detainer remedies available pursuant to article 40 of this title. However, such person is not entitled to return to the residence until such time as a valid writ of restitution is executed and filed with the court issuing the protection order and, if necessary, the protection order is modified accordingly. A landlord whose lessee has been excluded from a residence pursuant to the terms of a protection order may also avail himself or herself of the remedies available pursuant to article 40 of this title.

§ 13-14-105. Provisions relating to civil protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A municipal court of record that is authorized by its municipal governing body to issue protection or restraining orders and any county court, in connection with issuing a civil protection order, has original concurrent jurisdiction with the district court to include any provisions in the order that the municipal or county court deems necessary for the protection of persons, including but not limited to orders:

(a) Restraining a party from threatening, molesting, or injuring any other party or the minor child of either of the parties;

(b) Restraining a party from contacting any other party or the minor child of either of the parties;

(c) Excluding a party from the family home upon a showing that physical or emotional harm would otherwise result;

(d) Excluding a party from the home of another party upon a showing that physical or emotional harm would otherwise result;

(e)(I) Awarding temporary care and control of any minor children of either party involved for a period of not more than one year.

(II) If temporary care and control is awarded, the order may include parenting time rights for the other party involved and any conditions of such parenting time, including the supervision of parenting time by a third party who agrees to the terms of the supervised parenting time and any costs associated with supervised parenting time, if necessary. If the restrained party is unable to pay the ordered costs, the court shall not place such responsibility with publicly funded agencies. If the court finds that the safety of any child or the protected party cannot be ensured with any form of parenting time reasonably available, the court may deny parenting time.

(III) The court may award interim decision-making responsibility of a child to a person entitled to bring an action for the allocation of parental responsibilities under section 14-10-123, C.R.S., when such award is reasonably related to preventing domestic abuse as defined in section 13-14-101(2), or preventing the child from witnessing domestic abuse.

(IV) Temporary care and control or interim decision-making responsibility must be determined in accordance with the standard contained in section 14-10-124, C.R.S.

(f) Restraining a party from interfering with a protected person at the person’s place of employment or place of education or from engaging in conduct that impairs the protected person’s employment, educational relationships, or environment;

(g) Restraining a party from molesting, injuring, killing, taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, disposing of or threatening harm to an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by any other party or a minor child of any other party;

(h) Specifying arrangements for possession and care of an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by any other party or a minor child of any other party;

(i) Granting such other relief as the court deems appropriate;

(j)(I) Entering a temporary injunction restraining the respondent from ceasing to make payments for mortgage or rent, insurance, utilities or related services, transportation, medical care, or child care when the respondent has a prior existing duty or legal obligation or from transferring, encumbering, concealing, or in any way disposing of personal effects or real property, except in the usual course of business or for the necessities of life and requiring the restrained party to account to the court for all extraordinary expenditures made after the injunction is in effect.

(II) Any injunction issued pursuant to this paragraph (j) is effective upon personal service or upon waiver and acceptance of service by the respondent for a period of time determined appropriate by the court not exceed one year after the issuance of the permanent civil protection order.

(III) The provisions of the injunction must be printed on the summons, and the petition and the injunction become an order of the court upon fulfillment of the requirements of subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (j).

(IV) Nothing in this paragraph (j) precludes either party from applying to the district court for further temporary orders, an expanded temporary injunction, or modification or revocation. Any subsequent order issued by the district court as part of a domestic matter involving the parties supersedes an injunction made pursuant to this paragraph (j).

(2) Any order for temporary care and control issued pursuant to subsection (1) of this section is governed by the “Uniform Child-custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act”, article 13 of title 14, C.R.S.

§ 13-14-105.5. Civil protection orders--prohibition on possessing or purchasing a firearm

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Order requirements. If the court subjects a respondent to a civil protection order and the court determines on the record after reviewing the petition for the protection order that the protection order includes an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), and the act of domestic violence involved the threat of use, use of, or attempted use of physical force, the court, as part of such order:

(a) Shall order the respondent to:

(I) Refrain from possessing or purchasing any firearm or ammunition for the duration of the order; and

(II) Relinquish, for the duration of the order, any firearm or ammunition in the respondent’s immediate possession or control or subject to the respondent’s immediate possession or control; and

(b) May require that before the respondent is released from custody on bond, the respondent relinquish, for the duration of the order, any firearm or ammunition in the respondent’s immediate possession or control or subject to the respondent’s immediate possession or control; and

(c) Shall schedule a compliance hearing pursuant to subsection (5)(a) of this section and notify the respondent of the hearing date and that the respondent shall appear at the hearing in person unless the hearing is vacated pursuant to subsection (5)(a) of this section.

(2) Time period to relinquish. (a) Except as described in subsection (2)(b) of this section, upon issuance of an order pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, the respondent shall relinquish, in accordance with subsection (4) of this section, any firearm or ammunition:

(I) Not more than twenty-four hours, excluding legal holidays and weekends, after being served with the order in open court; or

(II) Not more than forty-eight hours, excluding legal holidays and weekends, after being served with the order outside of the court.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (2)(a) of this section, a court may allow a respondent up to an additional twenty-four hours to relinquish a firearm if the respondent demonstrates to the satisfaction of the court that the respondent is unable to comply within the time frame set forth in subsection (2)(a) of this section.

(3) Additional time to comply if respondent in custody. If a respondent is unable to satisfy the provisions of this section because the respondent is incarcerated or otherwise held in the custody of a law enforcement agency, the court shall require the respondent to satisfy the provisions of this section not more than twenty-four hours, excluding legal holidays and weekends, after the respondent’s release from incarceration or custody, or be held in contempt of court. Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (3), the court may, in its discretion, require the respondent to relinquish any firearm or ammunition in the respondent’s immediate possession or control or subject to the respondent’s immediate possession or control before the end of the respondent’s incarceration. In such a case, a respondent’s failure to relinquish a firearm or ammunition as required constitutes contempt of court.

(4) Relinquishment options. To satisfy the requirement in subsection (2) of this section, the respondent shall either:

(a) Sell or transfer possession of the firearm or ammunition to a federally licensed firearms dealer described in 18 U.S.C. sec. 923, as amended; except that this provision must not be interpreted to require any federally licensed firearms dealer to purchase or accept possession of any firearm or ammunition; or

(b) Arrange for the storage of the firearm or ammunition by a law enforcement agency or by a storage facility with which the sheriff has contracted for the storage of transferred firearms or ammunition, pursuant to subsection (7)(a) of this section; except that this provision must not be interpreted to require any law enforcement agency to provide storage of firearms or ammunition for any person; or

(c) Sell or otherwise transfer the firearm or ammunition to a private party who may legally possess the firearm or ammunition; except that a respondent who sells or transfers a firearm pursuant to this subsection (4)(c) shall satisfy all of the provisions of section 18-12-112 concerning private firearms transfers, including but not limited to the performance of a criminal background check of the transferee.

(5) Compliance hearing and affidavit. (a) The court shall conduct a compliance hearing not less than eight but not more than twelve business days after the order is issued to ensure the respondent has complied with subsection (5)(b) of this section. The court may vacate the hearing if the court determines the respondent has completed the affidavit described in subsection (5)(b) of this section. Failure to appear at a hearing described in this subsection (5)(a) constitutes contempt of court.

(b) The respondent shall complete an affidavit, which must be filed in the court record within seven business days after the order is issued, stating the number of firearms in the respondent’s immediate possession or control or subject to the respondent’s immediate possession or control, the make and model of each firearm, any reason the respondent is still in immediate possession or control of such firearm, and the location of each firearm. If the respondent does not possess a firearm at the time the order is issued pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, the respondent shall indicate such nonpossession in the affidavit.

(c) If the respondent possessed a firearm at the time of the qualifying incident giving rise to the duty to relinquish the firearm pursuant to this section but transferred or sold the firearm to a private party prior to the court’s issuance of the order, the respondent shall disclose the sale or transfer of the firearm to the private party in the affidavit described in subsection (5)(b) of this section. The respondent, within seven business days after the order is issued, shall acquire a written receipt and signed declaration that complies with subsection (8)(a)(I) of this section, and the respondent shall file the signed declaration at the same time the respondent files the affidavit pursuant to subsection (5)(b) of this section.

(d) The state court administrator shall develop the affidavit described in subsection (5)(b) of this section and all other forms necessary to implement this section no later than January 1, 2022. State courts may use the forms developed by the state court administrator pursuant to this subsection (5)(d) or another form of the court’s choosing, so long as the forms comply with the requirements of this subsection (5).

(e) Upon the sworn statement or testimony of the petitioner or of any law enforcement officer alleging there is probable cause to believe the respondent has failed to comply with the provisions of this section, the court shall determine whether probable cause exists to believe that the respondent has failed to relinquish all firearms or a concealed carry permit in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession. If probable cause exists, the court shall issue a search warrant that states with particularity the places to be searched and the items to be taken into custody.

(6) Relinquishment to a federally licensed firearms dealer. A federally licensed firearms dealer who takes possession of a firearm or ammunition pursuant to this section shall issue a written receipt and signed declaration to the respondent at the time of relinquishment. The declaration must memorialize the sale or transfer of the firearm. The federally licensed firearms dealer shall not return the firearm or ammunition to the respondent unless the dealer:

(a) Contacts the Colorado bureau of investigation, referred to in this section as the “bureau”, to request that a criminal background check of the respondent be performed; and

(b) Obtains approval of the transfer from the bureau after the performance of the criminal background check.

(7) Storage by a law enforcement agency or storage facility. (a) A local law enforcement agency may elect to store firearms or ammunition for a respondent pursuant to this section. The law enforcement agency may enter into an agreement with any other law enforcement agency or storage facility for the storage of transferred firearms or ammunition. If a law enforcement agency elects to store firearms or ammunition for a respondent:

(I) The law enforcement agency may charge a fee for the storage, the amount of which must not exceed the direct and indirect costs incurred by the law enforcement agency in providing the storage;

(II) The law enforcement agency shall establish policies for disposal of abandoned or stolen firearms or ammunition; and

(III) The law enforcement agency shall issue a written receipt and signed declaration to the respondent at the time of relinquishment. The declaration must memorialize the transfer of the firearm.

(b) If a local law enforcement agency elects to store firearms or ammunition for a respondent pursuant to this subsection (7), the law enforcement agency shall not return the firearm or ammunition to the respondent unless the law enforcement agency:

(I) Contacts the bureau to request that a criminal background check of the respondent be performed; and

(II) Obtains approval of the transfer from the bureau after the performance of the criminal background check.

(c)(I) A law enforcement agency that elects to store a firearm or ammunition for a respondent pursuant to this section may elect to cease storing the firearm or ammunition. A law enforcement agency that elects to cease storing a firearm or ammunition for a respondent shall notify the respondent of the decision and request that the respondent immediately make arrangements for the transfer of the possession of the firearm or ammunition to the respondent or, if the respondent is prohibited from possessing a firearm, to another person who is legally permitted to possess a firearm.

(II) If a law enforcement agency elects to cease storing a firearm or ammunition for a respondent and notifies the respondent as described in subsection (7)(c)(I) of this section, the law enforcement agency may dispose of the firearm or ammunition if the respondent fails to make arrangements for the transfer of the firearm or ammunition and complete the transfer within ninety days after receiving the notification.

(d) A law enforcement agency that elects to store a firearm or ammunition shall obtain a search warrant to examine or test the firearm or ammunition or facilitate a criminal investigation if a law enforcement agency has probable cause to believe the firearm or ammunition has been used in the commission of a crime, is stolen, or is contraband. This subsection (7)(d) does not preclude a law enforcement agency from conducting a routine inspection of the firearm or ammunition prior to accepting the firearm for storage.

(8) Relinquishment to a private party. (a) If a respondent sells or otherwise transfers a firearm or ammunition to a private party who may legally possess the firearm or ammunition, as described in subsection (4)(c) of this section, the respondent shall acquire:

(I) From the federally licensed firearms dealer, a written receipt and signed declaration memorializing the transfer, which receipt must be dated and signed by the respondent, the transferee, and the federally licensed firearms dealer; and

(II) From the federally licensed firearms dealer who requests from the bureau a criminal background check of the transferee, as described in section 18-12-112, a written statement of the results of the criminal background check.

(b) The respondent shall not transfer the firearm to a private party living in the same residence as the defendant at the time of the transfer.

(c) Notwithstanding section 18-12-112, if a private party elects to store a firearm for a respondent pursuant to this section, the private party shall not return the firearm to the respondent unless the private party acquires from the federally licensed firearms dealer who requests from the bureau a background check of the respondent, a written statement of the results of the background check authorizing the return of the firearm to the respondent.

(9) Requirement to file signed declaration. (a) The respondent shall file a copy of the signed declaration issued pursuant to subsection (6), (7)(a)(III), or (8)(a)(I) of this section, and, if applicable, the written statement of the results of a criminal background check performed on the respondent, as described in subsection (8)(a)(II) of this section, with the court as proof of the relinquishment at the same time the respondent files the signed affidavit pursuant to subsection (5)(b) of this section. The signed declaration and written statement filed pursuant to this subsection (9) are only available for inspection by the court and the parties to the proceeding. If a respondent fails to timely transfer or sell a firearm or file the signed declaration or written statement as described in this subsection (9):

(I) The failure constitutes a violation of the protection order pursuant to section 18-6-803.5(1)(c); and

(II) The court shall issue a warrant for the respondent’s arrest.

(b) In any subsequent prosecution for a violation of a protection order described in this subsection (9), the court shall take judicial notice of the respondent’s failure to transfer or sell a firearm, or file the signed declaration or written statement, which constitutes prima facie evidence of a violation of the protection order pursuant to section 18-6-803.5(1)(c), and testimony of the clerk of the court or the clerk of the court’s deputy is not required.

(10) Nothing in this section limits a respondent’s right to petition the court for dismissal of a protection order.

(11) A respondent subject to a civil protection order issued pursuant to section 13-14-104.5(1)(a) who possesses or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm or ammunition while the protection order is in effect violates the order pursuant to section 18-6-803.5(1)(c).

(12)(a) A law enforcement agency that elects in good faith to not store a firearm or ammunition for a respondent pursuant to subsection (7)(a) of this section is not criminally or civilly liable for such inaction.

(b) A law enforcement agency that returns possession of a firearm or ammunition to a respondent in good faith as permitted by subsection (7) of this section is not criminally or civilly liable for such action.(13) Immunity. A federally licensed firearms dealer, law enforcement agency, storage facility, or private party that elects to store a firearm pursuant to this section is not civilly liable for any resulting damages to the firearm, as long as such damage did not result from the willful and wrongful act or gross negligence of the federally licensed firearms dealer, law enforcement agency, storage facility, or private party.

§ 13-14-106. Procedure for permanent civil protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) On the return date of the citation, or on the day to which the hearing has been continued, the judge or magistrate shall examine the record and the evidence. If upon such examination the judge or magistrate finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the respondent has committed acts constituting grounds for issuance of a civil protection order and that unless restrained will continue to commit such acts or acts designed to intimidate or retaliate against the protected person, the judge or magistrate shall order the temporary civil protection order to be made permanent or enter a permanent civil protection order with provisions different from the temporary civil protection order. A finding of imminent danger to the protected person is not a necessary prerequisite to the issuance of a permanent civil protection order. The court shall not deny a petitioner the relief requested because a protection order has been issued pursuant to section 18-1-1001 or 18-1-1001.5. The judge or magistrate shall inform the respondent that a violation of the civil protection order constitutes a criminal offense pursuant to section 18-6-803.5 or constitutes contempt of court and subjects the respondent to such punishment as may be provided by law. If the respondent fails to appear before the court for the show cause hearing at the time and on the date identified in the citation issued by the court and the court finds that the respondent was properly served with the temporary protection order and such citation, it is not necessary to re-serve the respondent to make the protection order permanent. However, if the court modifies the protection order on the motion of the protected party, the modified protection order must be served upon the respondent.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), the judge or magistrate, after examining the record and the evidence, for good cause shown, may continue the temporary protection order and the show cause hearing to a date certain not to exceed one year after the date of the hearing if he or she determines such continuance would be in the best interests of the parties and if both parties are present at the hearing and agree to the continuance. In addition, each party may request one continuance for a period not to exceed fourteen days, which the judge or magistrate, after examining the record and the evidence, may grant upon a finding of good cause. The judge or magistrate shall inform the respondent that a violation of the temporary civil protection order constitutes a criminal offense pursuant to section 18-6-803.5, C.R.S., or constitutes contempt of court and subjects the respondent to such punishment as may be provided by law.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b) of this subsection (1), for a protection order filed in a proceeding commenced under the “Uniform Dissolution of Marriage Act”, article 10 of title 14, C.R.S., the court may, on the motion of either party if both parties agree to the continuance, continue the temporary protection order until the time of the final decree or final disposition of the action.

(2) The court shall electronically transfer into the central registry of protection orders established pursuant to section 18-6-803.7, C.R.S., a copy of any order issued pursuant to this section and shall deliver a copy of such order to the protected party.

(3) A court shall not grant a mutual protection order to prevent domestic abuse for the protection of opposing parties unless each party has met his or her burden of proof as described in section 13-14-104.5(7) and the court makes separate and sufficient findings of fact to support the issuance of the mutual protection order to prevent domestic abuse for the protection of opposing parties. A party may not waive the requirements set forth in this subsection (3).

§ 13-14-108. Modification and termination of civil protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any order granted pursuant to section 13-14-105(1)(c) or (1)(e) must terminate whenever a subsequent order regarding the same subject matter is granted pursuant to the “Uniform Dissolution of Marriage Act”, article 10 of title 14, C.R.S., the “Uniform Child-custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act”, article 13 of title 14, C.R.S., or the “Colorado Children’s Code”, title 19, C.R.S.

(2)(a) Nothing in this article precludes the protected party from applying to the court at any time for modification, including but not limited to a modification of the duration of a protection order or dismissal of a temporary or permanent protection order issued pursuant to this section.

(b) The restrained party may apply to the court for modification, including but not limited to a modification of the duration of the protection order or dismissal of a permanent protection order pursuant to this section. However, if a permanent protection order has been issued or if a motion for modification or dismissal of a permanent protection order has been filed by the restrained party, whether or not it was granted, no motion to modify or dismiss may be filed by the restrained party within two years after issuance of the permanent order or after disposition of the prior motion.

(3)(a)(I) Notwithstanding any provision of subsection (2) of this section to the contrary, after issuance of the permanent protection order, if the restrained party has been convicted of or pled guilty to any misdemeanor or any felony against the protected person, other than the original offense, if any, that formed the basis for the issuance of the protection order, then the protection order remains permanent and must not be modified or dismissed by the court.

(II) Notwithstanding the prohibition in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a), a protection order may be modified or dismissed on the motion of the protected person, or the person’s attorney, parent or legal guardian if a minor, or conservator or legal guardian if one has been appointed; except that this paragraph (a) does not apply if the parent, legal guardian, or conservator is the restrained person.

(b) A court shall not consider a motion to modify a protection order filed by a restrained party pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) unless the court receives the results of a fingerprint-based criminal history record check of the restrained party that is conducted within ninety days prior to the filing of the motion. The fingerprint-based criminal history record check must include a review of the state and federal criminal history records maintained by the Colorado bureau of investigation and federal bureau of investigation. The restrained party shall be responsible for supplying fingerprints to the Colorado bureau of investigation and to the federal bureau of investigation and paying the costs of the record checks. The restrained party may be required by the court to provide certified copies of any criminal dispositions that are not reflected in the state or federal records and any other dispositions that are unknown.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in this article, the issuing court retains jurisdiction to enforce, modify, or dismiss a temporary or permanent protection order.

(5) The court shall hear any motion filed pursuant to subsection (2) of this section. The party moving for a modification or dismissal of a temporary or permanent protection order pursuant to subsection (2) of this section shall affect personal service on the other party with a copy of the motion and notice of the hearing on the motion, as provided by rule 4(e) of the Colorado rules of civil procedure. The moving party shall bear the burden of proof to show, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the modification is appropriate or that a dismissal is appropriate because the protection order is no longer necessary. If the protected party has requested that his or her address be kept confidential, the court shall not disclose such information to the restrained party or any other person, except as otherwise authorized by law.

(6) In considering whether to modify or dismiss a protection order issued pursuant to this section, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including but not limited to:

(a) Whether the restrained party has complied with the terms of the protection order;

(b) Whether the restrained party has met the conditions associated with the protection order, if any;

(c) Whether the restrained party has been ordered to participate in and has completed a domestic violence offender treatment program provided by an entity approved pursuant to section 16-11.8-103, C.R.S., or has been ordered to participate in and has either successfully completed a sex offender treatment program provided by an entity approved pursuant to section 16-11.7-103, C.R.S., or has made significant progress in a sex offender treatment program as reported by the sex offender treatment provider;

(d) Whether the restrained party has voluntarily participated in any domestic violence offender treatment program provided by an entity approved pursuant to section 16-11.8-103, C.R.S., or any sex offender treatment program provided by an entity approved pursuant to section 16-11.7-103, C.R.S.;

(e) The time that has lapsed since the protection order was issued;

(f) When the last incident of abuse or threat of harm occurred or other relevant information concerning the safety and protection of the protected person;

(g) Whether, since the issuance of the protection order, the restrained person has been convicted of or pled guilty to any misdemeanor or any felony against the protected person, other than the original offense, if any, that formed the basis for the issuance of the protection order;

(h) Whether any other restraining orders, protective orders, or protection orders have been subsequently issued against the restrained person pursuant to this section or any other law of this state or any other state;

(i) The circumstances of the parties, including the relative proximity of the parties’ residences and schools or work places and whether the parties have minor children together; and

(j) Whether the continued safety of the protected person depends upon the protection order remaining in place because the order has been successful in preventing further harm to the protected person.

§ 13-14-110. Foreign protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Definitions. As used in this section, “foreign protection order” means any protection or restraining order, injunction, or other order issued for the purpose of preventing violent or threatening acts or harassment against, or contact or communication with or physical proximity to, another person, including temporary or final orders, other than child support or custody orders, issued by a civil or criminal court of another state, an Indian tribe, or a United States territory or commonwealth.

(2) Full faith and credit. Courts of this state shall accord full faith and credit to a foreign protection order as if the order were an order of this state, notwithstanding section 14-11-101, C.R.S., and article 53 of this title, if the order meets all of the following conditions:

(a) The foreign protection order was obtained after providing the person against whom the protection order was sought reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard sufficient to protect his or her due process rights. If the foreign protection order is an ex parte injunction or order, the person against whom it was obtained must have been given notice and an opportunity to be heard within a reasonable time after the order was issued sufficient to protect his or her due process rights.

(b) The court that issued the order had jurisdiction over the parties and over the subject matter; and

(c) The order complies with section 13-14-106(3).

(3) Process. A person entitled to protection under a foreign protection order may, but is not required to, file such order in the district or county court by filing with such court a certified copy of such order, which must be entered into the central registry of protection orders created in section 18-6-803.7, C.R.S. The certified order must be accompanied by an affidavit in which the protected person affirms to the best of his or her knowledge that the order has not been changed or modified since it was issued. There shall be no filing fee charged. It is the responsibility of the protected person to notify the court if the protection order is subsequently modified.

(4) Enforcement. Filing of the foreign protection order in the central registry or otherwise domesticating or registering the order pursuant to article 53 of this title or section 14-11-101, C.R.S., is not a prerequisite to enforcement of the foreign protection order. A peace officer shall presume the validity of, and enforce in accordance with the provisions of this article, a foreign protection order that appears to be an authentic court order that has been provided to the peace officer by any source. If the protected party does not have a copy of the foreign protection order on his or her person and the peace officer determines that a protection order exists through the central registry, the national crime information center as described in 28 U.S.C. sec. 534, or through communication with appropriate authorities, the peace officer shall enforce the order. A peace officer may rely upon the statement of any person protected by a foreign protection order that it remains in effect. A peace officer who is acting in good faith when enforcing a foreign protection order is not civilly liable or criminally liable pursuant to section 18-6-803.5(5), C.R.S.

Article 14.5. Extreme Risk Protection Orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 13-14.5-102. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this article 14.5, unless the context otherwise clearly requires:

(1) “Extreme risk protection order” means either a temporary order or a continuing order granted pursuant to this article 14.5.

(2) “Family or household member” means, with respect to a respondent, any:

(a) Person related by blood, marriage, or adoption to the respondent;

(b) Person who has a child in common with the respondent, regardless of whether such person has been married to the respondent or has lived together with the respondent at any time;

(c) Person who regularly resides or regularly resided with the respondent within the last six months;

(d) Domestic partner of the respondent;

(e) Person who has a biological or legal parent-child relationship with the respondent, including stepparents and stepchildren and grandparents and grandchildren;

(f) Person who is acting or has acted as the respondent’s legal guardian; and

(g) A person in any other relationship described in section 18-6-800.3(2) with the respondent.

(3) “Firearm” has the same meaning as in section 18-1-901(3)(h).

(4) “Petitioner” means the person who petitions for an extreme risk protection order pursuant to this article 14.5.

(5) “Respondent” means the person who is identified as the respondent in a petition filed pursuant to this article 14.5.

§ 13-14.5-103. Temporary extreme risk protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A family or household member of the respondent or a law enforcement officer or agency may request a temporary extreme risk protection order without notice to the respondent by including in the petition for an extreme risk protection order an affidavit, signed under oath and penalty of perjury, supporting the issuance of a temporary extreme risk protection order that sets forth the facts tending to establish the grounds of the petition or the reason for believing they exist and, if the petitioner is a family or household member, attesting that the petitioner is a family or household member. The petition shall comply with the requirements of section 13-14.5-104(3). If the petitioner is a law enforcement officer or law enforcement agency, the law enforcement officer or law enforcement agency shall concurrently file a sworn affidavit for a search warrant pursuant to section 16-3-301.5 to search for any firearms in the possession or control of the respondent at a location or locations to be named in the warrant. If a petition pursuant to section 27-65-106 is also filed against the respondent, a court of competent jurisdiction can hear that petition at the same time as the hearing for a temporary extreme risk protection order or the hearing for a continuing extreme risk protection order.

(2) In considering whether to issue a temporary extreme risk protection order pursuant to this section, the court shall consider all relevant evidence, including the evidence described in section 13-14.5-105(3).

(3) If a court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that, based on the evidence presented pursuant to section 13-14.5-105(3), the respondent poses a significant risk of causing personal injury to self or others in the near future by having in his or her custody or control a firearm or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, the court shall issue a temporary extreme risk protection order.

(4) The court shall hold a temporary extreme risk protection order hearing in person or by telephone on the day the petition is filed or on the court day immediately following the day the petition is filed. The court may schedule a hearing by telephone pursuant to local court rule to reasonably accommodate a disability or, in exceptional circumstances, to protect a petitioner from potential harm. The court shall require assurances of the petitioner’s identity before conducting a telephonic hearing. A copy of the telephone hearing must be provided to the respondent prior to the hearing for an extreme risk protection order.

(5)(a) In accordance with section 13-14.5-105(1), the court shall schedule a hearing within fourteen days after the issuance of a temporary extreme risk protection order to determine if a three-hundred-sixty-four-day extreme risk protection order should be issued pursuant to this article 14.5. Notice of that hearing date must be included with the temporary extreme risk protection order that is served on the respondent. The court shall provide notice of the hearing date to the petitioner.

(b) Any temporary extreme risk protection order issued expires on the date and time of the hearing on the extreme risk protection order petition or the withdrawal of the petition.

(6) A temporary extreme risk protection order must include:

(a) A statement of the grounds asserted for the order;

(b) The date and time the order was issued;

(c) The date and time the order expires;

(d) The address of the court in which any responsive pleading should be filed;

(e) The date and time of the scheduled hearing;

(f) The requirements for surrender of firearms pursuant to section 13-14.5-108; and

(g) The following statement:

To the subject of this temporary extreme risk protection order: This order is valid until the date and time noted above. You may not have in your custody or control a firearm or purchase, possess, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive a firearm while this order is in effect. You must immediately surrender to the (insert name of law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where the respondent resides) all firearms in your custody, control, or possession, and any concealed carry permit issued to you. A hearing will be held on the date and at the time noted above to determine if an extreme risk protection order should be issued. Failure to appear at that hearing may result in a court entering an order against you that is valid for three hundred sixty four days. An attorney will be appointed to represent you, or you may seek the advice of your own attorney at your own expense as to any matter connected with this order.

(7) A law enforcement officer shall serve a temporary extreme risk protection order concurrently with the notice of hearing and petition and a notice that includes referrals to appropriate resources, including domestic violence, behavioral health, and counseling resources, in the same manner as provided for in section 13-14.5-105 for service of the notice of hearing where the respondent resides.

(8)(a) If the court issues a temporary extreme risk protection order, the court shall state the particular reasons for the court’s issuance.

(b) If the court declines to issue a temporary extreme risk protection order, the court shall state the particular reasons for the court’s denial.

§ 13-14.5-104. Petition for extreme risk protection order

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A petition for an extreme risk protection order may be filed by a family or household member of the respondent or a law enforcement officer or agency. If the petition is filed by a law enforcement officer or agency, the officer or agency shall be represented in any judicial proceeding by a county or city attorney upon request. If the petition is filed by a family or household member, the petitioner, to the best of his or her ability, shall notify the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where the respondent resides of the petition and the hearing date with enough advance notice to allow for participation or attendance. Upon the filing of a petition, the court shall appoint an attorney to represent the respondent, and the court shall include the appointment in the notice of hearing provided to the respondent pursuant to section 13-14.5-105(1)(a). The respondent may replace the attorney with an attorney of the respondent’s own selection at any time at the respondent’s own expense. Attorney fees for the attorney appointed for the respondent shall be paid by the court.

(2) A petition for an extreme risk protection order must be filed in the county where the respondent resides.

(3) A petition must:

(a) Allege that the respondent poses a significant risk of causing personal injury to self or others by having in his or her custody or control a firearm or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm and must be accompanied by an affidavit, signed under oath and penalty of perjury, stating the specific statements, actions, or facts that give rise to a reasonable fear of future dangerous acts by the respondent;

(b) Identify the number, types, and locations of any firearms the petitioner believes to be in the respondent’s current ownership, possession, custody, or control;

(c) Identify whether the respondent is required to possess, carry, or use a firearm as a condition of the respondent’s current employment;

(d) Identify whether there is a known existing domestic abuse protection order or emergency protection order governing the petitioner or respondent;

(e) Identify whether there is a pending lawsuit, complaint, petition, or other action between the parties to the petition; and

(f) If the petitioner is not a law enforcement agency, identify whether the petitioner informed a local law enforcement agency regarding the respondent.

(4) The court shall verify the terms of any existing order identified pursuant to subsection (3)(d) of this section governing the parties. The court may not delay granting relief because of the existence of a pending action between the parties. A petition for an extreme risk protection order may be granted whether or not there is a pending action between the parties.

(5) If the petition states that disclosure of the petitioner’s address would risk harm to the petitioner or any member of the petitioner’s family or household, the petitioner’s address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court. If the petitioner has not disclosed an address pursuant to this section, the petitioner must designate an alternative address at which the respondent may serve notice of any motions. If the petitioner is a law enforcement officer or agency, the address of record must be that of the law enforcement agency.

(6) A court or public agency shall not charge a fee for filing or service of process to a petitioner seeking relief pursuant to this article 14.5. A petitioner or respondent must be provided the necessary number of certified copies, forms, and instructional brochures free of charge.

(7) A person is not required to post a bond to obtain relief in any proceeding pursuant to this section.

(8) The district and county courts of the state of Colorado have jurisdiction over proceedings pursuant to this article 14.5.

§ 13-14.5-105. Hearings on petition--grounds for order issuance

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) Upon filing of the petition, the court shall order a hearing to be held and provide a notice of hearing to the respondent. The court must provide the notice of the hearing no later than one court day after the date of the extreme risk protection order petition. The court may schedule a hearing by telephone pursuant to local court rule to reasonably accommodate a disability or, in exceptional circumstances, to protect a petitioner from potential harm. The court shall require assurances of the petitioner’s identity before conducting a telephonic hearing.

(b) Before the next court day, the court clerk shall forward a copy of the notice of hearing and petition to the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where the respondent resides for service upon the respondent.

(c) A copy of the notice of hearing and petition must be served upon the respondent in accordance with the rules for service of process as provided in rule 4 of the Colorado rules of civil procedure or rule 304 of the Colorado rules of county court civil procedure. Service issued pursuant to this section takes precedence over the service of other documents, unless the other documents are of a similar emergency nature.

(d) The court may, as provided in section 13-14.5-103, issue a temporary extreme risk protection order pending the hearing ordered pursuant to subsection (1)(a) of this section. The temporary extreme risk protection order must be served concurrently with the notice of hearing and petition.

(2) Upon hearing the matter, if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence, based on the evidence presented pursuant to subsection (3) of this section, that the respondent poses a significant risk of causing personal injury to self or others by having in the respondent’s custody or control a firearm or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, the court shall issue an extreme risk protection order for a period of three hundred sixty-four days.

(3) In determining whether grounds for an extreme risk protection order exist, the court may consider any relevant evidence, including but not limited to any of the following:

(a) A recent act or credible threat of violence by the respondent against self or others, whether or not such violence or credible threat of violence involves a firearm;

(b) A pattern of acts or credible threats of violence by the respondent within the past year, including but not limited to acts or credible threats of violence by the respondent against self or others;

(c) A violation by the respondent of a civil protection order issued pursuant to article 14 of this title 13;

(d) A previous or existing extreme risk protection order issued against the respondent and a violation of a previous or existing extreme risk protection order;

(e) A conviction of the respondent for a crime that included an underlying factual basis of domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1);

(f) The respondent’s ownership, access to, or intent to possess a firearm;

(g) A credible threat of or the unlawful or reckless use of a firearm by the respondent;

(h) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened use of unlawful physical force by the respondent against another person, or the respondent’s history of stalking another person, as described in section 18-3-602;

(i) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a crime listed in section 24-4.1-302(1) or section 18-9-202;

(j) Evidence of the respondent’s abuse of controlled substances or alcohol;

(k) Whether the respondent is required to possess, carry, or use a firearm as a condition of the respondent’s current employment; and

(l) Evidence of recent acquisition of a firearm or ammunition by the respondent.

(4) The court may:

(a) Examine under oath the petitioner, the respondent, and any witnesses they may produce, or, in lieu of examination, consider sworn affidavits of the petitioner, the respondent, and any witnesses they may produce; and

(b) Request that the Colorado bureau of investigation conduct a criminal history record check related to the respondent and provide the results to the court under seal.

(5) The court shall allow the petitioner and respondent to present evidence and cross-examine witnesses and be represented by an attorney at the hearing.

(6) In a hearing pursuant to this article 14.5, the rules of evidence apply to the same extent as in a civil protection order proceeding pursuant to article 14 of this title 13.

(7) During the hearing, the court shall consider any available mental health evaluation or chemical dependency evaluation provided to the court.

(8)(a) Before issuing an extreme risk protection order, the court shall consider whether the respondent meets the standard for a court-ordered evaluation for persons with mental health disorders pursuant to section 27-65-106. If the court determines that the respondent meets the standard, then, in addition to issuing an extreme risk protection order, the court shall order mental health treatment and evaluation authorized pursuant to section 27-65-106(4)(d).

(b) Before issuing an extreme risk protection order, the court shall consider whether the respondent meets the standard for an emergency commitment pursuant to section 27-81-111. If the court determines that the respondent meets the standard, then, in addition to issuing an extreme risk protection order, the court shall order an emergency commitment pursuant to section 27-81-111.

(9) An extreme risk protection order must include:

(a) A statement of the grounds supporting the issuance of the order;

(b) The date and time the order was issued;

(c) The date and time the order expires;

(d) The address of the court in which any responsive pleading should be filed;

(e) The requirements for relinquishment of a firearm and concealed carry permit pursuant to section 13-14.5-108; and

(f) The following statement:

To the subject of this extreme risk protection order: This order will last until the date and time noted above. If you have not done so already, you must immediately surrender any firearms in your custody, control, or possession and any concealed carry permit issued to you. You may not have in your custody or control a firearm or purchase, possess, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive a firearm while this order is in effect. You have the right to request one hearing to terminate this order during the period that this order is in effect, starting from the date of this order and continuing through any renewals. You may seek the advice of an attorney as to any matter connected with this order.

(10) When the court issues an extreme risk protection order, the court shall inform the respondent that the respondent is entitled to request termination of the order in the manner prescribed by section 13-14.5-107. The court shall provide the respondent with a form to request a termination hearing.

(11)(a) If the court issues an extreme risk protection order, the court shall state the particular reasons for the court’s issuance.

(b) If the court denies the issuance of an extreme risk protection order, the court shall state the particular reasons for the court’s denial.

(12) If the court denies the issuance of an extreme risk protection order but ordered a temporary extreme risk protection order and a law enforcement agency took custody of the respondent’s concealed carry permit or the respondent surrendered the respondent’s concealed carry permit as a result of the temporary extreme risk protection order, the sheriff who issued the concealed carry permit shall reissue the concealed carry permit to the respondent within three days, at no charge to the respondent.

(13) If the court issues an extreme risk protection order and the petitioner is a law enforcement officer or agency or community member, the petitioner shall make a good-faith effort to provide notice of the order to a family or household member of the respondent and to any known third party who may be at direct risk of violence. The notice must include referrals to appropriate resources, including domestic violence, behavioral health, and counseling resources.

§ 13-14.5-106. Service of protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) An extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to section 13-14.5-105 must be served personally upon the respondent, except as otherwise provided in this article 14.5.

(2) The law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where the respondent resides shall serve the respondent personally.

(3) The court clerk shall forward a copy of the extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this article 14.5 on or before the next court day to the law enforcement agency specified in the order for service. Service of an order issued pursuant to this article 14.5 takes precedence over the service of other documents, unless the other documents are of a similar emergency nature.

(4) If the law enforcement agency cannot complete service upon the respondent within five days, the law enforcement agency shall notify the petitioner. The petitioner shall then provide any additional information regarding the respondent’s whereabouts to the law enforcement agency to effect service. The law enforcement agency may request additional time to allow for the proper and safe planning and execution of the court order.

(5) If an extreme risk protection order entered by the court states that the respondent appeared in person before the court, the necessity for further service is waived, and proof of service of that order is not necessary.

(6) Returns of service pursuant to this article 14.5 must be made in accordance with the applicable court rules.

(7) If the respondent is a veteran and there are any criminal charges against the respondent that result from the service or enforcement of the extreme risk protection order, the judge shall refer the case to a veterans court if the jurisdiction has a veterans court and the charges are veterans court eligible.

§ 13-14.5-107. Termination or renewal of protection orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Termination. (a) The respondent may submit one written request for a hearing to terminate an extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this article 14.5 for the period that the order is in effect. Upon receipt of the request for a hearing to terminate an extreme risk protection order, the court shall set a date for a hearing. Notice of the request and date of hearing must be served on the petitioner in accordance with the Colorado rules of civil procedure or Colorado rules of county court civil procedure. The court shall set the hearing fourteen days after the filing of the request for a hearing to terminate an extreme risk protection order. The court shall terminate the extreme risk protection order if the respondent establishes by clear and convincing evidence that he or she no longer poses a significant risk of causing personal injury to self or others by having in his or her custody or control a firearm or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. The court may consider any relevant evidence, including evidence of the considerations listed in section 13-14.5-105(3).

(b) The court may continue the hearing if the court determines that it cannot enter a termination order at the hearing but determines that there is a strong possibility that the court could enter a termination order at a future date before the expiration of the extreme risk protection order. If the court continues the hearing, the court shall set the date for the next hearing prior to the date for the expiration of the extreme risk protection order.

(2) Renewal. (a) The court shall notify the petitioner of the impending expiration of an extreme risk protection order sixty-three calendar days before the date that the order expires.

(b) A petitioner, a family or household member of a respondent, or a law enforcement officer or agency may, by motion, request a renewal of an extreme risk protection order at any time within sixty-three calendar days before the expiration of the order.

(c) Upon receipt of the motion to renew, the court shall order that a hearing be held not later than fourteen days after the filing of the motion to renew. The court may schedule a hearing by telephone in the manner prescribed by section 13-14.5-105(1)(a). The respondent must be personally served in the same manner prescribed by section 13-14.5-105(1)(b) and (1)(c).

(d) In determining whether to renew an extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this section, the court shall consider all relevant evidence and follow the same procedure as provided in section 13-14.5-105.

(e) If the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that, based on the evidence presented pursuant to section 13-14.5-105(3), the respondent continues to pose a significant risk of causing personal injury to self or others by having in his or her custody or control a firearm or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, the court shall renew the order for a period of time the court deems appropriate, not to exceed one year. In the order, the court shall set a return date to review the order no later than thirty-five days prior to the expiration of the order. However, if, after notice, the motion for renewal is uncontested and the petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be renewed on the basis of the petitioner’s motion or affidavit, signed under oath and penalty of perjury, stating that there has been no material change in relevant circumstances since the entry of the order and stating the reason for the requested renewal.

(3) If an extreme risk protection order is terminated or not renewed for any reason, the law enforcement agency storing the respondent’s firearms shall provide notice to the respondent regarding the process for the return of the firearms.

§ 13-14.5-111. Penalties

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Any person who has in his or her custody or control a firearm or purchases, possesses, or receives a firearm with knowledge that he or she is prohibited from doing so by an extreme risk protection order or temporary extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this article 14.5 is guilty of a class 2 misdemeanor.

Article 22. Age of Competence--Arbitration--Mediation

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 3. Dispute Resolution Act

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 13-22-311. Court referral to mediation--duties of mediator

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any court of record may, in its discretion, refer any case for mediation services or dispute resolution programs, subject to the availability of mediation services or dispute resolution programs; except that the court shall not refer the case to mediation services or dispute resolution programs where one of the parties claims that the party has been the victim of physical or psychological abuse by the other party, at any time and regardless of prior participation, and states that the party is thereby unwilling to enter into mediation services or dispute resolution programs. In addition, the court may exempt from referral any case in which a party files with the court, within five days of a referral order, a motion objecting to mediation and demonstrating compelling reasons why mediation should not be ordered. Compelling reasons may include, but are not limited to, that the costs of mediation would be higher than the requested relief and previous attempts to resolve the issues were not successful. Parties referred to mediation services or dispute resolution programs may select said services or programs from mediators or mediation organizations or from the office of dispute resolution. This section shall not apply in any civil action where injunctive or similar equitable relief is the only remedy sought.

(2) Upon completion of mediation services or dispute resolution programs, the mediator shall supply to the court, unless counsel for a party is required to do so by local rule or order of the court, a written statement certifying that parties have met with the mediator.

(3) In the event the mediator and the parties agree and inform the court that the parties are engaging in good faith mediation, any pending hearing in the action filed by the parties shall be continued to a date certain.(4) In no event shall a party be denied the right to proceed in court in the action filed because of failure to pay the mediator.

Title 14. Domestic Matters

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Article 4. Domestic Abuse

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 14-4-105. Violations of orders.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

A person failing to comply with any order of the court issued pursuant to this article shall be found in contempt of court and, in addition, may be punished as provided in section 18-6-803.5, C.R.S.

Article 10. Uniform Dissolution of Marriage Act

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 14-10-106. Dissolution of marriage--legal separation

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) The district court shall enter a decree of dissolution of marriage or a decree of legal separation when:

(I) The court finds that one of the parties has been domiciled in this state for ninety-one days next preceding the commencement of the proceeding;

(II) The court finds that the marriage is irretrievably broken; and

(III) The court finds that ninety-one days or more have elapsed since it acquired jurisdiction over the respondent either as the result of process pursuant to rule 4 of the Colorado rules of civil procedure or as the result of the act of the respondent in joining as copetitioner in the petition or in entering an appearance in any other manner.

(b) In connection with every decree of dissolution of marriage or decree of legal separation and to the extent of its jurisdiction to do so, the court shall consider, approve, or allocate parental responsibilities with respect to any child of the marriage, the support of any child of the marriage who is entitled to support, the maintenance of either spouse, and the disposition of property; but the entry of a decree with respect to parental responsibilities, support, maintenance, or disposition of property may be deferred by the court until after the entry of the decree of dissolution of marriage or the decree of legal separation upon a finding that a deferral is in the best interests of the parties.

(c) In a proceeding to dissolve a marriage or in a proceeding for legal separation or in a proceeding for declaration of invalidity, the court is deemed to have made an adjudication of the parentage of a child of the marriage if the court acts under circumstances that satisfy the jurisdictional requirements of section 14-5-201 and the final order:

(I) Expressly identifies a child as a “child of the marriage”, “issue of the marriage”, or similar words indicating that the husband is the father of the child; or

(II) Provides for support of the child by the husband unless paternity is specifically disclaimed in the order.

(d) Paternity is not adjudicated for a child not mentioned in the final order.

(2) If a party requests a decree of legal separation rather than a decree of dissolution of marriage, the court shall grant the decree in that form unless the other party objects.

§ 14-10-107. Commencement--pleadings--abolition of existing defenses--automatic, temporary injunction--enforcement

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) All proceedings under this article shall be commenced in the manner provided by the Colorado rules of civil procedure.

(2) The petition in a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation shall allege that the marriage is irretrievably broken and shall set forth:

(a) The residence of each party and the length of residence in this state;

(b) The date and place of the marriage;

(c) The date on which the parties separated;

(d) The names, ages, and addresses of any living children of the marriage and whether the wife is pregnant;

(e) Any arrangements as to the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to the children of the marriage and support of the children and the maintenance of a spouse;

(f) The relief sought; and

(g) A written acknowledgment by the petitioner and the co-petitioner, if any, that he or she has received a copy of, has read, and understands the terms of the automatic temporary injunction required by paragraph (b) of subsection (4) of this section.

(2.5) Upon the filing of a petition for dissolution of marriage or legal separation pursuant to this article, each party shall provide to the court, in the manner prescribed by the court, his or her social security number and the social security number of each child named in the petition pursuant to paragraph (d) of subsection (2) of this section.

(3) Either or both parties to the marriage may initiate the proceeding. In addition, a legal guardian, with court approval pursuant to section 15-14-315.5, C.R.S., or a conservator, with court approval pursuant to section 15-14-425.5, C.R.S., may initiate the proceeding. If a legal guardian or conservator initiates the proceeding, the legal guardian or conservator shall receive notice in the same manner as the parties to the proceeding.

(4)(a) Upon the commencement of a proceeding by one of the parties, or by a legal guardian or conservator of one of the parties, the other party shall be personally served in the manner provided by the Colorado rules of civil procedure, and he or she may file a response in accordance with such rules; except that, upon motion verified by the oath of the party commencing the proceeding or of someone in his or her behalf for an order of publication stating the facts authorizing such service, and showing the efforts, if any, that have been made to obtain personal service within this state, and giving the address or last-known address of each person to be served or stating that his or her address and last-known address are unknown, the court shall hear the motion ex parte and, if satisfied that due diligence has been used to obtain personal service within this state or that efforts to obtain the same would have been to no avail, shall order one publication of a consolidated notice in a newspaper published or having general circulation in the county in which the proceeding is filed, notwithstanding the provisions of article 70 of title 24. A consolidated notice shall be published at least once during a calendar month and shall list the proceedings filed subsequent to those named in the previously published consolidated notice, stating as to each proceeding the names of the parties, the action number, the nature of the action, that a copy of the petition and summons may be obtained from the clerk of the court during regular business hours, and that default judgment may be entered against that party upon whom service is made by such notice if he or she fails to appear or file a response within thirty-five days after the date of publication. Costs of publication of a consolidated notice may be assessed pro rata to each of the proceedings named in the notice; except that, if a party is indigent or otherwise unable to pay such publication costs, the costs shall be paid by the court from funds appropriated for the purpose. Service shall be complete upon such publication, and a response or appearance by the party served by publication under this subsection (4) shall be made within thirty-five days thereafter, or default judgment may be entered. No later than the day of publication, the clerk of the court shall also post for thirty-five consecutive days a copy of the process on a bulletin board in his or her office or on the website of the district court in which the case was filed and shall mail a copy of the process to the other party at his or her last-known address, and shall place in the file of the proceeding his or her certificate of posting and mailing. Proof of publication of the consolidated notice shall be by placing in the file a copy of the affidavit of publication, certified by the clerk of the court to be a true and correct copy of the original affidavit on file in the clerk’s office.

(b)(I) Upon the filing of a petition for dissolution of marriage or legal separation by the petitioner or copetitioner or by a legal guardian or conservator on behalf of one of the parties and upon personal service of the petition and summons on the respondent or upon waiver and acceptance of service by the respondent, a temporary injunction shall be in effect against both parties until the final decree is entered or the petition is dismissed or until further order of the court:

(A) Restraining both parties from transferring, encumbering, concealing, or in any way disposing of, without the consent of the other party or an order of the court, any marital property, except in the usual course of business or for the necessities of life and requiring each party to notify the other party of any proposed extraordinary expenditures and to account to the court for all extraordinary expenditures made after the injunction is in effect;

(B) Enjoining both parties from molesting or disturbing the peace of the other party;

(C) Restraining both parties from removing the minor child or children of the parties, if any, from the state without the consent of the other party or an order of the court; and

(D) Restraining both parties, without at least fourteen days’ advance notification and the written consent of the other party or an order of the court, from canceling, modifying, terminating, or allowing to lapse for nonpayment of premiums, any policy of health insurance, homeowner’s or renter’s insurance, or automobile insurance that provides coverage to either of the parties or the minor children or any policy of life insurance that names either of the parties or the minor children as a beneficiary.

(II) The provisions of the injunction shall be printed upon the summons and the petition and the injunction shall become an order of the court upon fulfillment of the requirements of subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b). However, nothing in this paragraph (b) shall preclude either party from applying to the court for further temporary orders, an expanded temporary injunction, or modification or revocation under section 14-10-108.

(III) The summons shall contain the following advisements:

(A) That a request for genetic tests shall not prejudice the requesting party in matters concerning allocation of parental responsibilities pursuant to section 14-10-124(1.5); and

(B) That, if genetic tests are not obtained prior to a legal establishment of paternity and submitted into evidence prior to the entry of the legal final decree of dissolution, the genetic tests may not be allowed into evidence at a later date.

(4.1) With regard to the automatic, temporary injunction that becomes effective in accordance with paragraph (b) of subsection (4) of this section when a petition for dissolution of marriage or legal separation is filed and served, whenever there is exhibited by the respondent to any duly authorized peace officer as described in section 16-2.5-101, C.R.S., a copy of the petition and summons duly filed and issued pursuant to this section, or, in the case of the petitioner, a copy of the petition and summons duly filed and issued pursuant to this section, together with a certified copy of the affidavit of service of process or a certified copy of the waiver and acceptance of service, and the peace officer has cause to believe that a violation of that part of the automatic, temporary injunction which enjoins both parties from molesting the other party has occurred, such peace officer shall use every reasonable means to enforce that part of the injunction against the petitioner or respondent. A peace officer shall not be held civilly or criminally liable for his or her action pursuant to this subsection (4.1) if the action is in good faith and without malice.

(5) Defenses to divorce and legal separation existing prior to January 1, 1972, including but not limited to condonation, connivance, collusion, recrimination, insanity, and lapse of time, are hereby abolished.

(6) All issues raised by these proceedings shall be resolved by the court sitting without a jury.

§ 14-10-114. Spousal maintenance--advisory guidelines--legislative declaration--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Legislative declaration. (a) The general assembly hereby finds that:

(I) The economic lives of spouses are frequently closely intertwined in marriage and that it is often impossible to later segregate the respective decisions and contributions of the spouses; and

(II) Consequently, awarding spousal maintenance may be appropriate if a spouse needs support and the other spouse has the ability to pay support.

(b) The general assembly further finds that:

(I) Because the statutes provide little guidance to the court concerning maintenance awards, there has been inconsistency in the amount and term of maintenance awarded in different judicial districts across the state in cases that involve similar factual circumstances; and

(II) Courts and litigants would benefit from the establishment of a more detailed statutory framework that includes advisory guidelines to be considered as a starting point for the determination of fair and equitable maintenance awards.

(c) Therefore, the general assembly declares that it is appropriate to create a statutory framework for the determination of maintenance awards, including advisory guidelines for the amount and term of maintenance in certain cases, that will assist the court and the parties in crafting maintenance awards that are fair, equitable, and more consistent across judicial districts and in their application to both parties.

(2) At the time of permanent orders in dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity proceedings, and upon the request of either party, the court may order the payment of maintenance from one spouse to the other pursuant to the provisions of this section. An award of maintenance shall be in an amount and for a term that is fair and equitable to both parties and shall be made without regard to marital misconduct.

(3)(a)(I) Determination of maintenance. When a party has requested maintenance in a dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity proceeding, prior to granting or denying an award of maintenance, the court shall make initial written or oral findings concerning:

(A) The amount of each party’s gross income;

(B) The marital property apportioned to each party;

(C) The financial resources of each party, including but not limited to the actual or potential income from separate or marital property;

(D) Reasonable financial need as established during the marriage; and

(E) Whether maintenance awarded pursuant to this section would be deductible for federal income tax purposes by the payor and taxable income to the recipient.

(II) After making the initial findings described in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a), the court shall determine the amount and term of the maintenance award, if any, that is fair and equitable to both parties after considering:

(A) The guideline amount and term of maintenance set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3), if applicable, based upon the duration of the marriage and the combined gross incomes of the parties;

(B) The factors relating to the amount and term of maintenance set forth in paragraph (c) of this subsection (3); and

(C) Whether the party seeking maintenance has met the requirement for a maintenance award pursuant to paragraph (d) of this subsection (3).

(b) Advisory guideline amount and term of maintenance. If the duration of the parties’ marriage is at least three years and the parties’ combined, annual adjusted gross income does not exceed two hundred forty thousand dollars, the court shall make additional oral or written findings concerning the duration of the marriage in whole months and the advisory guideline amount and term of maintenance, calculated as follows:

(I)(A) If the maintenance award is deductible for federal income tax purposes by the payor and taxable income to the recipient, the amount of maintenance under the advisory guidelines is equal to forty percent of the parties’ combined, monthly adjusted gross income minus the lower income party’s monthly adjusted gross income. If the calculation results in a negative number, the amount of maintenance is zero.

(B) If the maintenance award is not deductible for federal income tax purposes by the payor and not taxable income to the recipient, the amount of maintenance under the advisory guidelines for parties with a combined, monthly adjusted gross income of ten thousand dollars or less is equal to eighty percent of the amount calculated pursuant to subsection (3)(b)(I)(A) of this section.

(C) If the maintenance award is not deductible for federal income tax purposes by the payor spouse and not taxable income to the recipient spouse, the amount of maintenance under the advisory guidelines for parties with a combined, monthly adjusted gross income of more than ten thousand dollars but not more than twenty thousand dollars is equal to seventy-five percent of the amount calculated pursuant to subsection (3)(b)(I)(A) of this section.

(II)(A) The advisory term of maintenance under the guidelines, calculated in whole months, for marriages of at least three years but not more than twenty years, is set forth in the table contained in subsection (3)(b)(II)(B) of this section. When the duration of the parties’ marriage exceeds twenty years, the court may award maintenance for a specified term of years or for an indefinite term, but the court shall not specify a maintenance term that is less than the maintenance term under the guidelines for a twenty-year marriage without making specific findings that support a reduced term of maintenance.

(B) Table of guideline maintenance term (in whole months)

Months of Percentage Guideline
Marriage of Maintenance Term

36 31.00% 11

37 31.17% 12

38 31.33% 12

39 31.50% 12

40 31.67% 13

41 31.83% 13

42 32.00% 13

43 32.17% 14

44 32.33% 14

45 32.50% 15

46 32.67% 15

47 32.83% 15

48 33.00% 16

49 33.17% 16

50 33.33% 17

51 33.50% 17

52 33.67% 18

53 33.83% 18

54 34.00% 18

55 34.17% 19

56 34.33% 19

57 34.50% 20

58 34.67% 20

59 34.83% 21

60 35.00% 21

61 35.17% 21

62 35.33% 22

63 35.50% 22

64 35.67% 23

65 35.83% 23

66 36.00% 24

67 36.17% 24

68 36.33% 25

69 36.50% 25

70 36.67% 26

71 36.83% 26

72 37.00% 27

73 37.17% 27

74 37.33% 28

75 37.50% 28

76 37.67% 29

77 37.83% 29

78 38.00% 30

79 38.17% 30

80 38.33% 31

81 38.50% 31

82 38.67% 32

83 38.83% 32

84 39.00% 33

85 39.17% 33

86 39.33% 34

87 39.50% 34

88 39.67% 35

89 39.83% 35

90 40.00% 36

91 40.17% 37

92 40.33% 37

93 40.50% 38

94 40.67% 38

95 40.83% 39

96 41.00% 39

97 41.17% 40

98 41.33% 41

99 41.50% 41

100 41.67% 42

101 41.83% 42

102 42.00% 43

103 42.17% 43

104 42.33% 44

105 42.50% 45

106 42.67% 45

107 42.83% 46

108 43.00% 46

109 43.17% 47

110 43.33% 48

111 43.50% 48

112 43.67% 49

113 43.83% 50

114 44.00% 50

115 44.17% 51

116 44.33% 51

117 44.50% 52

118 44.67% 53

119 44.83% 53

120 45.00% 54

121 45.17% 55

122 45.33% 55

123 45.50% 56

124 45.67% 57

125 45.83% 57

126 46.00% 58

127 46.17% 59

128 46.33% 59

129 46.50% 60

130 46.67% 61

131 46.83% 61

132 47.00% 62

133 47.17% 63

134 47.33% 63

135 47.50% 64

136 47.67% 65

137 47.83% 66

138 48.00% 66

139 48.17% 67

140 48.33% 68

141 48.50% 68

142 48.67% 69

143 48.83% 70

144 49.00% 71

145 49.17% 71

146 49.33% 72

147 49.50% 73

148 49.67% 74

149 49.83% 74

150 50.00% 75

151 50.00% 76

152 50.00% 76

153 50.00% 77

154 50.00% 77

155 50.00% 78

156 50.00% 78

157 50.00% 79

158 50.00% 79

159 50.00% 80

160 50.00% 80

161 50.00% 81

162 50.00% 81

163 50.00% 82

164 50.00% 82

165 50.00% 83

166 50.00% 83

167 50.00% 84

168 50.00% 84

169 50.00% 85

170 50.00% 85

171 50.00% 86

172 50.00% 86

173 50.00% 87

174 50.00% 87

175 50.00% 88

176 50.00% 88

177 50.00% 89

178 50.00% 89

179 50.00% 90

180 50.00% 90

181 50.00% 91

182 50.00% 91

183 50.00% 92

184 50.00% 92

185 50.00% 93

186 50.00% 93

187 50.00% 94

188 50.00% 94

189 50.00% 95

190 50.00% 95

191 50.00% 96

192 50.00% 96

193 50.00% 97

194 50.00% 97

195 50.00% 98

196 50.00% 98

197 50.00% 99

198 50.00% 99

199 50.00% 100

200 50.00% 100

201 50.00% 101

202 50.00% 101

203 50.00% 102

204 50.00% 102

205 50.00% 103

206 50.00% 103

207 50.00% 104

208 50.00% 104

209 50.00% 105

210 50.00% 105

211 50.00% 106

212 50.00% 106

213 50.00% 107

214 50.00% 107

215 50.00% 108

216 50.00% 108

217 50.00% 109

218 50.00% 109

219 50.00% 110

220 50.00% 110

221 50.00% 111

222 50.00% 111

223 50.00% 112

224 50.00% 112

225 50.00% 113

226 50.00% 113

227 50.00% 114

228 50.00% 114

229 50.00% 115

230 50.00% 115

231 50.00% 116

232 50.00% 116

233 50.00% 117

234 50.00% 117

235 50.00% 118

236 50.00% 118

237 50.00% 119

238 50.00% 119

239 50.00% 120

240 50.00% 120

(c) Factors affecting the amount and term of maintenance. In any proceeding for maintenance, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including but not limited to:

(I) The financial resources of the recipient spouse, including the actual or potential income from separate or marital property or any other source and the ability of the recipient spouse to meet his or her needs independently;

(II) The financial resources of the payor spouse, including the actual or potential income from separate or marital property or any other source and the ability of the payor spouse to meet his or her reasonable needs while paying maintenance;

(III) The lifestyle during the marriage;

(IV) The distribution of marital property, including whether additional marital property may be awarded to reduce or alleviate the need for maintenance;

(V) Both parties’ income, employment, and employability, obtainable through reasonable diligence and additional training or education, if necessary, and any necessary reduction in employment due to the needs of an unemancipated child of the marriage or the circumstances of the parties;

(VI) Whether one party has historically earned higher or lower income than the income reflected at the time of permanent orders and the duration and consistency of income from overtime or secondary employment;

(VII) The duration of the marriage;

(VIII) The amount of temporary maintenance and the number of months that temporary maintenance was paid to the recipient spouse;

(IX) The age and health of the parties, including consideration of significant health care needs or uninsured or unreimbursed health care expenses;

(X) Significant economic or noneconomic contribution to the marriage or to the economic, educational, or occupational advancement of a party, including but not limited to completing an education or job training, payment by one spouse of the other spouse’s separate debts, or enhancement of the other spouse’s personal or real property;

(XI) Whether the circumstances of the parties at the time of permanent orders warrant the award of a nominal amount of maintenance in order to preserve a claim of maintenance in the future;

(XII) Whether the maintenance is deductible for federal income tax purposes by the payor and taxable income to the recipient, and any adjustments to the amount of maintenance to equitably allocate the tax burden between the parties; and

(XIII) Any other factor that the court deems relevant.

(d) After considering the provisions of this section and making the required findings of fact, the court shall award maintenance only if it finds that the spouse seeking maintenance lacks sufficient property, including marital property apportioned to him or her, to provide for his or her reasonable needs and is unable to support himself or herself through appropriate employment or is the custodian of a child whose condition or circumstances make it inappropriate for the spouse to be required to seek employment outside the home.

(e) The maintenance guidelines set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3) do not create a presumptive amount or term of maintenance. The court has discretion to determine the award of maintenance that is fair and equitable to both parties based upon the totality of the circumstances. The court shall make specific written or oral findings in support of the amount and term of maintenance awarded pursuant to this section or an order denying maintenance.

(f) The court may award additional marital property to the recipient spouse or otherwise adjust the distribution of marital property or debt to alleviate the need for maintenance or to reduce the amount or term of maintenance awarded.

(g) The court may reserve jurisdiction to establish, review, or modify an award of maintenance at a later date pursuant to the provisions of this section by setting forth:

(I) The reasons for reserving jurisdiction;

(II) The ascertainable future event that forms the basis for reserving jurisdiction; and

(III) A reasonably specific time within which maintenance may be considered pursuant to this section.

(h) The court may award maintenance in short-term marriages, including marriages of less than three years in duration, when, given the circumstances of the parties, the distribution of marital property is insufficient to achieve an equitable result. In determining the award of maintenance, the court may consider the maintenance guidelines and the relevant factors affecting the amount and term of maintenance set forth in this subsection (3). The court shall make written or oral findings pursuant to paragraph (e) of this subsection (3).

(i) Nothing in this section prohibits an award of maintenance in gross.

(3.5) Combined annual adjusted gross income in excess of advisory guideline amount. If the parties’ combined, annual adjusted gross income exceeds two hundred forty thousand dollars, the calculation methodology described in subsection (3)(b)(I) of this section for determining the advisory guideline amount of maintenance does not apply, and the court shall instead consider the factors set forth in subsection (3)(c) of this section in determining the amount of maintenance. The court may consider the advisory guideline term of maintenance set forth in subsection (3)(b)(II) of this section.

(4) Temporary maintenance. (a)(I) In every proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity where temporary maintenance is requested by a party, the court may award a monthly amount of temporary maintenance pursuant to the provisions of subsection (3) of this section that are relevant to a determination of temporary maintenance.

(II) The guideline term of maintenance set forth in subparagraph (II) of paragraph (b) of subsection (3) of this section does not apply to temporary maintenance orders. The court shall determine the term for payment of temporary maintenance.

(III) In addition to the relevant factors set forth in paragraph (c) of subsection (3) of this section, the court shall consider any additional factors specific to the determination of temporary maintenance, including the payment of family expenses and debts.

(b) After determining the amount of temporary maintenance pursuant to this subsection (4) and the amount of temporary child support pursuant to section 14-10-115, the court shall consider the respective financial resources of each party and determine the temporary payment of marital debt and the temporary allocation of marital property.

(c) A determination of temporary maintenance does not prejudice the rights of either party at permanent orders.

(5) Modification or termination of maintenance. (a) Except upon written agreement of the parties, an award of maintenance entered pursuant to this section may be modified or terminated pursuant to the provisions of section 14-10-122. The court may consider the guideline amount and term of maintenance and the statutory factors set forth in subsection (3) of this section only in a modification or termination proceeding concerning a maintenance award entered on or after January 1, 2014.

(b) The enactment of this section does not constitute a substantial and continuing change of circumstance for purposes of modifying maintenance orders entered before January 1, 2014.

(c) The enactment of the December 2017 “Tax Cuts and Jobs Act”, Pub.L. 115-97, federal tax legislation, does not constitute a substantial and continuing change of circumstance for purposes of modifying maintenance orders entered prior to the effective date of that law.

(6) Security for the payment of maintenance. (a) The court may require the payor spouse to provide reasonable security for the payment of maintenance in the event of the payor spouse’s death prior to the end of the maintenance term.

(b) Reasonable security may include, but need not be limited to, maintenance of life insurance for the benefit of the recipient spouse. In entering an order to maintain life insurance, the court shall consider:

(I) The age and insurability of the payor spouse;

(II) The cost of the life insurance;

(III) The amount and term of the maintenance;

(IV) Whether the parties carried life insurance during the marriage;

(V) Prevailing interest rates at the time of the order; and

(VI) Other obligations of the payor spouse.

(c) Orders to maintain security may be modified or terminated pursuant to section 14-10-122.

(7) Maintenance agreements–waiver–unrepresented parties. (a) Either or both of the parties may agree in writing or orally in court to waive maintenance consistent with the provisions of section 14-10-112. The parties may also agree to waive maintenance in a premarital agreement or marital agreement consistent with the provisions of the “Uniform Premarital and Marital Agreements Act”, created in part 3 of article 2 of this title. The enforceabilty of maintenance provisions in a premarital agreement or marital agreement is determined pursuant to the provisions of section 14-2-309.

(b) In any proceeding that falls within the maintenance guidelines set forth in subsection (3) of this section, at the time of either temporary orders or permanent orders, if either party is not represented by an attorney, the court shall not approve an agreement waiving maintenance or agreeing to an amount or term of maintenance that does not follow the maintenance guidelines unless the unrepresented party has indicated that he or she is aware of the maintenance guidelines pursuant to this section.

(8) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)(I) “Adjusted gross income” means gross income as defined in subsection (8)(c) of this section, less preexisting court-ordered child support obligations actually paid by a party, preexisting court-ordered alimony or maintenance obligations actually paid by a party, as adjusted, if applicable, pursuant to subsection (8)(a)(III) of this section, and the adjustment to a party’s income as determined pursuant to section 14-10-115(6)(b) for any children who are not children of the marriage for whom the party has a legal responsibility to support.

(II) For purposes of this subsection (8)(a), “income” means the actual gross income of a party, if employed to full capacity, or potential income, if unemployed or underemployed.

(III)(A) For purposes of this subsection (8)(a), if the preexisting court-ordered alimony or maintenance obligations actually paid by a party are deductible for federal income tax purposes by that party, then the full amount of alimony or maintenance actually paid must be deducted from that party’s gross income.

(B) If the preexisting court-ordered alimony or maintenance obligations actually paid by a party are not deductible for federal income tax purposes by that party, then the amount of preexisting court-ordered alimony or maintenance that is deducted from that party’s gross income is the amount actually paid by that party multiplied by 1.25.

(b) “Duration of marriage” means the number of whole months, beginning from the first day of the month following the date of the parties’ marriage until the date of decree or the date of the hearing on disposition of property if such hearing precedes the date of the decree.

(c)(I) “Gross income” means income from any source and includes, but is not limited to:

(A) Income from salaries;

(B) Wages, including tips declared by the individual for purposes of reporting to the federal internal revenue service or tips imputed to bring the employee’s gross earnings to the minimum wage for the number of hours worked, whichever is greater;

(C) Commissions;

(D) Payments received as an independent contractor for labor or services, which payments must be considered income from self-employment;

(E) Bonuses;

(F) Dividends;

(G) Severance pay;

(H) Pension payments and retirement benefits actually received that have not previously been divided as property in this action, including but not limited to those paid pursuant to articles 51, 54, 54.5, and 54.6 of title 24, C.R.S., and article 30 of title 31, C.R.S.;

(I) Royalties;

(J) Rents;

(K) Interest;

(L) Trust income and distributions;

(M) Annuity payments;

(N) Capital gains;

(O) Any moneys drawn by a self-employed individual for personal use that are deducted as a business expense, which moneys must be considered income from self-employment;

(P) Social security benefits, including social security benefits actually received by a party as a result of the disability of that party;

(Q) Workers’ compensation benefits;

(R) Unemployment insurance benefits;

(S) Disability insurance benefits;

(T) Funds held in or payable from any health, accident, disability, or casualty insurance to the extent that such insurance replaces wages or provides income in lieu of wages;

(U) Monetary gifts;

(V) Monetary prizes, excluding lottery winnings not required by the rules of the Colorado lottery commission to be paid only at the lottery office;

(W) Income from general partnerships, limited partnerships, closely held corporations, or limited liability companies; except that, if a party is a passive investor, has a minority interest in the company, and does not have any managerial duties or input, then the income to be recognized may be limited to actual cash distributions received;

(X) Expense reimbursements or in-kind payments received by a party in the course of employment, self-employment, or operation of a business if they are significant and reduce personal living expenses;

(Y) Alimony or maintenance received pursuant to a preexisting court order with a payor who is not a party to the action, as adjusted, if applicable, pursuant to subsection (8)(c)(VI) of this section; and

(Z) Overtime pay, only if the overtime is required by the employer as a condition of employment.

(II) “Gross income” does not include:

(A) Child support payments received;

(B) Benefits received from means-tested public assistance programs, including but not limited to assistance provided under the Colorado works program, as described in part 7 of article 2 of title 26, C.R.S., supplemental security income, food stamps, and general assistance;

(C) Income from additional jobs that result in the employment of the obligor more than forty hours per week or more than what would otherwise be considered to be full-time employment;

(D) Social security benefits received by a parent on behalf of a minor child as a result of the death or disability of a parent or stepparent; and

(E) Earnings or gains on retirement accounts, including individual retirement accounts; except that such earnings or gains shall not be included as income unless a party takes a distribution from the account. If a party may take a distribution from the account without being subject to a federal tax penalty for early distribution and the party chooses not to take a distribution, the court may consider the distribution that could have been taken in determining the party’s gross income.

(III)(A) For income from self-employment, rent, royalties, proprietorship of a business, or joint ownership of a partnership or closely held corporation, “gross income” equals gross receipts minus ordinary and necessary expenses, as defined in sub-subparagraph (B) of this subparagraph (III), required to produce such income.

(B) “Ordinary and necessary expenses”, as used in sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (III), does not include amounts allowable by the internal revenue service for the accelerated component of depreciation expenses or investment tax credits or any other business expenses determined by the court to be inappropriate for determining gross income for purposes of calculating maintenance.

(IV) If a party is voluntarily unemployed or underemployed, maintenance shall be calculated based on a determination of potential income; except that a determination of potential income shall not be made for a party who is physically or mentally incapacitated or is caring for a child under the age of thirty months for whom the parties owe a joint legal responsibility or for an incarcerated parent sentenced to one year or more.

(V) For the purposes of this section, a party shall not be deemed “underemployed” if:

(A) The employment is temporary and is reasonably intended to result in higher income within the foreseeable future; or

(B) The employment is a good faith career choice; or

(C) The party is enrolled in an educational program that is reasonably intended to result in a degree or certification within a reasonable period of time and that will result in a higher income, so long as the educational program is a good faith career choice.

(VI) For purposes of subsection (8)(c)(I)(Y) of this section, if alimony or maintenance received by a party pursuant to a preexisting court order is taxable income to that party for federal income tax purposes, then the actual amount of alimony or maintenance received is included in that party’s gross income. If the alimony or maintenance received by a party pursuant to a preexisting court order is not taxable income to that party for federal income tax purposes, then the amount of alimony or maintenance that is included in that party’s gross income is the amount of alimony or maintenance received multiplied by 1.25.

(9) Application. The provisions of this section apply only to actions in which a petition for dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity, or an action for the initial establishment of maintenance is filed on or after January 1, 2014. Actions filed before January 1, 2014, are determined pursuant to the provisions of this section as it existed at the time of the filing of the action.

§ 14-10-115. Child support guidelines--purpose--determination of income--schedule of basic child support obligations--adjustments to basic child support--additional guidelines--child support commission--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

 

(1) Purpose and applicability. (a) The child support guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations have the following purposes:

(I) To establish as state policy an adequate standard of support for children, subject to the ability of parents to pay;

(II) To make awards more equitable by ensuring more consistent treatment of persons in similar circumstances; and

(III) To improve the efficiency of the court process by promoting settlements and giving courts and the parties guidance in establishing levels of awards.

(b) The child support guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations do the following:

(I) Calculate child support based upon the parents’ combined adjusted gross income estimated to have been allocated to the child if the parents and children were living in an intact household;

(II) Adjust the child support based upon the needs of the children for extraordinary medical expenses and work-related child care costs; and

(III) Allocate the amount of child support to be paid by each parent based upon physical care arrangements.

(c) This section shall apply to all child support obligations, established or modified, as a part of any proceeding, including, but not limited to, articles 5, 6, and 10 of this title and articles 4 and 6 of title 19, C.R.S., regardless of when filed.

(2) Duty of support–factors to consider. (a) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation, maintenance, or child support, the court may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage to pay an amount reasonable or necessary for the child’s support and may order an amount determined to be reasonable under the circumstances for a time period that occurred after the date of the parties’ physical separation or the filing of the petition or service upon the respondent, whichever date is latest, and prior to the month the child support obligation begins, without regard to marital misconduct.

(b) In determining the amount of support under this subsection (2), the court shall consider all relevant factors, including:

(I) The financial resources of the child;

(II) The financial resources of the custodial parent;

(III) The standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved;

(IV) The physical and emotional condition of the child and his or her educational needs; and

(V) The financial resources and needs of the noncustodial parent.

(3) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)(I) “Adjusted gross income” means gross income, as specified in subsection (5) of this section, less preexisting child support obligations and less alimony or maintenance actually paid by a parent, as described in subsection (3)(a)(II) of this section.

(II) For purposes of this subsection (3)(a), if the alimony or maintenance actually paid by a parent is deductible for federal income tax purposes by that parent, and the alimony or maintenance is paid and received by the same parties as the child support calculation, then the actual amount of alimony or maintenance paid by that parent must be deducted from that parent’s gross income. If the alimony or maintenance actually paid by a parent is not deductible for federal income tax purposes by that parent, then the amount of alimony or maintenance deducted from that parent’s gross income is the amount of alimony or maintenance actually paid by that parent subject to the following adjustments:

(A) If the combined monthly adjusted gross income of the parties to the maintenance payment is ten thousand dollars or less, the maintenance actually paid will be multiplied by 1.25;

(B) If the combined monthly adjusted gross income of the parties to the maintenance payment is more than ten thousand dollars, the maintenance actually paid will be multiplied by 1.33; and

(C) If the amount of alimony or maintenance actually paid is increased as described in this section because it is not deductible for federal income tax purposes, there is a rebuttable presumption that the multiplier is correct. The presumption may be rebutted with evidence indicating a different multiplier is more accurate due to the tax implications of the maintenance payment being different than that reflected by the multiplier.

(III) If a court-ordered alimony or maintenance obligation actually paid by a party does not involve the same parties as the child support calculation and is not deductible for federal income tax purposes by that party, then the amount of the court-ordered alimony or maintenance that is deducted from that party’s gross income is the amount actually paid by that party multiplied by 1.25.

(b) “Combined gross income” means the combined monthly adjusted gross incomes of both parents.

(c) “Income” means the actual gross income of a parent, if employed to full capacity, or potential income, if unemployed or underemployed. Gross income of each parent shall be determined according to subsection (5) of this section.

(c.5) “Mandatory school fees” means fees charged by a school or school district, including a charter school, for a child attending public primary or secondary school for activities that are directly related to the educational mission of the school, including but not limited to laboratory fees; book or educational material fees; school computer or automation-related fees, whether paid to the school directly or purchased by a parent; testing fees; and supply or material fees paid to the school. “Mandatory school fees” does not include uniforms, meals, or extracurricular activity fees.

(d) “Number of children due support”, as used in the schedule of basic child support obligations specified in subsection (7) of this section, means children for whom the parents share joint legal responsibility and for whom support is being sought.

(e) “Other children” means children who are not the subject of the child support determination at issue.

(f) “Postsecondary education” includes college and career and technical education programs.

(g) “Postsecondary education support” means support for the following expenses associated with attending a college, university, or career and technical education program: Tuition, books, and fees.

(h) “Shared physical care”, for the purposes of the child support guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations specified in this section, and as further specified in paragraph (b) of subsection (8) of this section, means that each parent keeps the children overnight for more than ninety-two overnights each year and that both parents contribute to the expenses of the children in addition to the payment of child support.

(i) “Split physical care”, for the purposes of the child support guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations specified in this section, and as further specified in paragraph (c) of subsection (8) of this section, means that each parent has physical care of at least one of the children by means of that child or children residing with that parent the majority of the time.

<Text of (4)(a) effective until July 1, 2024>

(4) Forms–identifying information. (a) The child support guidelines shall be used with standardized child support guideline forms to be issued by the judicial department. The judicial department is responsible for promulgating and updating the Colorado child support guideline forms, schedules, worksheets, and instructions.

<Text of (4)(a) effective July 1, 2024>

(4) Forms–identifying information–advisement. (a) The child support guidelines must be used with standardized child support guideline forms to be issued by the judicial department. The judicial department is responsible for promulgating and updating the Colorado child support guideline forms, schedules, worksheets, instructions, and advisements.

(b) All child support orders entered pursuant to this article shall provide the names and dates of birth of the parties and of the children who are the subject of the order and the parties’ residential and mailing addresses. The social security numbers of the parties and children shall be collected pursuant to section 14-14-113 and section 26-13-127, C.R.S.

<Text of (4)(c) effective July 1, 2024>

(c) All child support orders entered pursuant to this article 10 must include a written advisement to the parties that conform with the written child support advisement approved by the judicial branch, covering the following topics, in plain language:

(I) That a party who does not pay child support may be subject to judicial and administrative enforcement remedies and examples of those remedies;

(II) The operation of income assignments;

(III) The application of interest on arrears;

(IV) The parties’ obligations concerning proof of payment;

(V) The basis for a modification or change of support, including the definition of a substantial and continuing change of circumstances;

(VI) The effect of agreements to modify or amend child support and the requirement for court authorization or administrative process action of all modifications or amendments;

(VII) The effect of emancipation; and

(VIII) The effect of spousal maintenance.

(5) Determination of income. (a) For the purposes of the child support guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations specified in this section, the gross income of each parent shall be determined according to the following guidelines:

(I) “Gross income” includes income from any source, except as otherwise provided in subsection (5)(a)(II) of this section, and includes, but is not limited to:

(A) Income from salaries;

(B) Wages, including tips declared by the individual for purposes of reporting to the federal internal revenue service or tips imputed to bring the employee’s gross earnings to the minimum wage for the number of hours worked, whichever is greater;

(C) Commissions;

(D) Payments received as an independent contractor for labor or services, which payments must be considered income from self-employment;

(E) Bonuses;

(F) Dividends;

(G) Severance pay;

(H) Pensions and retirement benefits, including but not limited to those paid pursuant to articles 51, 54, 54.5, and 54.6 of title 24, C.R.S., and article 30 of title 31, C.R.S.;

(I) Royalties;

(J) Rents;

(K) Interest;

(L) Trust income;

(M) Annuities;

(N) Capital gains;

(O) Any moneys drawn by a self-employed individual for personal use that are deducted as a business expense, which moneys must be considered income from self-employment;

(P) Social security benefits, including social security benefits actually received by a parent as a result of the disability of that parent or as the result of the death of the minor child’s stepparent but not including social security benefits received by a minor child or on behalf of a minor child as a result of the death or disability of a stepparent of the child;

(Q) Workers’ compensation benefits;

(R) Unemployment insurance benefits;

(S) Disability insurance benefits;

(T) Funds held in or payable from any health, accident, disability, or casualty insurance to the extent that such insurance replaces wages or provides income in lieu of wages;

(U) Monetary gifts;

(V) Monetary prizes, excluding lottery winnings not required by the rules of the Colorado lottery commission to be paid only at the lottery office;

(W) Income from general partnerships, limited partnerships, closely held corporations, or limited liability companies. However, if a parent is a passive investor, has a minority interest in the company, and does not have any managerial duties or input, then the income to be recognized may be limited to actual cash distributions received.

(X) Expense reimbursements or in-kind payments received by a parent in the course of employment, self-employment, or operation of a business if they are significant and reduce personal living expenses;

(Y) Alimony or maintenance received, as adjusted, if applicable, pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(I.5) of this section; and

(Z) Overtime pay, only if the overtime is required by the employer as a condition of employment.

(I.5) For purposes of subsection (5)(a)(I)(Y) of this section, if the alimony or maintenance actually received by a parent is taxable income to that parent for federal income tax purposes, then the actual amount of alimony or maintenance received is included in that parent’s gross income. If the alimony or maintenance actually received by a parent is not taxable income to that parent for federal income tax purposes, and the alimony or maintenance is paid and received by the same parties as the child support calculation, then the amount of alimony or maintenance that is included in that parent’s gross income is the amount of alimony or maintenance received by that parent subject to the following adjustments:

(A) If the combined monthly adjusted gross income of the parties to the maintenance payment is ten thousand dollars or less, the maintenance actually received will be multiplied by 1.25;

(B) If the combined monthly adjusted gross income of the parties to the maintenance payment is more than ten thousand dollars, the maintenance actually received will be multiplied by 1.33; and

(C) If the amount of alimony or maintenance actually received is increased as described in this section because it is not deductible for federal income tax purposes, there is a rebuttable presumption that the multiplier is correct. The presumption may be rebutted with evidence indicating a different multiplier is more accurate due to the tax implications of the maintenance payment being different than that reflected by the multiplier.

(II) “Gross income” does not include:

(A) Child support payments received;

(B) Benefits received from means-tested public assistance programs, including but not limited to assistance provided under the Colorado works program, as described in part 7 of article 2 of title 26, C.R.S., supplemental security income, food stamps, and general assistance;

(C) Income from additional jobs that result in the employment of more than forty hours per week or more than what would otherwise be considered to be full-time employment;

(D) Social security benefits received by the minor children, or on behalf of the minor children, as a result of the death or disability of a stepparent are not to be included as income for the minor children for the determination of child support; and

(E) Earnings or gains on a retirement account, including an IRA, which earnings or gains must not be included as income unless or until a parent takes a distribution from the account. If a distribution from a retirement account may be taken without being subject to an IRS penalty for early distribution and the parent decides not to take the distribution, the court may consider the distribution that could have been taken in determining the parent’s gross income if the parent is not otherwise employed full-time and the retirement account was not received pursuant to the division of marital property.

(III)(A) For income from self-employment, rent, royalties, proprietorship of a business, or joint ownership of a partnership or closely held corporation, “gross income” equals gross receipts minus ordinary and necessary expenses, as defined in sub-subparagraph (B) of this subparagraph (III), required to produce such income.

(B) “Ordinary and necessary expenses” does not include amounts allowable by the internal revenue service for the accelerated component of depreciation expenses or investment tax credits or any other business expenses determined by the court to be inappropriate for determining gross income for purposes of calculating child support.

(IV) If a preexisting court-ordered alimony or maintenance obligation actually received by a party does not involve the same parties as the child support calculation and is not deductible for federal income tax purposes by that party, then the amount of preexisting court-ordered alimony or maintenance that is deducted from that party’s gross income is the amount actually received by that party multiplied by 1.25.

(b)(I) If a parent is voluntarily unemployed or underemployed, child support must be calculated based on a determination of potential income; except that a determination of potential income must not be made for:

(A) A parent who is physically or mentally incapacitated;

(B) A parent who is caring for a child under the age of twenty-four months for whom the parents owe a joint legal responsibility; or

(C) An incarcerated parent sentenced to one hundred eighty days or more.

(I.5) If the court or delegate child support enforcement unit imputes income pursuant to this subsection (5), the provisions of subsection (5)(b.5) of this section apply.

(II) If a noncustodial parent who owes past-due child support is unemployed and not incapacitated and has an obligation of support to a child receiving assistance pursuant to part 7 of article 2 of title 26, C.R.S., the court or delegate child support enforcement unit may order the parent to pay such support in accordance with a plan approved by the court or to participate in work activities. Work activities may include one or more of the following:

(A) Private or public sector employment;

(B) Job search activities;

(C) Community service;

(D) Vocational training; or

(E) Any other employment-related activities available to that particular individual.

(III) For the purposes of this section, a parent is not deemed “underemployed” if:

(A) The employment is temporary and is reasonably intended to result in higher income within the foreseeable future; or

(B) The employment is a good faith career choice that is not intended to deprive a child of support and does not unreasonably reduce the support available to a child; or

(C) The parent is enrolled full-time in an educational or vocational program or is employed part-time while enrolled in a part-time educational or vocational program, based on the institution’s enrollment definitions, and the program is reasonably intended to result in a degree or certification within a reasonable period of time; completing the program will result in a higher income; the program is a good faith career choice that is not intended to deprive the child of support; and the parent’s participation in the program does not unreasonably reduce the amount of child support available to a child.

(b.5)(I) Except as otherwise provided in this section, if the court or delegate child support enforcement unit determines that a parent is voluntarily unemployed or underemployed or employment information is unreliable, the court or delegate child support enforcement unit shall determine and document, for the record, the parent’s potential income.

(II) In determining potential income, the court or delegate child support enforcement unit shall consider, to the extent known, the specific circumstances of the parent, including consideration of the following information, when available:

(A) The parent’s assets;

(B) Residence;

(C) Employment and earnings history;

(D) Job skills;

(E) Educational attainment;

(F) Literacy;

(G) Age;

(H) Health;

(I) Criminal record;

(J) Other employment barriers;

(K) Record of seeking work;

(L) The local job market;

(M) The availability of employers hiring in the community, without changing existing law regarding the burden of proof;

(N) Prevailing earnings level in the local community. The typical hours available to workers in the parent’s job sector as established by any reliable source generally used and relied on by the public or persons in a particular occupation, including, but not limited to, verified statements, work history, the United States department of labor’s bureau of labor statistics or other reliable compilations, the department of labor and employment, or other information provided by the parent. In the absence of any such information, the court or delegate child support enforcement unit shall determine the parent’s income based on a reasonable rate of pay for a thirty-two-hour workweek for fifty weeks each year, subject to other factors set forth in this section that may affect the number of hours the parent is capable of working, such as age, health, or the specific needs of the subject child.

(O) Transportation; and

(P) Other relevant background factors in the case.

(c) Income statements of the parents shall be verified with documentation of both current and past earnings. Suitable documentation of current earnings includes pay stubs, employer statements, or receipts and expenses if self-employed. Documentation of current earnings shall be supplemented with copies of the most recent tax return to provide verification of earnings over a longer period. A copy of wage statements or other wage information obtained from the computer database maintained by the department of labor and employment shall be admissible into evidence for purposes of determining income under this subsection (5).

(6) Adjustments to gross income. (a) At the time a child support order is initially established, or in any proceeding to modify a child support order, if a parent is also legally responsible for the support of any other children for whom the parents do not share joint legal responsibility, the court shall make an adjustment to the parent’s gross income prior to calculating the basic child support obligation for the child or children who are the subject of the support order in question as follows:

(I) If a parent is obligated to pay support for another child pursuant to an order, the amount actually paid on the order must be deducted from that parent’s gross income;

(II) If the other child is residing in the home of a parent, the court shall deduct from that parent’s gross income the amount calculated pursuant to paragraph (b) of this subsection (6);

(III) If another child of a parent is residing outside the home of that parent, the court shall deduct from that parent’s gross income the amount of documented money payments actually paid by the parent for the support of the other child, not to exceed the schedule of basic support obligations set forth in subsection (7) of this section.

(b) The amount of the adjustment must not exceed the schedule of basic support obligations listed in this section. For a parent with gross income of less than one thousand five hundred dollars, the adjustment is seventy-five percent of the amount listed under the schedule of basic child support obligations in subsection (7)(b) of this section that would represent a child support obligation based only upon the responsible parent’s income, without any other adjustments for the number of children for whom the parent is responsible. For a parent with gross income of one thousand five hundred dollars or more per month, the adjustment is seventy-five percent of the amount listed under the schedule of basic child support obligations in subsection (7)(b) of this section that would represent a child support obligation based only upon the responsible parent’s income, without any other adjustments for the number of other children for whom the parent is responsible. The amount calculated as set forth in this subsection (6)(b) must be subtracted from the amount of the parent’s gross income prior to calculating the basic child support obligation based upon both parents’ gross income, as provided in subsection (7) of this section.

(7) Schedule of basic child support obligations. (a)(I) The basic child support obligation shall be determined using the schedule of basic child support obligations contained in paragraph (b) of this subsection (7). The basic child support obligation shall be divided between the parents in proportion to their adjusted gross incomes.

(II)(A) For combined gross income that falls between amounts shown in the schedule of basic child support obligations, basic child support amounts shall be interpolated. The category entitled “number of children due support” in the schedule of basic child support obligations shall have the meaning defined in subsection (3) of this section.

(B) In circumstances in which the obligor’s monthly adjusted gross income is less than one thousand five hundred dollars but more than six hundred fifty dollars, the obligor is required to pay a child support payment of fifty dollars per month for one child, seventy dollars per month for two children, ninety dollars per month for three children, one hundred ten dollars per month for four children, one hundred thirty dollars per month for five children, and one hundred fifty dollars per month for six or more children. The minimum order amount shall not apply when each parent keeps the children more than ninety-two overnights each year as defined in subsection (3)(h) of this section. In no case, however, shall the amount of child support ordered to be paid exceed the amount of child support that would otherwise be ordered to be paid if the parents did not share physical custody.

(C) For an obligor with an adjusted gross income that is less than or equal to one thousand five hundred dollars but more than six hundred fifty dollars, the obligor’s child support amount, as determined pursuant to subsection (7)(a)(II)(B) of this section, must be adjusted pursuant to subsection (11)(c)(III) of this section. The obligor’s child support amount may be further adjusted to include a share of the work-related and education-related child care costs, health insurance, extraordinary medical expenses, and other extraordinary adjustments as described in subsections (9), (10), (11)(a), and (11)(b) of this section. However, if at the time the child support obligation is calculated, adjustments made pursuant to subsections (9), (10), (11)(a), and (11)(b) of this section, together with the low-income adjustment amount, exceed twenty percent of the obligor’s adjusted gross income, the child support obligation must be capped at twenty percent of the obligor’s adjusted gross income. The low-income adjustment does not apply when each parent keeps the children more than ninety-two overnights each year as defined in subsection (8) of this section. In no case, however, shall the amount of child support ordered to be paid exceed the amount of child support that would otherwise be ordered to be paid if the parents did not share physical custody.

(D) In any circumstance in which the obligor’s monthly adjusted gross income is less than or equal to six hundred fifty dollars, regardless of the monthly adjusted gross income of the obligee, the obligor must be ordered to pay the minimum monthly order amount in child support. The minimum order amount is ten dollars per month, regardless of the number of children between these parties. The ten-dollar minimum monthly order amount is not adjusted by the number of the obligor’s overnights with children.

(E) The judge may use discretion to determine child support in circumstances where combined adjusted gross income exceeds the uppermost levels of the schedule of basic child support obligations; except that the presumptive basic child support obligation shall not be less than it would be based on the highest level of adjusted gross income set forth in the schedule of basic child support obligations.

(b) Schedule of basic child support obligations:

Combined Adjusted Gross Income

One Child

Two Children

Three Children

Four Children

Five Children

Six Children

             

100.00

           

150.00

Minimum Order Formula Applies for Adjusted Gross Income Below $1,100

 

200.00

           

250.00

           

300.00

           

350.00

           

400.00

           

450.00

           

500.00

           

550.00

           

600.00

           

650.00

           

700.00

           

750.00

           

800.00

           

850.00

           

900.00

           

950.00

           

1000.00

           

1050.00

           

1100.00

216

335

410

458

504

547

1150.00

225

348

427

477

524

570

1200.00

234

362

443

495

545

592

1250.00

243

375

460

513

565

614

1300.00

251

389

476

532

585

636

1350.00

260

402

492

550

605

658

1400.00

269

416

509

568

625

680

1450.00

277

429

525

587

645

701

1500.00

286

442

541

604

665

723

1550.00

294

455

556

622

684

743

1600.00

302

467

572

639

703

764

1650.00

310

480

587

656

721

784

1700.00

319

492

602

673

740

805

1750.00

327

505

618

690

759

825

1800.00

335

518

634

708

778

846

1850.00

343

530

649

725

798

867

1900.00

352

543

665

742

817

888

1950.00

360

556

680

760

836

908

2000.00

368

569

696

777

855

929

2050.00

377

581

711

794

874

950

2100.00

385

594

727

812

893

971

2150.00

393

607

742

829

912

991

2200.00

401

620

758

847

931

1012

2250.00

410

632

773

864

950

1033

2300.00

418

645

789

881

969

1054

2350.00

426

658

804

899

988

1074

2400.00

435

671

820

916

1007

1095

2450.00

443

683

835

933

1026

1116

2500.00

451

696

851

950

1045

1136

2550.00

459

709

866

968

1064

1157

2600.00

468

722

882

985

1084

1178

2650.00

476

734

897

1002

1103

1198

2700.00

484

747

913

1020

1122

1219

2750.00

493

760

928

1037

1141

1240

2800.00

501

772

944

1054

1160

1261

2850.00

509

785

959

1071

1179

1281

2900.00

517

797

974

1087

1196

1300

2950.00

525

809

988

1103

1213

1319

3000.00

533

821

1002

1119

1231

1338

3050.00

541

833

1016

1135

1248

1357

3100.00

548

844

1030

1150

1266

1376

3150.00

556

856

1044

1166

1283

1394

3200.00

564

868

1058

1182

1300

1413

3250.00

572

880

1072

1198

1318

1432

3300.00

580

892

1086

1214

1335

1451

3350.00

588

904

1101

1229

1352

1470

3400.00

596

915

1115

1245

1370

1489

3450.00

604

928

1129

1261

1388

1508

3500.00

612

940

1144

1278

1406

1529

3550.00

620

953

1160

1295

1425

1549

3600.00

628

965

1175

1312

1444

1569

3650.00

636

977

1189

1328

1460

1587

3700.00

643

987

1202

1342

1477

1605

3750.00

650

998

1215

1357

1493

1622

3800.00

657

1009

1228

1372

1509

1640

3850.00

664

1020

1241

1386

1525

1658

3900.00

671

1031

1254

1401

1541

1675

3950.00

678

1042

1267

1416

1557

1693

4000.00

685

1053

1280

1430

1573

1710

4050.00

692

1063

1294

1445

1589

1728

4100.00

699

1074

1306

1459

1605

1744

4150.00

706

1084

1319

1473

1620

1761

4200.00

713

1095

1331

1487

1635

1778

4250.00

720

1105

1344

1501

1651

1794

4300.00

727

1115

1356

1515

1666

1811

4350.00

734

1126

1368

1529

1681

1828

4400.00

741

1136

1381

1542

1697

1844

4450.00

747

1147

1393

1556

1712

1861

4500.00

754

1157

1406

1570

1727

1878

4550.00

761

1167

1418

1584

1743

1894

4600.00

768

1178

1431

1598

1758

1911

4650.00

775

1188

1443

1612

1773

1928

4700.00

782

1199

1456

1626

1789

1944

4750.00

788

1209

1467

1639

1803

1960

4800.00

795

1218

1478

1651

1817

1975

4850.00

801

1227

1489

1664

1830

1989

4900.00

808

1237

1500

1676

1844

2004

4950.00

814

1246

1511

1688

1857

2019

5000.00

820

1256

1523

1701

1871

2033

5050.00

827

1265

1534

1713

1884

2048

5100.00

833

1274

1545

1725

1898

2063

5150.00

840

1284

1556

1738

1911

2078

5200.00

846

1293

1567

1750

1925

2092

5250.00

852

1303

1578

1762

1938

2107

5300.00

859

1312

1589

1774

1952

2122

5350.00

865

1322

1600

1787

1965

2136

5400.00

871

1330

1610

1798

1978

2150

5450.00

875

1337

1617

1806

1987

2160

5500.00

879

1343

1624

1814

1996

2169

5550.00

883

1349

1631

1822

2005

2179

5600.00

887

1355

1639

1830

2013

2189

5650.00

891

1361

1646

1838

2022

2198

5700.00

896

1367

1653

1846

2031

2208

5750.00

900

1373

1660

1854

2040

2217

5800.00

904

1379

1667

1862

2049

2227

5850.00

908

1385

1674

1870

2057

2236

5900.00

912

1391

1682

1878

2066

2246

5950.00

916

1397

1689

1886

2075

2256

6000.00

920

1404

1696

1894

2084

2265

6050.00

924

1410

1703

1902

2093

2275

6100.00

928

1416

1710

1910

2101

2284

6150.00

932

1422

1717

1918

2110

2294

6200.00

937

1428

1725

1926

2119

2303

6250.00

941

1434

1732

1934

2128

2313

6300.00

945

1440

1739

1942

2136

2322

6350.00

949

1446

1746

1950

2145

2332

6400.00

953

1452

1753

1958

2154

2341

6450.00

957

1458

1760

1966

2162

2351

6500.00

961

1464

1767

1974

2171

2360

6550.00

965

1470

1774

1982

2180

2370

6600.00

969

1476

1782

1990

2189

2379

6650.00

973

1482

1789

1998

2198

2389

6700.00

977

1488

1796

2006

2207

2399

6750.00

981

1494

1803

2014

2216

2408

6800.00

985

1500

1810

2022

2225

2418

6850.00

989

1506

1818

2030

2233

2428

6900.00

993

1512

1825

2038

2242

2437

6950.00

997

1518

1832

2047

2251

2447

7000.00

1001

1524

1839

2055

2260

2457

7050.00

1005

1530

1847

2063

2269

2466

7100.00

1009

1536

1854

2071

2278

2476

7150.00

1013

1542

1861

2079

2287

2486

7200.00

1017

1548

1868

2087

2296

2495

7250.00

1021

1554

1876

2095

2304

2505

7300.00

1025

1560

1883

2103

2313

2515

7350.00

1029

1567

1890

2111

2322

2524

7400.00

1033

1573

1897

2119

2331

2534

7450.00

1037

1579

1904

2127

2340

2544

7500.00

1041

1585

1912

2135

2349

2553

7550.00

1045

1591

1919

2143

2358

2563

7600.00

1049

1597

1926

2151

2367

2572

7650.00

1053

1603

1933

2159

2375

2582

7700.00

1057

1608

1940

2167

2384

2591

7750.00

1061

1614

1947

2175

2392

2600

7800.00

1063

1618

1952

2180

2398

2607

7850.00

1066

1622

1956

2184

2403

2612

7900.00

1068

1625

1959

2188

2407

2617

7950.00

1070

1628

1963

2193

2412

2622

8000.00

1072

1631

1967

2197

2416

2627

8050.00

1074

1634

1970

2201

2421

2632

8100.00

1077

1638

1974

2205

2426

2637

8150.00

1079

1641

1978

2209

2430

2642

8200.00

1081

1644

1982

2214

2435

2647

8250.00

1083

1647

1985

2218

2439

2652

8300.00

1085

1651

1989

2222

2444

2657

8350.00

1088

1654

1993

2226

2449

2662

8400.00

1090

1657

1997

2230

2453

2667

8450.00

1092

1660

2000

2234

2458

2672

8500.00

1094

1664

2004

2239

2463

2677

8550.00

1097

1667

2008

2243

2467

2682

8600.00

1099

1670

2012

2247

2472

2687

8650.00

1101

1673

2015

2251

2476

2692

8700.00

1103

1677

2019

2255

2481

2697

8750.00

1105

1680

2023

2260

2486

2702

8800.00

1108

1683

2027

2264

2490

2707

8850.00

1110

1686

2030

2268

2495

2712

8900.00

1112

1690

2034

2272

2499

2717

8950.00

1115

1693

2038

2277

2504

2722

9000.00

1117

1697

2042

2281

2510

2728

9050.00

1119

1700

2047

2286

2515

2733

9100.00

1122

1704

2051

2291

2520

2739

9150.00

1125

1708

2055

2296

2525

2745

9200.00

1130

1716

2065

2307

2537

2758

9250.00

1135

1724

2075

2317

2549

2771

9300.00

1141

1732

2084

2328

2561

2784

9350.00

1146

1740

2094

2339

2573

2796

9400.00

1151

1748

2103

2350

2585

2809

9450.00

1157

1756

2113

2360

2596

2822

9500.00

1162

1764

2123

2371

2608

2835

9550.00

1167

1772

2132

2382

2620

2848

9600.00

1172

1780

2142

2393

2632

2861

9650.00

1178

1788

2152

2403

2644

2874

9700.00

1183

1796

2161

2414

2656

2887

9750.00

1188

1804

2171

2425

2667

2899

9800.00

1194

1812

2181

2436

2679

2912

9850.00

1199

1820

2190

2446

2691

2925

9900.00

1204

1828

2200

2457

2703

2938

9950.00

1210

1836

2209

2468

2715

2951

10000.00

1215

1844

2219

2479

2727

2964

10050.00

1220

1852

2229

2489

2738

2977

10100.00

1226

1860

2238

2500

2750

2990

10150.00

1231

1868

2248

2511

2762

3002

10200.00

1236

1876

2258

2522

2774

3015

10250.00

1242

1884

2267

2533

2786

3028

10300.00

1247

1892

2277

2543

2798

3041

10350.00

1252

1901

2287

2554

2809

3054

10400.00

1258

1909

2296

2565

2821

3067

10450.00

1262

1914

2303

2572

2830

3076

10500.00

1265

1920

2309

2579

2837

3084

10550.00

1269

1925

2315

2586

2845

3092

10600.00

1272

1930

2322

2593

2853

3101

10650.00

1276

1936

2328

2600

2860

3109

10700.00

1280

1941

2334

2607

2868

3117

10750.00

1283

1946

2340

2614

2875

3126

10800.00

1287

1952

2346

2621

2883

3134

10850.00

1291

1957

2353

2628

2891

3142

10900.00

1294

1962

2359

2635

2898

3150

10950.00

1298

1968

2365

2642

2906

3159

11000.00

1301

1973

2371

2649

2913

3167

11050.00

1305

1978

2377

2655

2921

3175

11100.00

1309

1984

2383

2662

2929

3183

11150.00

1312

1989

2390

2669

2936

3192

11200.00

1316

1994

2396

2676

2944

3200

11250.00

1320

2000

2402

2683

2951

3208

11300.00

1323

2005

2408

2690

2959

3216

11350.00

1327

2010

2414

2697

2967

3225

11400.00

1330

2016

2421

2704

2974

3233

11450.00

1334

2021

2427

2711

2982

3241

11500.00

1338

2026

2433

2718

2989

3250

11550.00

1341

2032

2439

2725

2997

3258

11600.00

1345

2037

2445

2731

3005

3266

11650.00

1349

2043

2452

2738

3012

3274

11700.00

1352

2048

2457

2745

3019

3282

11750.00

1355

2052

2463

2751

3026

3289

11800.00

1359

2057

2468

2757

3032

3296

11850.00

1362

2062

2473

2763

3039

3303

11900.00

1365

2066

2479

2769

3045

3310

11950.00

1368

2071

2484

2775

3052

3318

12000.00

1372

2076

2489

2781

3059

3325

12050.00

1375

2080

2495

2786

3065

3332

12100.00

1378

2085

2500

2792

3072

3339

12150.00

1382

2090

2505

2798

3078

3346

12200.00

1385

2095

2511

2804

3085

3353

12250.00

1388

2099

2516

2810

3091

3360

12300.00

1391

2104

2521

2816

3098

3367

12350.00

1395

2109

2527

2822

3104

3375

12400.00

1398

2113

2532

2828

3111

3382

12450.00

1401

2118

2537

2834

3118

3389

12500.00

1405

2123

2543

2840

3124

3396

12550.00

1408

2128

2548

2846

3131

3403

12600.00

1411

2132

2553

2852

3137

3410

12650.00

1414

2137

2559

2858

3144

3417

12700.00

1418

2142

2564

2864

3150

3424

12750.00

1421

2146

2569

2870

3157

3431

12800.00

1424

2151

2575

2876

3163

3439

12850.00

1427

2156

2580

2882

3170

3446

12900.00

1431

2160

2585

2888

3176

3453

12950.00

1434

2165

2591

2894

3184

3461

13000.00

1438

2171

2598

2903

3193

3471

13050.00

1441

2177

2606

2911

3202

3480

13100.00

1444

2183

2613

2919

3211

3490

13150.00

1448

2188

2621

2927

3220

3500

13200.00

1451

2194

2628

2936

3229

3510

13250.00

1455

2200

2636

2944

3239

3520

13300.00

1458

2205

2643

2952

3248

3530

13350.00

1462

2211

2651

2961

3257

3540

13400.00

1465

2217

2658

2969

3266

3550

13450.00

1469

2223

2666

2977

3275

3560

13500.00

1472

2228

2673

2986

3284

3570

13550.00

1475

2234

2680

2994

3293

3580

13600.00

1479

2240

2688

3002

3303

3590

13650.00

1482

2246

2695

3011

3312

3600

13700.00

1486

2251

2703

3019

3321

3610

13750.00

1489

2257

2710

3027

3330

3620

13800.00

1493

2263

2718

3036

3339

3630

13850.00

1496

2268

2725

3044

3348

3640

13900.00

1500

2274

2733

3052

3358

3650

13950.00

1503

2280

2740

3061

3367

3660

14000.00

1506

2286

2748

3069

3376

3670

14050.00

1510

2291

2755

3077

3385

3680

14100.00

1513

2297

2762

3086

3394

3690

14150.00

1517

2303

2770

3094

3403

3699

14200.00

1520

2309

2777

3102

3413

3709

14250.00

1524

2314

2783

3109

3420

3717

14300.00

1528

2319

2789

3115

3427

3725

14350.00

1532

2325

2795

3122

3434

3732

14400.00

1536

2330

2800

3128

3441

3740

14450.00

1540

2336

2806

3134

3448

3748

14500.00

1544

2341

2812

3141

3455

3755

14550.00

1548

2346

2817

3147

3462

3763

14600.00

1552

2352

2823

3153

3469

3771

14650.00

1556

2357

2829

3160

3476

3778

14700.00

1560

2362

2835

3166

3483

3786

14750.00

1564

2368

2840

3173

3490

3793

14800.00

1568

2373

2846

3179

3497

3801

14850.00

1572

2379

2852

3185

3504

3809

14900.00

1576

2384

2857

3192

3511

3816

14950.00

1580

2389

2863

3198

3518

3824

15000.00

1584

2395

2869

3204

3525

3832

15050.00

1588

2400

2875

3211

3532

3839

15100.00

1592

2406

2880

3217

3539

3847

15150.00

1596

2411

2886

3223

3545

3854

15200.00

1599

2416

2891

3229

3552

3861

15250.00

1603

2421

2896

3235

3558

3868

15300.00

1607

2426

2901

3241

3565

3875

15350.00

1610

2431

2907

3247

3571

3882

15400.00

1614

2436

2912

3253

3578

3889

15450.00

1618

2441

2917

3258

3584

3896

15500.00

1621

2445

2922

3264

3591

3903

15550.00

1623

2448

2926

3268

3595

3908

15600.00

1625

2451

2929

3272

3599

3912

15650.00

1627

2454

2933

3276

3603

3917

15700.00

1629

2457

2936

3280

3607

3921

15750.00

1630

2459

2939

3283

3612

3926

15800.00

1632

2462

2943

3287

3616

3930

15850.00

1634

2465

2946

3291

3620

3935

15900.00

1636

2468

2950

3295

3624

3940

15950.00

1638

2471

2953

3299

3628

3944

16000.00

1639

2473

2957

3302

3633

3949

16050.00

1641

2476

2960

3306

3637

3953

16100.00

1643

2479

2963

3310

3641

3958

16150.00

1645

2482

2967

3314

3645

3962

16200.00

1647

2485

2970

3318

3649

3967

16250.00

1649

2487

2974

3322

3654

3972

16300.00

1650

2490

2977

3325

3658

3976

16350.00

1652

2493

2980

3329

3662

3981

16400.00

1654

2496

2984

3333

3666

3985

16450.00

1656

2499

2987

3337

3670

3990

16500.00

1658

2501

2991

3341

3675

3994

16550.00

1659

2504

2994

3344

3679

3999

16600.00

1661

2507

2998

3348

3683

4004

16650.00

1663

2510

3001

3352

3687

4008

16700.00

1665

2513

3004

3356

3691

4013

16750.00

1667

2515

3008

3360

3696

4017

16800.00

1668

2518

3011

3364

3700

4022

16850.00

1670

2521

3015

3367

3704

4026

16900.00

1672

2524

3018

3371

3708

4031

16950.00

1674

2527

3021

3375

3712

4035

17000.00

1676

2529

3025

3379

3717

4040

17050.00

1678

2532

3028

3383

3721

4045

17100.00

1679

2535

3032

3386

3725

4049

17150.00

1681

2538

3035

3390

3729

4054

17200.00

1683

2541

3039

3394

3733

4058

17250.00

1685

2543

3042

3398

3738

4063

17300.00

1687

2546

3045

3402

3742

4067

17350.00

1688

2549

3049

3406

3746

4072

17400.00

1690

2552

3052

3409

3750

4077

17450.00

1692

2555

3056

3413

3754

4081

17500.00

1694

2557

3059

3417

3759

4086

17550.00

1696

2560

3063

3421

3763

4090

17600.00

1698

2564

3067

3426

3769

4096

17650.00

1701

2568

3072

3431

3774

4103

17700.00

1704

2572

3076

3436

3780

4109

17750.00

1706

2576

3081

3441

3785

4115

17800.00

1709

2580

3085

3446

3791

4121

17850.00

1711

2583

3090

3451

3797

4127

17900.00

1714

2587

3095

3457

3802

4133

17950.00

1717

2591

3099

3462

3808

4139

18000.00

1719

2595

3104

3467

3813

4145

18050.00

1722

2599

3108

3472

3819

4151

18100.00

1724

2603

3113

3477

3825

4157

18150.00

1727

2607

3117

3482

3830

4164

18200.00

1730

2611

3122

3487

3836

4170

18250.00

1732

2615

3127

3492

3842

4176

18300.00

1735

2618

3131

3497

3847

4182

18350.00

1738

2622

3136

3503

3853

4188

18400.00

1740

2626

3140

3508

3858

4194

18450.00

1743

2630

3145

3513

3864

4200

18500.00

1745

2634

3149

3518

3870

4206

18550.00

1748

2638

3154

3523

3875

4212

18600.00

1751

2642

3159

3528

3881

4219

18650.00

1753

2646

3163

3533

3887

4225

18700.00

1756

2650

3168

3538

3892

4231

18750.00

1758

2653

3172

3543

3898

4237

18800.00

1761

2657

3177

3549

3903

4243

18850.00

1764

2661

3181

3554

3909

4249

18900.00

1766

2665

3186

3559

3915

4255

18950.00

1769

2669

3191

3564

3920

4261

19000.00

1771

2673

3195

3569

3926

4267

19050.00

1774

2677

3200

3574

3931

4274

19100.00

1777

2681

3204

3579

3937

4280

19150.00

1779

2685

3209

3584

3943

4286

19200.00

1782

2689

3213

3589

3948

4292

19250.00

1785

2692

3218

3595

3954

4298

19300.00

1787

2696

3223

3600

3960

4304

19350.00

1790

2700

3227

3605

3965

4310

19400.00

1792

2704

3232

3610

3971

4316

19450.00

1795

2708

3236

3615

3976

4322

19500.00

1798

2712

3241

3620

3982

4328

19550.00

1800

2716

3245

3625

3988

4335

19600.00

1803

2720

3250

3630

3993

4341

19650.00

1805

2724

3255

3635

3999

4347

19700.00

1808

2727

3259

3640

4005

4353

19750.00

1811

2731

3264

3646

4010

4359

19800.00

1813

2735

3268

3651

4016

4365

19850.00

1816

2739

3273

3656

4021

4371

19900.00

1819

2743

3277

3661

4027

4377

19950.00

1821

2747

3282

3666

4033

4383

20000.00

1824

2751

3287

3671

4038

4390

20050.00

1826

2755

3291

3676

4044

4396

20100.00

1829

2759

3296

3681

4049

4402

20150.00

1832

2762

3300

3686

4055

4408

20200.00

1834

2766

3305

3692

4061

4414

20250.00

1837

2770

3309

3697

4066

4420

20300.00

1839

2774

3314

3702

4072

4426

20350.00

1842

2778

3319

3707

4078

4432

20400.00

1845

2782

3323

3712

4083

4438

20450.00

1847

2786

3328

3717

4089

4445

20500.00

1850

2790

3332

3722

4094

4451

20550.00

1853

2794

3337

3727

4100

4457

20600.00

1855

2797

3341

3732

4106

4463

20650.00

1858

2801

3346

3738

4111

4469

20700.00

1860

2805

3351

3743

4117

4475

20750.00

1863

2809

3355

3748

4123

4481

20800.00

1866

2813

3360

3753

4128

4487

20850.00

1868

2817

3364

3758

4134

4493

20900.00

1871

2821

3369

3763

4139

4500

20950.00

1873

2825

3373

3768

4145

4506

21000.00

1876

2829

3378

3773

4151

4512

21050.00

1879

2832

3383

3778

4156

4518

21100.00

1881

2836

3387

3784

4162

4524

21150.00

1884

2840

3392

3789

4167

4530

21200.00

1887

2844

3396

3794

4173

4536

21250.00

1889

2848

3401

3799

4179

4542

21300.00

1892

2852

3405

3804

4184

4548

21350.00

1894

2856

3410

3809

4190

4554

21400.00

1897

2860

3415

3814

4196

4561

21450.00

1900

2864

3419

3819

4201

4567

21500.00

1902

2867

3424

3824

4207

4573

21550.00

1905

2871

3428

3829

4212

4579

21600.00

1907

2875

3433

3835

4218

4585

21650.00

1910

2879

3438

3840

4224

4591

21700.00

1913

2883

3442

3845

4229

4597

21750.00

1915

2887

3447

3850

4235

4603

21800.00

1918

2891

3451

3855

4241

4609

21850.00

1921

2895

3456

3860

4246

4616

21900.00

1923

2899

3460

3865

4252

4622

21950.00

1926

2902

3465

3870

4257

4628

22000.00

1928

2906

3470

3875

4263

4634

22050.00

1931

2910

3474

3881

4269

4640

22100.00

1934

2914

3479

3886

4274

4646

22150.00

1936

2918

3483

3891

4280

4652

22200.00

1939

2922

3488

3896

4285

4658

22250.00

1941

2926

3492

3901

4291

4664

22300.00

1944

2930

3497

3906

4297

4671

22350.00

1947

2934

3502

3911

4302

4677

22400.00

1949

2937

3506

3916

4308

4683

22450.00

1952

2941

3511

3921

4314

4689

22500.00

1955

2945

3515

3927

4319

4695

22550.00

1957

2949

3520

3932

4325

4701

22600.00

1960

2953

3524

3937

4330

4707

22650.00

1962

2957

3529

3942

4336

4713

22700.00

1965

2961

3534

3947

4342

4719

22750.00

1968

2965

3538

3952

4347

4725

22800.00

1970

2969

3543

3957

4353

4732

22850.00

1973

2972

3547

3962

4359

4738

22900.00

1975

2976

3552

3967

4364

4744

22950.00

1978

2980

3556

3973

4370

4750

23000.00

1981

2984

3561

3978

4375

4756

23050.00

1983

2988

3566

3983

4381

4762

23100.00

1986

2992

3570

3988

4387

4768

23150.00

1989

2996

3575

3993

4392

4774

23200.00

1991

3000

3579

3998

4398

4780

23250.00

1994

3004

3584

4003

4404

4787

23300.00

1998

3010

3591

4011

4412

4796

23350.00

2002

3016

3598

4019

4421

4806

23400.00

2006

3022

3606

4027

4430

4816

23450.00

2010

3028

3613

4035

4439

4825

23500.00

2014

3034

3620

4044

4448

4835

23550.00

2018

3040

3627

4052

4457

4844

23600.00

2022

3046

3634

4060

4466

4854

23650.00

2026

3052

3642

4068

4474

4864

23700.00

2030

3058

3649

4076

4483

4873

23750.00

2034

3064

3656

4084

4492

4883

23800.00

2038

3070

3663

4092

4501

4893

23850.00

2042

3076

3670

4100

4510

4902

23900.00

2046

3082

3678

4108

4519

4912

23950.00

2050

3088

3685

4116

4528

4922

24000.00

2054

3094

3692

4124

4536

4931

24050.00

2058

3100

3699

4132

4545

4941

24100.00

2062

3106

3707

4140

4554

4950

24150.00

2066

3112

3714

4148

4563

4960

24200.00

2070

3118

3721

4156

4572

4970

24250.00

2074

3124

3728

4164

4581

4979

24300.00

2078

3130

3735

4172

4590

4989

24350.00

2082

3137

3743

4180

4598

4999

24400.00

2086

3143

3750

4188

4607

5008

24450.00

2090

3149

3757

4197

4616

5018

24500.00

2094

3155

3764

4205

4625

5027

24550.00

2098

3161

3771

4213

4634

5037

24600.00

2102

3167

3779

4221

4643

5047

24650.00

2106

3173

3786

4229

4652

5056

24700.00

2110

3179

3793

4237

4661

5066

24750.00

2114

3185

3800

4245

4669

5076

24800.00

2118

3191

3807

4253

4678

5085

24850.00

2122

3197

3815

4261

4687

5095

24900.00

2126

3203

3822

4269

4696

5104

24950.00

2130

3209

3829

4277

4705

5114

25000.00

2134

3215

3836

4285

4714

5124

25050.00

2138

3221

3844

4293

4723

5133

25100.00

2142

3227

3851

4301

4731

5143

25150.00

2146

3233

3858

4309

4740

5153

25200.00

2150

3239

3865

4317

4749

5162

25250.00

2154

3245

3872

4325

4758

5172

25300.00

2158

3251

3880

4333

4767

5182

25350.00

2162

3257

3887

4342

4776

5191

25400.00

2166

3263

3894

4350

4785

5201

25450.00

2170

3269

3901

4358

4793

5210

25500.00

2174

3276

3908

4366

4802

5220

25550.00

2178

3282

3916

4374

4811

5230

25600.00

2182

3288

3923

4382

4820

5239

25650.00

2186

3294

3930

4390

4829

5249

25700.00

2190

3300

3937

4398

4838

5259

25750.00

2194

3306

3944

4406

4847

5268

25800.00

2198

3312

3952

4414

4855

5278

25850.00

2202

3318

3959

4422

4864

5287

25900.00

2206

3324

3966

4430

4873

5297

25950.00

2210

3330

3973

4438

4882

5307

26000.00

2214

3336

3981

4446

4891

5316

26050.00

2218

3342

3988

4454

4900

5326

26100.00

2222

3348

3995

4462

4909

5336

26150.00

2226

3354

4002

4470

4917

5345

26200.00

2230

3360

4009

4478

4926

5355

26250.00

2234

3366

4017

4486

4935

5365

26300.00

2238

3372

4024

4495

4944

5374

26350.00

2242

3378

4031

4503

4953

5384

26400.00

2247

3384

4038

4511

4962

5393

26450.00

2251

3390

4045

4519

4971

5403

26500.00

2255

3396

4053

4527

4979

5413

26550.00

2259

3402

4060

4535

4988

5422

26600.00

2263

3408

4067

4543

4997

5432

26650.00

2267

3415

4074

4551

5006

5442

26700.00

2271

3421

4081

4559

5015

5451

26750.00

2275

3427

4089

4567

5024

5461

26800.00

2279

3433

4096

4575

5033

5470

26850.00

2283

3439

4103

4583

5041

5480

26900.00

2287

3445

4110

4591

5050

5490

26950.00

2291

3451

4118

4599

5059

5499

27000.00

2295

3457

4125

4607

5068

5509

27050.00

2299

3463

4132

4615

5077

5519

27100.00

2303

3469

4139

4623

5086

5528

27150.00

2307

3475

4146

4631

5095

5538

27200.00

2311

3481

4154

4640

5103

5547

27250.00

2315

3487

4161

4648

5112

5557

27300.00

2319

3493

4168

4656

5121

5567

27350.00

2323

3499

4175

4664

5130

5576

27400.00

2327

3505

4182

4672

5139

5586

27450.00

2331

3511

4190

4680

5148

5596

27500.00

2335

3517

4197

4688

5157

5605

27550.00

2339

3523

4204

4696

5165

5615

27600.00

2343

3529

4211

4704

5174

5625

27650.00

2347

3535

4218

4712

5183

5634

27700.00

2351

3541

4226

4720

5192

5644

27750.00

2355

3547

4233

4728

5201

5653

27800.00

2359

3554

4240

4736

5210

5663

27850.00

2363

3560

4247

4744

5219

5673

27900.00

2367

3566

4255

4752

5228

5682

27950.00

2371

3572

4262

4760

5236

5692

28000.00

2375

3578

4269

4768

5245

5702

28050.00

2379

3584

4276

4776

5254

5711

28100.00

2383

3590

4283

4785

5263

5721

28150.00

2387

3596

4291

4793

5272

5730

28200.00

2391

3602

4298

4801

5281

5740

28250.00

2395

3608

4305

4809

5290

5750

28300.00

2399

3614

4312

4817

5298

5759

28350.00

2403

3620

4319

4825

5307

5769

28400.00

2407

3626

4327

4833

5316

5779

28450.00

2411

3632

4334

4841

5325

5788

28500.00

2415

3638

4341

4849

5334

5798

28550.00

2419

3644

4348

4857

5343

5808

28600.00

2423

3650

4355

4865

5352

5817

28650.00

2427

3656

4363

4873

5360

5827

28700.00

2431

3662

4370

4881

5369

5836

28750.00

2435

3668

4377

4889

5378

5846

28800.00

2439

3674

4384

4897

5387

5856

28850.00

2443

3680

4392

4905

5396

5865

28900.00

2447

3686

4399

4913

5405

5875

28950.00

2451

3692

4406

4921

5414

5885

29000.00

2455

3699

4413

4929

5422

5894

29050.00

2459

3705

4420

4938

5431

5904

29100.00

2463

3711

4428

4946

5440

5913

29150.00

2467

3717

4435

4954

5449

5923

29200.00

2471

3723

4442

4962

5458

5933

29250.00

2475

3729

4449

4970

5467

5942

29300.00

2479

3735

4456

4978

5476

5952

29350.00

2483

3741

4464

4986

5484

5962

29400.00

2487

3747

4471

4994

5493

5971

29450.00

2491

3753

4478

5002

5502

5981

29500.00

2495

3759

4485

5010

5511

5990

29550.00

2499

3765

4492

5018

5520

6000

29600.00

2503

3771

4500

5026

5529

6010

29650.00

2507

3777

4507

5034

5538

6019

29700.00

2511

3783

4514

5042

5546

6029

29750.00

2515

3789

4521

5050

5555

6039

29800.00

2519

3795

4529

5058

5564

6048

29850.00

2523

3801

4536

5066

5573

6058

29900.00

2527

3807

4543

5074

5582

6068

29950.00

2531

3813

4550

5083

5591

6077

30000.00

2535

3819

4557

5091

5600

6087

<Text of (7)(b) effective July 1, 2020>

(b) Schedule of basic child support obligations:

Obligor’s Adjusted Gross Income

One Child

Two Children

Three Children

Four Children

Five Children

Six Children

             
   

0-650

10

10

10

10

10

10

651-1500

50

70

90

110

130

150

             

Combined Adjusted Gross income

One Child

Two Children

Three Children

Four Children

Five Children

Six Children

1550

85

105

125

145

165

185

1600

120

140

160

180

200

220

1650

155

175

195

215

235

255

1700

190

210

230

250

270

290

1750

225

245

265

285

305

325

1800

260

280

300

320

340

360

1850

295

315

335

355

375

395

1900

330

350

370

390

410

430

1950

360

385

405

425

445

465

2000

368

420

440

460

480

500

2050

377

455

475

495

515

535

2100

385

490

510

530

550

570

2150

393

525

545

565

585

605

2200

401

560

580

600

620

640

2250

410

595

615

635

655

675

2300

418

630

650

670

690

710

2350

426

658

685

705

725

745

2400

435

671

720

740

760

780

2450

443

683

755

775

795

815

2500

451

696

790

810

830

850

2550

459

709

825

845

865

885

2600

468

722

860

880

900

920

2650

476

734

895

915

935

955

2700

484

747

913

950

970

990

2750

493

760

928

985

1005

1025

2800

501

772

944

1020

1040

1060

2850

509

785

959

1055

1075

1095

2900

517

797

974

1087

1110

1130

2950

525

809

988

1103

1145

1165

3000

533

821

1002

1119

1180

1200

3050

541

833

1016

1135

1215

1235

3100

548

844

1030

1150

1250

1270

3150

556

856

1044

1166

1283

1305

3200

564

868

1058

1182

1300

1340

3250

572

880

1072

1198

1318

1375

3300

580

892

1086

1214

1335

1410

3350

588

904

1101

1229

1352

1445

3400

596

915

1115

1245

1370

1480

3450

604

928

1129

1261

1388

1508

3500

612

940

1144

1278

1406

1529

3550

620

953

1160

1295

1425

1549

3600

628

965

1175

1312

1444

1569

3650

636

977

1189

1328

1460

1587

3700

643

987

1202

1342

1477

1605

3750

650

998

1215

1357

1493

1622

3800

657

1009

1228

1372

1509

1640

3850

664

1020

1241

1386

1525

1658

3900

671

1031

1254

1401

1541

1675

3950

678

1042

1267

1416

1557

1693

4000

685

1053

1280

1430

1573

1710

4050

692

1063

1294

1445

1589

1728

4100

699

1074

1306

1459

1605

1744

4150

706

1084

1319

1473

1620

1761

4200

713

1095

1331

1487

1635

1778

4250

720

1105

1344

1501

1651

1794

4300

727

1115

1356

1515

1666

1811

4350

734

1126

1368

1529

1681

1828

4400

741

1136

1381

1542

1697

1844

4450

747

1147

1393

1556

1712

1861

4500

754

1157

1406

1570

1727

1878

4550

761

1167

1418

1584

1743

1894

4600

768

1178

1431

1598

1758

1911

4650

775

1188

1443

1612

1773

1928

4700

782

1199

1456

1626

1789

1944

4750

788

1209

1467

1639

1803

1960

4800

795

1218

1478

1651

1817

1975

4850

801

1227

1489

1664

1830

1989

4900

808

1237

1500

1676

1844

2004

4950

814

1246

1511

1688

1857

2019

5000

820

1256

1523

1701

1871

2033

5050

827

1265

1534

1713

1884

2048

5100

833

1274

1545

1725

1898

2063

5150

840

1284

1556

1738

1911

2078

5200

846

1293

1567

1750

1925

2092

5250

852

1303

1578

1762

1938

2107

5300

859

1312

1589

1774

1952

2122

5350

865

1322

1600

1787

1965

2136

5400

871

1330

1610

1798

1978

2150

5450

875

1337

1617

1806

1987

2160

5500

879

1343

1624

1814

1996

2169

5550

883

1349

1631

1822

2005

2179

5600

887

1355

1639

1830

2013

2189

5650

891

1361

1646

1838

2022

2198

5700

896

1367

1653

1846

2031

2208

5750

900

1373

1660

1854

2040

2217

5800

904

1379

1667

1862

2049

2227

5850

908

1385

1674

1870

2057

2236

5900

912

1391

1682

1878

2066

2246

5950

916

1397

1689

1886

2075

2256

6000

920

1404

1696

1894

2084

2265

6050

924

1410

1703

1902

2093

2275

6100

928

1416

1710

1910

2101

2284

6150

932

1422

1717

1918

2110

2294

6200

937

1428

1725

1926

2119

2303

6250

941

1434

1732

1934

2128

2313

6300

945

1440

1739

1942

2136

2322

6350

949

1446

1746

1950

2145

2332

6400

953

1452

1753

1958

2154

2341

6450

957

1458

1760

1966

2162

2351

6500

961

1464

1767

1974

2171

2360

6550

965

1470

1774

1982

2180

2370

6600

969

1476

1782

1990

2189

2379

6650

973

1482

1789

1998

2198

2389

6700

977

1488

1796

2006

2207

2399

6750

981

1494

1803

2014

2216

2408

6800

985

1500

1810

2022

2225

2418

6850

989

1506

1818

2030

2233

2428

6900

993

1512

1825

2038

2242

2437

6950

997

1518

1832

2047

2251

2447

7000

1001

1524

1839

2055

2260

2457

7050

1005

1530

1847

2063

2269

2466

7100

1009

1536

1854

2071

2278

2476

7150

1013

1542

1861

2079

2287

2486

7200

1017

1548

1868

2087

2296

2495

7250

1021

1554

1876

2095

2304

2505

7300

1025

1560

1883

2103

2313

2515

7350

1029

1567

1890

2111

2322

2524

7400

1033

1573

1897

2119

2331

2534

7450

1037

1579

1904

2127

2340

2544

7500

1041

1585

1912

2135

2349

2553

7550

1045

1591

1919

2143

2358

2563

7600

1049

1597

1926

2151

2367

2572

7650

1053

1603

1933

2159

2375

2582

7700

1057

1608

1940

2167

2384

2591

7750

1061

1614

1947

2175

2392

2600

7800

1063

1618

1952

2180

2398

2607

7850

1066

1622

1956

2184

2403

2612

7900

1068

1625

1959

2188

2407

2617

7950

1070

1628

1963

2193

2412

2622

8000

1072

1631

1967

2197

2416

2627

8050

1074

1634

1970

2201

2421

2632

8100

1077

1638

1974

2205

2426

2637

8150

1079

1641

1978

2209

2430

2642

8200

1081

1644

1982

2214

2435

2647

8250

1083

1647

1985

2218

2439

2652

8300

1085

1651

1989

2222

2444

2657

8350

1088

1654

1993

2226

2449

2662

8400

1090

1657

1997

2230

2453

2667

8450

1092

1660

2000

2234

2458

2672

8500

1094

1664

2004

2239

2463

2677

8550

1097

1667

2008

2243

2467

2682

8600

1099

1670

2012

2247

2472

2687

8650

1101

1673

2015

2251

2476

2692

8700

1103

1677

2019

2255

2481

2697

8750

1105

1680

2023

2260

2486

2702

8800

1108

1683

2027

2264

2490

2707

8850

1110

1686

2030

2268

2495

2712

8900

1112

1690

2034

2272

2499

2717

8950

1115

1693

2038

2277

2504

2722

9000

1117

1697

2042

2281

2510

2728

9050

1119

1700

2047

2286

2515

2733

9100

1122

1704

2051

2291

2520

2739

9150

1125

1708

2055

2296

2525

2745

9200

1130

1716

2065

2307

2537

2758

9250

1135

1724

2075

2317

2549

2771

9300

1141

1732

2084

2328

2561

2784

9350

1146

1740

2094

2339

2573

2796

9400

1151

1748

2103

2350

2585

2809

9450

1157

1756

2113

2360

2596

2822

9500

1162

1764

2123

2371

2608

2835

9550

1167

1772

2132

2382

2620

2848

9600

1172

1780

2142

2393

2632

2861

9650

1178

1788

2152

2403

2644

2874

9700

1183

1796

2161

2414

2656

2887

9750

1188

1804

2171

2425

2667

2899

9800

1194

1812

2181

2436

2679

2912

9850

1199

1820

2190

2446

2691

2925

9900

1204

1828

2200

2457

2703

2938

9950

1210

1836

2209

2468

2715

2951

10000

1215

1844

2219

2479

2727

2964

10050

1220

1852

2229

2489

2738

2977

10100

1226

1860

2238

2500

2750

2990

10150

1231

1868

2248

2511

2762

3002

10200

1236

1876

2258

2522

2774

3015

10250

1242

1884

2267

2533

2786

3028

10300

1247

1892

2277

2543

2798

3041

10350

1252

1901

2287

2554

2809

3054

10400

1258

1909

2296

2565

2821

3067

10450

1262

1914

2303

2572

2830

3076

10500

1265

1920

2309

2579

2837

3084

10550

1269

1925

2315

2586

2845

3092

10600

1272

1930

2322

2593

2853

3101

10650

1276

1936

2328

2600

2860

3109

10700

1280

1941

2334

2607

2868

3117

10750

1283

1946

2340

2614

2875

3126

10800

1287

1952

2346

2621

2883

3134

10850

1291

1957

2353

2628

2891

3142

10900

1294

1962

2359

2635

2898

3150

10950

1298

1968

2365

2642

2906

3159

11000

1301

1973

2371

2649

2913

3167

11050

1305

1978

2377

2655

2921

3175

11100

1309

1984

2383

2662

2929

3183

11150

1312

1989

2390

2669

2936

3192

11200

1316

1994

2396

2676

2944

3200

11250

1320

2000

2402

2683

2951

3208

11300

1323

2005

2408

2690

2959

3216

11350

1327

2010

2414

2697

2967

3225

11400

1330

2016

2421

2704

2974

3233

11450

1334

2021

2427

2711

2982

3241

11500

1338

2026

2433

2718

2989

3250

11550

1341

2032

2439

2725

2997

3258

11600

1345

2037

2445

2731

3005

3266

11650

1349

2043

2452

2738

3012

3274

11700

1352

2048

2457

2745

3019

3282

11750

1355

2052

2463

2751

3026

3289

11800

1359

2057

2468

2757

3032

3296

11850

1362

2062

2473

2763

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3303

11900

1365

2066

2479

2769

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3310

11950

1368

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2775

3052

3318

12000

1372

2076

2489

2781

3059

3325

12050

1375

2080

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2786

3065

3332

12100

1378

2085

2500

2792

3072

3339

12150

1382

2090

2505

2798

3078

3346

12200

1385

2095

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2804

3085

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12250

1388

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2810

3091

3360

12300

1391

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12350

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3382

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3396

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2864

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3424

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2569

2870

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1424

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3439

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3170

3446

12900

1431

2160

2585

2888

3176

3453

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1434

2165

2591

2894

3184

3461

13000

1438

2171

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2903

3193

3471

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2177

2606

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3202

3480

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1444

2183

2613

2919

3211

3490

13150

1448

2188

2621

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3220

3500

13200

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2628

2936

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13250

1455

2200

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1458

2205

2643

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13350

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3257

3540

13400

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2658

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3266

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13450

1469

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3275

3560

13500

1472

2228

2673

2986

3284

3570

13550

1475

2234

2680

2994

3293

3580

13600

1479

2240

2688

3002

3303

3590

13650

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2246

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3312

3600

13700

1486

2251

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3019

3321

3610

13750

1489

2257

2710

3027

3330

3620

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1493

2263

2718

3036

3339

3630

13850

1496

2268

2725

3044

3348

3640

13900

1500

2274

2733

3052

3358

3650

13950

1503

2280

2740

3061

3367

3660

14000

1506

2286

2748

3069

3376

3670

14050

1510

2291

2755

3077

3385

3680

14100

1513

2297

2762

3086

3394

3690

14150

1517

2303

2770

3094

3403

3699

14200

1520

2309

2777

3102

3413

3709

14250

1524

2314

2783

3109

3420

3717

14300

1528

2319

2789

3115

3427

3725

14350

1532

2325

2795

3122

3434

3732

14400

1536

2330

2800

3128

3441

3740

14450

1540

2336

2806

3134

3448

3748

14500

1544

2341

2812

3141

3455

3755

14550

1548

2346

2817

3147

3462

3763

14600

1552

2352

2823

3153

3469

3771

14650

1556

2357

2829

3160

3476

3778

14700

1560

2362

2835

3166

3483

3786

14750

1564

2368

2840

3173

3490

3793

14800

1568

2373

2846

3179

3497

3801

14850

1572

2379

2852

3185

3504

3809

14900

1576

2384

2857

3192

3511

3816

14950

1580

2389

2863

3198

3518

3824

15000

1584

2395

2869

3204

3525

3832

15050

1588

2400

2875

3211

3532

3839

15100

1592

2406

2880

3217

3539

3847

15150

1596

2411

2886

3223

3545

3854

15200

1599

2416

2891

3229

3552

3861

15250

1603

2421

2896

3235

3558

3868

15300

1607

2426

2901

3241

3565

3875

15350

1610

2431

2907

3247

3571

3882

15400

1614

2436

2912

3253

3578

3889

15450

1618

2441

2917

3258

3584

3896

15500

1621

2445

2922

3264

3591

3903

15550

1623

2448

2926

3268

3595

3908

15600

1625

2451

2929

3272

3599

3912

15650

1627

2454

2933

3276

3603

3917

15700

1629

2457

2936

3280

3607

3921

15750

1630

2459

2939

3283

3612

3926

15800

1632

2462

2943

3287

3616

3930

15850

1634

2465

2946

3291

3620

3935

15900

1636

2468

2950

3295

3624

3940

15950

1638

2471

2953

3299

3628

3944

16000

1639

2473

2957

3302

3633

3949

16050

1641

2476

2960

3306

3637

3953

16100

1643

2479

2963

3310

3641

3958

16150

1645

2482

2967

3314

3645

3962

16200

1647

2485

2970

3318

3649

3967

16250

1649

2487

2974

3322

3654

3972

16300

1650

2490

2977

3325

3658

3976

16350

1652

2493

2980

3329

3662

3981

16400

1654

2496

2984

3333

3666

3985

16450

1656

2499

2987

3337

3670

3990

16500

1658

2501

2991

3341

3675

3994

16550

1659

2504

2994

3344

3679

3999

16600

1661

2507

2998

3348

3683

4004

16650

1663

2510

3001

3352

3687

4008

16700

1665

2513

3004

3356

3691

4013

16750

1667

2515

3008

3360

3696

4017

16800

1668

2518

3011

3364

3700

4022

16850

1670

2521

3015

3367

3704

4026

16900

1672

2524

3018

3371

3708

4031

16950

1674

2527

3021

3375

3712

4035

17000

1676

2529

3025

3379

3717

4040

17050

1678

2532

3028

3383

3721

4045

17100

1679

2535

3032

3386

3725

4049

17150

1681

2538

3035

3390

3729

4054

17200

1683

2541

3039

3394

3733

4058

17250

1685

2543

3042

3398

3738

4063

17300

1687

2546

3045

3402

3742

4067

17350

1688

2549

3049

3406

3746

4072

17400

1690

2552

3052

3409

3750

4077

17450

1692

2555

3056

3413

3754

4081

17500

1694

2557

3059

3417

3759

4086

17550

1696

2560

3063

3421

3763

4090

17600

1698

2564

3067

3426

3769

4096

17650

1701

2568

3072

3431

3774

4103

17700

1704

2572

3076

3436

3780

4109

17750

1706

2576

3081

3441

3785

4115

17800

1709

2580

3085

3446

3791

4121

17850

1711

2583

3090

3451

3797

4127

17900

1714

2587

3095

3457

3802

4133

17950

1717

2591

3099

3462

3808

4139

18000

1719

2595

3104

3467

3813

4145

18050

1722

2599

3108

3472

3819

4151

18100

1724

2603

3113

3477

3825

4157

18150

1727

2607

3117

3482

3830

4164

18200

1730

2611

3122

3487

3836

4170

18250

1732

2615

3127

3492

3842

4176

18300

1735

2618

3131

3497

3847

4182

18350

1738

2622

3136

3503

3853

4188

18400

1740

2626

3140

3508

3858

4194

18450

1743

2630

3145

3513

3864

4200

18500

1745

2634

3149

3518

3870

4206

18550

1748

2638

3154

3523

3875

4212

18600

1751

2642

3159

3528

3881

4219

18650

1753

2646

3163

3533

3887

4225

18700

1756

2650

3168

3538

3892

4231

18750

1758

2653

3172

3543

3898

4237

18800

1761

2657

3177

3549

3903

4243

18850

1764

2661

3181

3554

3909

4249

18900

1766

2665

3186

3559

3915

4255

18950

1769

2669

3191

3564

3920

4261

19000

1771

2673

3195

3569

3926

4267

19050

1774

2677

3200

3574

3931

4274

19100

1777

2681

3204

3579

3937

4280

19150

1779

2685

3209

3584

3943

4286

19200

1782

2689

3213

3589

3948

4292

19250

1785

2692

3218

3595

3954

4298

19300

1787

2696

3223

3600

3960

4304

19350

1790

2700

3227

3605

3965

4310

19400

1792

2704

3232

3610

3971

4316

19450

1795

2708

3236

3615

3976

4322

19500

1798

2712

3241

3620

3982

4328

19550

1800

2716

3245

3625

3988

4335

19600

1803

2720

3250

3630

3993

4341

19650

1805

2724

3255

3635

3999

4347

19700

1808

2727

3259

3640

4005

4353

19750

1811

2731

3264

3646

4010

4359

19800

1813

2735

3268

3651

4016

4365

19850

1816

2739

3273

3656

4021

4371

19900

1819

2743

3277

3661

4027

4377

19950

1821

2747

3282

3666

4033

4383

20000

1824

2751

3287

3671

4038

4390

20050

1826

2755

3291

3676

4044

4396

20100

1829

2759

3296

3681

4049

4402

20150

1832

2762

3300

3686

4055

4408

20200

1834

2766

3305

3692

4061

4414

20250

1837

2770

3309

3697

4066

4420

20300

1839

2774

3314

3702

4072

4426

20350

1842

2778

3319

3707

4078

4432

20400

1845

2782

3323

3712

4083

4438

20450

1847

2786

3328

3717

4089

4445

20500

1850

2790

3332

3722

4094

4451

20550

1853

2794

3337

3727

4100

4457

20600

1855

2797

3341

3732

4106

4463

20650

1858

2801

3346

3738

4111

4469

20700

1860

2805

3351

3743

4117

4475

20750

1863

2809

3355

3748

4123

4481

20800

1866

2813

3360

3753

4128

4487

20850

1868

2817

3364

3758

4134

4493

20900

1871

2821

3369

3763

4139

4500

20950

1873

2825

3373

3768

4145

4506

21000

1876

2829

3378

3773

4151

4512

21050

1879

2832

3383

3778

4156

4518

21100

1881

2836

3387

3784

4162

4524

21150

1884

2840

3392

3789

4167

4530

21200

1887

2844

3396

3794

4173

4536

21250

1889

2848

3401

3799

4179

4542

21300

1892

2852

3405

3804

4184

4548

21350

1894

2856

3410

3809

4190

4554

21400

1897

2860

3415

3814

4196

4561

21450

1900

2864

3419

3819

4201

4567

21500

1902

2867

3424

3824

4207

4573

21550

1905

2871

3428

3829

4212

4579

21600

1907

2875

3433

3835

4218

4585

21650

1910

2879

3438

3840

4224

4591

21700

1913

2883

3442

3845

4229

4597

21750

1915

2887

3447

3850

4235

4603

21800

1918

2891

3451

3855

4241

4609

21850

1921

2895

3456

3860

4246

4616

21900

1923

2899

3460

3865

4252

4622

21950

1926

2902

3465

3870

4257

4628

22000

1928

2906

3470

3875

4263

4634

22050

1931

2910

3474

3881

4269

4640

22100

1934

2914

3479

3886

4274

4646

22150

1936

2918

3483

3891

4280

4652

22200

1939

2922

3488

3896

4285

4658

22250

1941

2926

3492

3901

4291

4664

22300

1944

2930

3497

3906

4297

4671

22350

1947

2934

3502

3911

4302

4677

22400

1949

2937

3506

3916

4308

4683

22450

1952

2941

3511

3921

4314

4689

22500

1955

2945

3515

3927

4319

4695

22550

1957

2949

3520

3932

4325

4701

22600

1960

2953

3524

3937

4330

4707

22650

1962

2957

3529

3942

4336

4713

22700

1965

2961

3534

3947

4342

4719

22750

1968

2965

3538

3952

4347

4725

22800

1970

2969

3543

3957

4353

4732

22850

1973

2972

3547

3962

4359

4738

22900

1975

2976

3552

3967

4364

4744

22950

1978

2980

3556

3973

4370

4750

23000

1981

2984

3561

3978

4375

4756

23050

1983

2988

3566

3983

4381

4762

23100

1986

2992

3570

3988

4387

4768

23150

1989

2996

3575

3993

4392

4774

23200

1991

3000

3579

3998

4398

4780

23250

1994

3004

3584

4003

4404

4787

23300

1998

3010

3591

4011

4412

4796

23350

2002

3016

3598

4019

4421

4806

23400

2006

3022

3606

4027

4430

4816

23450

2010

3028

3613

4035

4439

4825

23500

2014

3034

3620

4044

4448

4835

23550

2018

3040

3627

4052

4457

4844

23600

2022

3046

3634

4060

4466

4854

23650

2026

3052

3642

4068

4474

4864

23700

2030

3058

3649

4076

4483

4873

23750

2034

3064

3656

4084

4492

4883

23800

2038

3070

3663

4092

4501

4893

23850

2042

3076

3670

4100

4510

4902

23900

2046

3082

3678

4108

4519

4912

23950

2050

3088

3685

4116

4528

4922

24000

2054

3094

3692

4124

4536

4931

24050

2058

3100

3699

4132

4545

4941

24100

2062

3106

3707

4140

4554

4950

24150

2066

3112

3714

4148

4563

4960

24200

2070

3118

3721

4156

4572

4970

24250

2074

3124

3728

4164

4581

4979

24300

2078

3130

3735

4172

4590

4989

24350

2082

3137

3743

4180

4598

4999

24400

2086

3143

3750

4188

4607

5008

24450

2090

3149

3757

4197

4616

5018

24500

2094

3155

3764

4205

4625

5027

24550

2098

3161

3771

4213

4634

5037

24600

2102

3167

3779

4221

4643

5047

24650

2106

3173

3786

4229

4652

5056

24700

2110

3179

3793

4237

4661

5066

24750

2114

3185

3800

4245

4669

5076

24800

2118

3191

3807

4253

4678

5085

24850

2122

3197

3815

4261

4687

5095

24900

2126

3203

3822

4269

4696

5104

24950

2130

3209

3829

4277

4705

5114

25000

2134

3215

3836

4285

4714

5124

25050

2138

3221

3844

4293

4723

5133

25100

2142

3227

3851

4301

4731

5143

25150

2146

3233

3858

4309

4740

5153

25200

2150

3239

3865

4317

4749

5162

25250

2154

3245

3872

4325

4758

5172

25300

2158

3251

3880

4333

4767

5182

25350

2162

3257

3887

4342

4776

5191

25400

2166

3263

3894

4350

4785

5201

25450

2170

3269

3901

4358

4793

5210

25500

2174

3276

3908

4366

4802

5220

25550

2178

3282

3916

4374

4811

5230

25600

2182

3288

3923

4382

4820

5239

25650

2186

3294

3930

4390

4829

5249

25700

2190

3300

3937

4398

4838

5259

25750

2194

3306

3944

4406

4847

5268

25800

2198

3312

3952

4414

4855

5278

25850

2202

3318

3959

4422

4864

5287

25900

2206

3324

3966

4430

4873

5297

25950

2210

3330

3973

4438

4882

5307

26000

2214

3336

3981

4446

4891

5316

26050

2218

3342

3988

4454

4900

5326

26100

2222

3348

3995

4462

4909

5336

26150

2226

3354

4002

4470

4917

5345

26200

2230

3360

4009

4478

4926

5355

26250

2234

3366

4017

4486

4935

5365

26300

2238

3372

4024

4495

4944

5374

26350

2242

3378

4031

4503

4953

5384

26400

2247

3384

4038

4511

4962

5393

26450

2251

3390

4045

4519

4971

5403

26500

2255

3396

4053

4527

4979

5413

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(8) Computation of basic child support–shared physical care–split physical care–stipulations–deviations–basis for periodic updates. (a) Except in cases of shared physical care or split physical care as defined in paragraphs (h) and (i) of subsection (3) of this section, a total child support obligation is determined by adding each parent’s respective basic child support obligation, as determined through the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations specified in subsection (7) of this section, work-related net child care costs, extraordinary medical expenses, and extraordinary adjustments to the schedule of basic child support obligations. The parent receiving a child support payment shall be presumed to spend his or her total child support obligation directly on the children. The parent paying child support to the other parent shall owe his or her total child support obligation as child support to the other parent minus any ordered payments included in the calculations made directly on behalf of the children for work-related net child care costs, extraordinary medical expenses, or extraordinary adjustments to the schedule of basic child support obligations.

(b) Because shared physical care presumes that certain basic expenses for the children will be duplicated, an adjustment for shared physical care is made by multiplying the basic child support obligation by one and fifty hundredths (1.50). In cases of shared physical care, each parent’s adjusted basic child support obligation obtained by application of paragraph (b) of subsection (7) of this section shall first be divided between the parents in proportion to their respective adjusted gross incomes. Each parent’s share of the adjusted basic child support obligation shall then be multiplied by the percentage of time the children spend with the other parent to determine the theoretical basic child support obligation owed to the other parent. To these amounts shall be added each parent’s proportionate share of work-related net child care costs, extraordinary medical expenses, and extraordinary adjustments to the schedule of basic child support obligations. The parent owing the greater amount of child support shall owe the difference between the two amounts as a child support order minus any ordered direct payments made on behalf of the children for work-related net child care costs, extraordinary medical expenses, or extraordinary adjustments to the schedule of basic child support obligations. In no case, however, shall the amount of child support ordered to be paid exceed the amount of child support that would otherwise be ordered to be paid if the parents did not share physical custody.

(c)(I) In cases of split physical care, a child support obligation shall be computed separately for each parent based upon the number of children living with the other parent in accordance with subsections (7), (9), (10), and (11) of this section. The amount so determined shall be a theoretical support obligation due each parent for support of the child or children for whom he or she has primary physical custody. The obligations so determined shall then be offset, with the parent owing the larger amount owing the difference between the two amounts as a child support order.

(II) If the parents also share physical care as outlined in paragraph (b) of this subsection (8), an additional adjustment for shared physical care shall be made as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection (8).

(d) Stipulations presented to the court shall be reviewed by the court for approval. No hearing shall be required; however, the court shall use the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations to review the adequacy of child support orders negotiated by the parties as well as the financial affidavit that fully discloses the financial status of the parties as required for use of the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations.

(e) In an action to establish or modify child support, whether temporary or permanent, the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations set forth in subsection (7) of this section shall be used as a rebuttable presumption for the establishment or modification of the amount of child support. A court may deviate from the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations where its application would be inequitable, unjust, or inappropriate. Any such deviation shall be accompanied by written or oral findings by the court specifying the reasons for the deviation and the presumed amount under the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations without a deviation. These reasons may include, but are not limited to, instances where one of the parents spends substantially more time with the child than is reflected by a straight calculation of overnights, the extraordinary medical expenses incurred for treatment of either parent or a current spouse, extraordinary costs associated with parenting time, the gross disparity in income between the parents, the ownership by a parent of a substantial nonincome producing asset, consistent overtime not considered in gross income under sub-subparagraph (C) of subparagraph (II) of paragraph (a) of subsection (5) of this section, or income from employment that is in addition to a full-time job or that results in the employment of the obligor more than forty hours per week or more than what would otherwise be considered to be full-time employment. The existence of a factor enumerated in this section does not require the court to deviate from the guidelines and basic schedule of child support obligations but may be a factor to be considered in the decision to deviate. The court may deviate from the guidelines and basic schedule of child support obligations even if a factor enumerated in this section does not exist.

(f) The guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations may be used by the parties as the basis for periodic updates of child support obligations.

(g) For purposes of calculating child support, when two or more children are included in the child support worksheet calculation and the parties have a different number of overnights with two or more of the children, the number of overnights used to determine child support is determined by adding together the number of overnights for each child and then dividing that number by the number of children included in the child support worksheet calculation.

(9) Adjustments for child care costs. (a) Net child care costs incurred on behalf of the children due to employment or job search or the education of either parent shall be added to the basic obligation and shall be divided between the parents in proportion to their adjusted gross incomes.

(b) Child care costs shall not exceed the level required to provide quality care from a licensed source for the children. The value of the federal income tax credit for child care shall be subtracted from actual costs to arrive at a figure for net child care costs.

(10) Adjustments for health-care expenditures for children. (a) In orders issued pursuant to this section, the court shall also provide for the child’s or children’s current and future medical needs by ordering either parent or both parents to initiate medical or medical and dental insurance coverage for the child or children through currently effective medical or medical and dental insurance policies held by the parent or parents, purchase medical or medical and dental insurance for the child or children, or provide the child or children with current and future medical needs through some other manner. If a parent has been directed to provide insurance pursuant to this section and that parent’s spouse provides the insurance for the benefit of the child or children either directly or through employment, a credit on the child support worksheet shall be given to the parent in the same manner as if the premium were paid by the parent. At the same time, the court shall order payment of medical insurance or medical and dental insurance deductibles and copayments.

(a.5) If a child is covered by insurance, the parent securing the coverage, the employer providing the coverage, or the insurance provider shall provide, upon request by the policy holder or by court order, the insurance provider’s name, the insurance provider’s telephone number, the group and policy number, and the claim address to the non-policy holder. The information must be provided unless otherwise ordered by the court for good cause shown. This subsection (10) authorizes the release of information to the other party or parties. After notice to the party or parties of this obligation, the court has the authority to fine the parent securing coverage for failure to provide the required information.

(b) The payment of a premium to provide health insurance coverage on behalf of the children subject to the order shall be added to the basic child support obligation and shall be divided between the parents in proportion to their adjusted gross income.

(c) The amount to be added to the basic child support obligation shall be the actual amount of the total insurance premium that is attributable to the child who is the subject of the order. If this amount is not available or cannot be verified, the total cost of the premium should be divided by the total number of persons covered by the policy. The cost per person derived from this calculation shall be multiplied by the number of children who are the subject of the order and who are covered under the policy. This amount shall be added to the basic child support obligation and shall be divided between the parents in proportion to their adjusted gross incomes.

(d) After the total child support obligation is calculated and divided between the parents in proportion to their adjusted gross incomes, the amount calculated in paragraph (c) of this subsection (10) shall be deducted from the obligor’s share of the total child support obligation if the obligor is actually paying the premium. If the obligee is actually paying the premium, no further adjustment is necessary.

(e) Prior to allowing the health insurance adjustment, the parent requesting the adjustment must submit proof that the child or children have been enrolled in a health insurance plan and must submit proof of the cost of the premium. Any parent providing insurance coverage for the child pursuant to this section must notify the other party or parties and the delegate child support enforcement unit of any change or discontinuation of coverage as soon as practicable, but no later than fourteen days after the change.

(f) If a parent who is ordered by the court to provide medical or medical and dental insurance for the child or children has insurance that excludes coverage of the child or children because the child or children reside outside the geographic area covered by the insurance policy, the court shall order separate coverage for the child or children if the court determines coverage is available at a reasonable cost.

(g) Where the application of the premium payment on the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations results in a child support order of fifty dollars or less, or the premium payment is five percent or more of the parent’s gross income, the court or delegate child support enforcement unit may elect not to require the parent to include the child or children on an existing policy or to purchase insurance. The parent is, however, required to provide insurance when it becomes available at a reasonable cost.

(h)(I) Any extraordinary medical expenses incurred on behalf of the children shall be added to the basic child support obligation and shall be divided between the parents in proportion to their adjusted gross incomes.

(II) Extraordinary medical expenses are uninsured expenses, including copayments and deductible amounts, in excess of two hundred fifty dollars per child per calendar year. Extraordinary medical expenses include, but need not be limited to, such reasonable costs as are reasonably necessary for orthodontia, dental treatment, asthma treatments, physical therapy, vision care, professional counseling or psychiatric therapy for behavioral or mental health disorders, and any uninsured chronic health problem.

(III)(A) The party seeking reimbursement for an uninsured medical expense must provide proof of the expense to the reimbursing party within a reasonable time after incurring the expense. Absent extraordinary circumstances, failure to provide proof of the expense to the reimbursing party by July 1 of the year following the calendar year in which the expense was incurred results in a waiver of the reimbursement.

(B) The party seeking reimbursement may file a motion for judgment of uninsured medical expenses for that particular calendar year if the party fails to respond and reimburse the expenses or reach a payment arrangement with the requesting party within forty-nine days after the date the request was received. The motion must specify the amount of the expense incurred, the amount sought from the other party pursuant to subsection (10)(h)(I) of this section, and when and how the request for reimbursement was made to the other party. Any response to the motion must include any objection to the costs requested or proposed payment arrangements.

(11) Extraordinary adjustments to the schedule of basic child support obligations–periodic disability benefits. (a) By agreement of the parties or by order of court, the following reasonable and necessary expenses incurred on behalf of the child must be divided between the parents in proportion to their adjusted gross income:

(I) Any expenses for attending any special or private elementary or secondary schools to meet the particular educational needs of the child or public school mandatory school fees; and

(II) Any expenses for transportation of the child, or the child and an accompanying parent if the child is less than twelve years of age, between the homes of the parents.

(b) Any additional factors that actually diminish the basic needs of the child may be considered for deductions from the basic child support obligation.

(c)(I) If the noncustodial parent receives periodic disability benefits granted by the federal “Old-age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance Act”, 42 U.S.C. sec. 401 et seq., due to the disability of the noncustodial parent or receives employer-paid retirement benefits from the federal government due to the retirement of the noncustodial parent, the noncustodial parent shall notify the custodial party, and the delegate child support enforcement unit, if a party to the case, within sixty days after the noncustodial party receives notice of such benefits.

(II) Absent good cause shown, the custodial parent must apply for dependent benefits for the child or children within sixty days after the custodial parent receives notification pursuant to subsection (11)(c)(I) of this section, and shall cooperate with the appropriate federal agency in completing any application for benefits.

(III) In cases where the custodial parent receives periodic disability benefits granted by the federal “Old-age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance Act”, 42 U.S.C. sec. 401 et seq., on behalf of dependent children due to the disability of the noncustodial parent or receives employer-paid retirement benefits from the federal government on behalf of dependent children due to the retirement of the noncustodial parent, the noncustodial parent’s share of the total child support obligation as determined pursuant to subsection (8) of this section must be reduced in an amount equal to the amount of the benefits.

(d) In cases where the custodial parent receives a lump sum retroactive award for benefits granted by the federal old-age, survivors, or disability insurance benefits program, 42 U.S.C. sec. 7, on behalf of a dependent child due to the disability of the noncustodial parent, or receives a lump sum retroactive award for employer-paid retirement benefits from the federal government on behalf of a dependent child due to the retirement of the noncustodial parent, the lump sum award received by the custodial parent must be credited against any retroactive support judgment or any past-due child support obligation, regardless of whether the past-due obligation has been reduced to judgment owed by the noncustodial parent. This credit must not be given against any amounts owed by the noncustodial parent for debt as defined in section 14-14-104 or for any retroactive support or any arrearage that accrued prior to the date of eligibility for disability or retirement benefits as determined by the social security administration. Any lump sum retirement or disability payments due to the retirement or disability of the noncustodial parent, received by the custodial parent as a result of the retirement or disability of the noncustodial parent, paid for a period of time that precedes the date of such benefit date eligibility, or any amount in excess of the established child support order or judgment, must be deemed a gratuity to the child.

(12) Dependency exemptions. Unless otherwise agreed upon by the parties, the court shall allocate the right to claim dependent children for income tax purposes between the parties. These rights shall be allocated between the parties in proportion to their contributions to the costs of raising the children. A parent shall not be entitled to claim a child as a dependent if he or she has not paid all court-ordered child support for that tax year or if claiming the child as a dependent would not result in any tax benefit.

(13) Emancipation. (a) For child support orders entered on or after July 1, 1997, unless a court finds that a child is otherwise emancipated, emancipation occurs and child support terminates without either party filing a motion when the last or only child attains nineteen years of age unless one or more of the following conditions exist:

(I) The parties agree otherwise in a written stipulation after July 1, 1997;

(II) If the child is mentally or physically disabled, the court or the delegate child support enforcement unit may order child support, including payments for medical expenses or insurance or both, to continue beyond the age of nineteen;

(III) If the child is still in high school or an equivalent program, support continues until the end of the month following graduation. A child who ceases to attend high school prior to graduation and later reenrolls is entitled to support upon reenrollment and until the end of the month following graduation, but not beyond age twenty-one.

(IV) If the child marries, the child shall be considered emancipated as of the date of the marriage. If the marriage is annulled, dissolved, or declared invalid, child support may be reinstated.

(V) If the child enters into active military duty, the child shall be considered emancipated.

(b) Nothing in paragraph (a) of this subsection (13) or subsection (15) of this section shall preclude the parties from agreeing in a written stipulation or agreement on or after July 1, 1997, to continue child support beyond the age of nineteen or to provide for postsecondary education expenses for a child and to set forth the details of the payment of the expenses. If the stipulation or agreement is approved by the court and made part of a decree of dissolution of marriage or legal separation, the terms of the agreement shall be enforced as provided in section 14-10-112.

(14) Advisement to parties–annual exchange of information. (a) When a child support order is entered or modified, unless otherwise ordered by the court, the parties shall exchange information relevant to child support calculations on changes that have occurred since the previous child support order, and other appropriate information once a year or less often, for the purpose of updating and modifying the order without a court hearing. The parties shall use the approved standardized child support forms specified in subsection (4) of this section in exchanging financial information. The parents shall include the forms with any agreed modification or an agreement that a modification is not appropriate at the time. If the agreed amount departs from the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations, the parties shall furnish statements of explanation with the forms and shall file the documents with the court. The court shall review the agreement pursuant to this paragraph (a) and inform the parties by regular mail whether or not additional or corrected information is needed, or that the modification is granted, or that the modification is denied. If the parties cannot agree, a modification pursuant to this paragraph (a) shall not be entered; however, either party may move for or the court may schedule, upon its own motion, a modification hearing.

(b) Upon request of the noncustodial parent, the court may order the custodial parent to submit an annual update of financial information using the approved standardized child support forms, as specified in subsection (4) of this section, including information on the actual expenses relating to the children of the marriage for whom support has been ordered. The court shall not order the custodial parent to update the financial information pursuant to this paragraph (b) in circumstances where the noncustodial parent has failed to exercise parenting time rights or when child support payments are in arrears or where there is documented evidence of domestic violence, child abuse, or a violation of a protection order on the part of the noncustodial parent. The court may order the noncustodial parent to pay the costs involved in preparing an update to the financial information. If the noncustodial parent claims, based upon the information in the updated form, that the custodial parent is not spending the child support for the benefit of the children, the court may refer the parties to a mediator to resolve the differences. If there are costs for such mediation, the court shall order that the party requesting the mediation pay such costs.

<Text of (14)(c) effective July 1, 2024>

(c) In any status conference, administrative conference, or hearing in which child support is at issue, the court or the delegate child support unit shall verbally advise the parties that failure to pay child support ordered by the court or as a result of an administrative process action may result in enforcement actions and the addition of interest on arrears and that an agreement to modify child support is not effective until approved by the court, or delegate child support unit for administrative orders, and entered as an order.

(15) Postsecondary education. (a) This subsection (15) shall apply to all child support obligations established or modified as a part of any proceeding, including but not limited to articles 5, 6, and 10 of this title and articles 4 and 6 of title 19, C.R.S., prior to July 1, 1997. This subsection (15) shall not apply to child support orders established on or after July 1, 1997, which shall be governed by paragraph (a) of subsection (13) of this section.

(b) For child support orders entered prior to July 1, 1997, unless a court finds that a child is otherwise emancipated, emancipation occurs and child support terminates without either party filing a motion when the last or only child attains nineteen years of age unless one or more of the following conditions exist:

(I) The parties agree otherwise in a written stipulation after July 1, 1991;

(II) If the child is mentally or physically disabled, the court or the delegate child support enforcement unit may order child support, including payments for medical expenses or insurance or both, to continue beyond the age of nineteen;

(III) If the child is still in high school or an equivalent program, support continues until the end of the month following graduation, unless there is an order for postsecondary education, in which case support continues through postsecondary education as provided in this subsection (15). A child who ceases to attend high school prior to graduation and later reenrolls is entitled to support upon reenrollment and until the end of the month following graduation, but not beyond age twenty-one.

(IV) If the child marries, the child shall be considered emancipated as of the date of the marriage. If the marriage is annulled, dissolved, or declared invalid, child support may be reinstated.

(V) If the child enters into active military duty, the child shall be considered emancipated.

(c) If the court finds that it is appropriate for the parents to contribute to the costs of a program of postsecondary education, then the court shall terminate child support and enter an order requiring both parents to contribute a sum determined to be reasonable for the education expenses of the child, taking into account the resources of each parent and the child. In determining the amount of each parent’s contribution to the costs of a program of postsecondary education for a child, the court shall be limited to an amount not to exceed the amount listed under the schedule of basic child support obligations in paragraph (b) of subsection (7) of this section for the number of children receiving postsecondary education. If such an order is entered, the parents shall contribute to the total sum determined by the court in proportion to their adjusted gross incomes as defined in paragraph (a) of subsection (3) of this section. The amount of contribution that each parent is ordered to pay pursuant to this subsection (15) shall be subtracted from the amount of each parent’s gross income, respectively, prior to calculating the basic child support obligation for any remaining children pursuant to subsection (7) of this section.

(d) In no case shall the court issue orders providing for both child support and postsecondary education to be paid for the same time period for the same child regardless of the age of the child.

(e) Either parent or the child may move for an order at any time before the child attains the age of twenty-one years. The order for postsecondary education support may not extend beyond the earlier of the child’s twenty-first birthday or the completion of an undergraduate degree.

(f) Either a child seeking an order for postsecondary education expenses or on whose behalf postsecondary education expenses are sought, or the parent from whom the payment of postsecondary education expenses are sought, may request that the court order the child and the parent to seek mediation prior to a hearing on the issue of postsecondary education expenses. Mediation services shall be provided in accordance with section 13-22-305, C.R.S. The court may order the parties to seek mediation if the court finds that mediation is appropriate.

(g) The court may order the support paid directly to the educational institution, to the child, or in such other fashion as is appropriate to support the education of the child.

(h) A child shall not be considered emancipated solely by reason of living away from home while in postsecondary education. If the child resides in the home of one parent while attending school or during periods of time in excess of thirty days when school is not in session, the court may order payments from one parent to the other for room and board until the child attains the age of nineteen.

(i) If the court orders support pursuant to this subsection (15), the court or delegate child support enforcement unit may also order that the parents provide health insurance for the child or pay medical expenses of the child or both for the duration of the order. The order shall provide that these expenses be paid in proportion to their adjusted gross incomes as defined in subsection (3) of this section. The court or delegate child support enforcement unit shall order a parent to provide health insurance if the child is eligible for coverage as a dependent on that parent’s insurance policy or if health insurance coverage for the child is available at reasonable cost.

(j) An order for postsecondary education expenses entered between July 1, 1991, and July 1, 1997, may be modified pursuant to this subsection (15) to provide for postsecondary education expenses subject to the statutory provisions for determining the amount of a parent’s contribution to the costs of postsecondary education, the limitations on the amount of a parent’s contribution, and the changes to the definition of postsecondary education consistent with this section as it existed on July 1, 1994. An order for child support entered prior to July 1, 1997, that does not provide for postsecondary education expenses shall not be modified pursuant to this subsection (15).

(k) Postsecondary education support may be established or modified in the same manner as child support under this article.

(16) Child support commission. (a) The child support guidelines, including the schedule of basic child support obligations, and general child support issues must be reviewed at least once every four years by a child support commission, which commission is hereby created. After the periodic review described in this section, the commission shall submit a report to the governor and to the general assembly explaining the commission’s recommendations.

(b) As part of its review, the commission shall consider economic data on the cost of raising children and analyze case data on the application of, and deviations from, the guidelines and the schedule of basic child support obligations to be used in the commission’s review to ensure that deviations from the guidelines and schedule of basic child support obligations are limited. Further, as part of its review, the commission shall consider:

(I) Establishing an adequate standard of support for children, subject to the parents’ ability to pay;

(II) Making awards more equitable by ensuring more consistent treatment of persons in similar circumstances; and

(III) Improving the efficiency of the court process by promoting settlements and giving courts and the parties guidance on establishing levels of awards.

(c)(I) The child support commission consists of no more than twenty-one members. The commission is dedicated to including diverse perspectives in its recommendations.

(II) The governor shall appoint up to nineteen persons to the commission, who must include:

(A) Representatives of the judiciary and the Colorado bar association;

(B) The director of the division in the state department of human services, who is responsible for child support services, or the director’s designee;

(C) A director of a county department of human or social services;

(D) The child support liaison to the judicial department;

(E) Interested parties;

(F) A certified public accountant; and

(G) At least four parent representatives, at least two of whom are present or past obligors and two of whom are present or past obligees.

(III) In making appointments to the commission, the governor shall attempt to assure racial, economic, gender, and geographical diversity.

(IV) The remaining two members of the commission are a member of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and a member of the senate appointed by the president of the senate and must not be members of the same political party.

(d) Members of the child support commission shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses for travel and mileage incurred in connection with their duties. The child support commission is authorized, subject to appropriation, to incur expenses related to its work, including the costs associated with public hearings, printing, travel, and research.

(d.5) and (e) Deleted by Laws 2013, Ch. 103 § 1, eff. Jan. 1, 2014.

§ 14-10-116. Appointment in domestic relations cases--representation of child's best interest--legal representative of the child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The court may, upon the motion of either party or upon its own motion, appoint an attorney, in good standing and licensed to practice law in the state of Colorado, to serve as the legal representative of the child, representing the best interests of the child in any domestic relations proceeding that involves allocation of parental responsibilities. In no instance may the same person serve as both the child’s legal representative pursuant to this section and as the child and family investigator for the court pursuant to section 14-10-116.5. Within seven days after the appointment, the appointed person shall comply with the disclosure provisions of subsection (2.5) of this section.

(2)(a) The legal representative of the child, appointed pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, shall represent the best interests of the minor or dependent child, as described in section 14-10-124, with respect to the parenting time, the allocation of parental responsibilities, financial support for the child, the child’s property, or any other issue related to the child that is identified by the legal representative of the child or the appointing court. The legal representative of the child shall actively participate in all aspects of the case involving the child, within the bounds of the law. The legal representative of the child shall comply with the provisions set forth in the Colorado rules of professional conduct and any applicable provisions set forth in chief justice directives or other practice standards established by rule or directive of the chief justice pursuant to section 13-91-105(1)(c) concerning the duties or responsibilities of best interest representation in legal matters affecting children, including training requirements related to domestic violence and its effect on children, adults, and families. The legal representative of the child shall not be called as a witness in the case. While the legal representative of the child shall ascertain and consider the wishes of the child, the legal representative of the child is not required to adopt the child’s wishes in the legal representative of the child’s recommendation or advocacy for the child unless such wishes serve the best interests of the child, as described in section 14-10-124.

(b) The short title of this subsection (2) is “Julie’s law”.

(2.5)(a) Within seven days after his or her appointment, the appointed person shall disclose to each party, attorneys of record, and the court any familial, financial, or social relationship that the appointed person has or has had with the child, either party, the attorneys of record, or the judicial officer and, if a relationship exists, the nature of the relationship.

(b) Based on the disclosure required pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (2.5), the court may, in its discretion, terminate the appointment and appoint a different person in the proceedings. A party has seven days from the date of the disclosure to object to the appointment based upon information contained in the disclosure. If a party objects to the appointment, the court shall appoint a different person or confirm the appointment within seven days after the date of the party’s objection. If no party timely objects to the appointment, then the appointment is deemed confirmed.

(3)(a) The court shall enter an order for costs, fees, and disbursements in favor of the child’s legal representative appointed pursuant to subsection (1) of this section. The order shall be made against any or all of the parties; except that, if the responsible parties are determined to be indigent, the costs, fees, and disbursements shall be borne by the state.

(b) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation, prior to the entry of a decree of dissolution or legal separation, the court shall not enter an order requiring the state to bear the costs, fees, or disbursements related to the appointment of a child’s legal representative unless both parties are determined to be indigent after considering the combined income and assets of the parties.

(c) If the appointment of a child’s legal representative occurs in a case involving unmarried parties, including those proceedings that occur after the entry of a decree for dissolution of marriage or of legal separation, the court shall make every reasonable effort to apportion costs between the parties in a manner that will minimize the costs, fees, and disbursements that shall be borne by the state.

§ 14-10-123. Commencement of proceedings concerning allocation of parental responsibilities--jurisdiction--automatic temporary injunction--enforcement--definition

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities is commenced in the district court or as otherwise provided by law:

(a) By a parent:

(I) By filing a petition for dissolution or legal separation; or

(II) By filing a petition seeking the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child in the county where the child is permanently resident or where the child is found; or

(III) By filing a motion seeking the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child in an existing juvenile court case filed pursuant to article 4 or 6 of title 19 or article 13.5 of title 26; or

(b) By a person other than a parent, by filing a petition seeking the allocation of parental responsibilities for the child in the county where the child is permanently resident or where the child is found, but only if the child is not in the physical care of one of the child’s parents;

(c) By a person other than a parent who has had the physical care of a child for a period of one hundred eighty-two days or more, if such action is commenced within one hundred eighty-two days after the termination of such physical care; or

(d) By a parent or person other than a parent who has been granted custody of a child or who has been allocated parental responsibilities through a juvenile court order entered pursuant to section 19-1-104(6), C.R.S., by filing a certified copy of the juvenile court order in the county where the child is permanently resident. Such order shall be treated in the district court as any other decree issued in a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities.

(1.3) As used in this section, excluding subsection (1.5) of this section:

(a) “Child” has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-1-103.

(b) “Parent” has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-1-103.

(1.5)(a) For purposes of this subsection (1.5) only, “child” means an unmarried individual who has not attained twenty-one years of age.

(b) The court may enter an order for allocation of parental responsibilities for a child, as defined in subsection (1.5)(a) of this section, and a determination of whether the child shall be reunified with a parent or parents, when the requirements of subsection (1) of this section are met, the order is in the child’s best interests, and:

(I) The child has not attained twenty-one years of age;

(II) The child is residing with and dependent upon a caregiver; and

(III) A request is made for findings from the court to establish the child’s eligibility for classification as a special immigrant juvenile pursuant to 8 U.S.C. sec. 1101(a)(27)(J).

(c) If a request is made for findings from the court to establish the child’s eligibility for classification as a special immigrant juvenile under federal law and the court determines that there is sufficient evidence to support the findings, the court shall enter an order, including factual findings and conclusions of law, determining that:

(I) The child has been placed under the custody of an individual appointed by the court pursuant to an order for allocation of parental responsibilities;

(II) Reunification of the child with one or both parents is not viable due to abuse, neglect, abandonment, or a similar basis found under state law; and

(III) It is not in the best interests of the child to be returned to the child’s or parents’ previous country of nationality or country of last habitual residence.

(1.8) The court shall make all necessary persons parties to the proceeding pursuant to the requirements of section 19-4-110 and shall make a determination pursuant to section 19-4-105 as to legal parentage.

(2) Except for a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities commenced pursuant to paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of this section, notice of a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities shall be given to the child’s parent, guardian, and custodian or person allocated parental responsibilities, who may appear and be heard and may file a responsive pleading. The court may, upon a showing of good cause, permit the intervention of other interested parties.

(2.5) Upon the filing of a petition pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, each party shall provide to the court, in the manner prescribed by the court, his or her social security number and the social security number of each child named in the petition.

(3)(a) Upon the filing of a petition concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities pursuant to this section and upon personal service of the petition and summons on a respondent or upon waiver and acceptance of service by a respondent, a temporary injunction shall be in effect against both parties:

(I) Enjoining each party from molesting or disturbing the peace of the other party;

(II) Restraining each party from removing a minor child who is the subject of the proceeding from the state without the consent of all other parties or an order of the court modifying the injunction; and

(III) Restraining each party, without at least fourteen days’ advance notification and the written consent of all other parties or an order of the court modifying the injunction, from canceling, modifying, terminating, or allowing to lapse for nonpayment of premiums a policy of health insurance or life insurance that provides coverage to a minor child who is the subject of the proceeding or that names the minor child as a beneficiary of a policy.

(b) The provisions of the temporary injunction shall be printed upon the summons and the petition. The temporary injunction shall be in effect upon personal service of the petition and summons on a respondent or upon waiver and acceptance of service by a respondent and shall remain in effect against each party until the court enters the final decree, dismisses the petition, or enters a further order modifying the injunction. A party may apply to the court for further temporary orders pursuant to section 14-10-125, an expanded temporary injunction, or modification or revocation of the temporary injunction.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection (3), the temporary injunction described in this subsection (3) shall not apply to a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities commenced pursuant to paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of this section or to a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities commenced by a parent that is governed by the automatic temporary injunction pursuant to section 14-10-107(4)(b).

(d) For purposes of enforcing the automatic temporary injunction that becomes effective in accordance with this subsection (3), if the respondent shows a duly authorized peace officer, as described in section 16-2.5-101, C.R.S., a copy of the petition and summons filed and issued pursuant to this section, or if the petitioner shows the peace officer a copy of the petition and summons filed and issued pursuant to this section together with a certified copy of the affidavit of service of process or a certified copy of the waiver and acceptance of service, and the peace officer has cause to believe that a violation of the part of the automatic temporary injunction that enjoins a party from molesting or disturbing the peace of the other party has occurred, the peace officer shall use every reasonable means to enforce that part of the injunction against the petitioner or respondent, as applicable. A peace officer shall not be held civilly or criminally liable for his or her actions pursuant to this subsection (3) if the peace officer acts in good faith and without malice.

§ 14-10-123.3. Requests for parental responsibility for a child by grandparents

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Whenever a grandparent seeks parental responsibility for his or her grandchild pursuant to the provisions of this article, the court entering such order shall consider any credible evidence of the grandparent’s past conduct of child abuse or neglect. Such evidence may include, but shall not be limited to, medical records, school records, police reports, information contained in records and reports of child abuse or neglect, and court records received by the court pursuant to section 19-1-307(2)(f), C.R.S.
 

§ 14-10-123.4. Rights of children in matters relating to parental responsibilities

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly hereby declares that children have certain rights in the determination of matters relating to parental responsibilities, including:

(a) The right to have such determinations based upon the best interests of the child;

(b) The right to be emotionally, mentally, and physically safe when in the care of either parent; and

(c) The right to reside in and visit in homes that are free of domestic violence and child abuse or neglect.

§ 14-10-123.6. Required notice of prior restraining orders to prevent domestic abuse--proceedings concerning parental responsibilities relating to a child--resources for family services

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that domestic violence is a pervasive problem in society and that a significant portion of domestic violence in society occurs in or near the home. The general assembly further recognizes research demonstrating that children in a home where domestic violence occurs are at greater risk of emotional, psychological, and physical harm. Studies have found that eighty to ninety percent of the children living in homes with domestic violence are aware of the violence. The general assembly finds that emerging research has established that these children are at greater risk of the following: Psychological, social, and behavioral problems; higher rates of academic problems; more physical illnesses, particularly stress-associated disorders; and a greater propensity to exhibit aggressive and violent behavior, sometimes carrying violent and violence-tolerant roles to their adult relationships. Studies have also noted that children are affected to varying degrees by witnessing violence in the home, and each child should be assessed on an independent basis. Accordingly, the general assembly determines that it is in the best interests of the children of the state of Colorado for the courts to advise the parents or guardians of children affected by domestic violence about the availability of resources and services and for such persons to be provided with information concerning the resources and services available to aid in the positive development of their children. It is the intent of the general assembly that such information would increase the awareness of the possible effects of domestic violence on children in the home, while providing the parents and legal guardians of these children with a comprehensive resource of available children’s services as well as potential financial resources to assist parents and legal guardians seeking to retain services for their children affected by domestic violence.

(2) When filing a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities relating to a child pursuant to this article, the filing party shall have a duty to disclose to the court the existence of any prior temporary or permanent restraining orders to prevent domestic abuse issued pursuant to article 14 of title 13, C.R.S., and any emergency protection orders issued pursuant to section 13-14-103, C.R.S., entered against either party by any court within two years prior to the filing of the proceeding. The disclosure required pursuant to this section shall address the subject matter of the previous restraining orders or emergency protection orders, including the case number and jurisdiction issuing such orders.

(3) After the filing of the petition, the court shall advise the parties concerning domestic violence services and potential financial resources that may be available and shall strongly encourage the parties to obtain such services for their children, in appropriate cases. If the parties’ children participate in such services, the court shall apportion the costs of such services between the parties as it deems appropriate.

(4) The parties to a domestic relations petition filed pursuant to this article shall receive information concerning domestic violence services and potential financial resources that may be available.

 

§ 14-10-123.7. Parental education--legislative declaration

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly recognizes research that documents the negative impact divorce and separation can have on children when the parents continue the marital conflict, expose the children to this conflict, or place the children in the middle of the conflict or when one parent drops out of the child’s life. This research establishes that children of divorce or separation may exhibit a decreased ability to function academically, socially, and psychologically because of the stress of the divorce or separation process. The general assembly also finds that, by understanding the process of divorce and its impact on both adults and children, parents can more effectively help and support their children during this time of family reconfiguration. Accordingly, the general assembly finds that it is in the best interests of children to authorize courts to establish, or contract with providers for the establishment of, educational programs for separating, divorcing, and divorced parents with minor children. The intent of these programs is to educate parents about the divorce process and its impact on adults and children and to teach coparenting skills and strategies so that parents may continue to parent their children in a cooperative manner.

(2) A court may order a parent whose child is under eighteen years of age to attend a program designed to provide education concerning the impact of separation and divorce on children in cases in which the parent of a minor is a named party in a dissolution of marriage proceeding, a legal separation proceeding, a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities, parenting time proceedings, or postdecree proceedings involving the allocation of parental responsibilities or parenting time or proceedings in which the parent is the subject of a protection order issued pursuant to this article.

(3) Each judicial district, or combination of judicial districts as designated by the chief justice of the Colorado supreme court, may establish an educational program for divorcing and separating parents who are parties to any of the types of proceedings specified in subsection (2) of this section or arrange for the provision of such educational programs by private providers through competitively negotiated contracts. The educational program shall inform parents about the divorce process and its impact on adults and children and shall teach parents coparenting skills and strategies so that they may continue to parent their children in a cooperative manner. Any such educational program shall be administered and monitored by the implementing judicial district or districts and shall be paid for by the participating parents in accordance with each parent’s ability to pay.
 

§ 14-10-123.8. Access to records

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Access to information pertaining to a minor child, including but not limited to medical, dental, and school records, shall not be denied to any party allocated parental responsibilities, unless otherwise ordered by the court for good cause shown.

§ 14-10-124. Best interests of child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Legislative declaration. While co-parenting is not appropriate in all circumstances following dissolution of marriage or legal separation, the general assembly finds and declares that, in most circumstances, it is in the best interest of all parties to encourage frequent and continuing contact between each parent and the minor children of the marriage after the parents have separated or dissolved their marriage. In order to effectuate this goal when appropriate, the general assembly urges parents to share the rights and responsibilities of child-rearing and to encourage the love, affection, and contact between the children and the parents.

(1.3) Definitions. For purposes of this section and section 14-10-129(2)(c), unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Domestic violence” means an act of violence or a threatened act of violence upon a person with whom the actor is or has been involved in an intimate relationship, and may include any act or threatened act against a person or against property, including an animal, when used as a method of coercion, control, punishment, intimidation, or revenge directed against a person with whom the actor is or has been involved in an intimate relationship.

(b) “Intimate relationship” means a relationship between spouses, former spouses, past or present unmarried couples, or persons who are both parents of the same child regardless of whether the persons have been married or have lived together at any time.

(c) “Sexual assault” has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-1-103.

(1.5) Allocation of parental responsibilities. The court shall determine the allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibilities, in accordance with the best interests of the child giving paramount consideration to the child’s safety and the physical, mental, and emotional conditions and needs of the child as follows:

(a) Determination of parenting time. The court, upon the motion of either party or upon its own motion, may make provisions for parenting time that the court finds are in the best interests of the child, with the child’s safety always paramount, unless the court finds, after a hearing, that parenting time by the party would endanger the child’s physical health or significantly impair the child’s emotional development. In addition to a finding that parenting time would endanger the child’s physical health or significantly impair the child’s emotional development, in any order imposing or continuing a parenting time restriction, the court shall enumerate the specific factual findings supporting the restriction, including findings related to domestic violence, child abuse, and child sexual abuse, and may enumerate the conditions that the restricted party could fulfill in order to seek modification in the parenting plan. When a claim of child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault where there is also a claim that the child was conceived as a result of the sexual assault has been made to the court, or the court has reason to believe that a party has committed child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault where there is also a claim that the child was conceived as a result of the sexual assault, prior to determining parenting time, the court shall follow the provisions of subsection (4) of this section. In determining the best interests of the child for purposes of parenting time, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including:

(I) The wishes of the child’s parents as to parenting time;

(II) The wishes of the child if he or she is sufficiently mature to express reasoned and independent preferences as to the parenting time schedule;

(III) The interaction and interrelationship of the child with his or her parents, his or her siblings, and any other person who may significantly affect the child’s best interests;

(III.5) Any report related to domestic violence that is submitted to the court by a child and family investigator, if one is appointed pursuant to section 14-10-116.5; a professional parental responsibilities evaluator, if one is appointed pursuant to section 14-10-127; or a legal representative of the child, if one is appointed pursuant to section 14-10-116. The court may consider other testimony regarding domestic violence from the parties, experts, therapists for any parent or child, the department of human services, parenting time supervisors, school personnel, or other lay witnesses.

(IV) The child’s adjustment to his or her home, school, and community;

(V) The mental and physical health of all individuals involved, except that a disability alone shall not be a basis to deny or restrict parenting time;

(VI) The ability of the parties to encourage the sharing of love, affection, and contact between the child and the other party; except that, if the court determines that a party is acting to protect the child from witnessing domestic violence or from being a victim of child abuse or neglect or domestic violence, the party’s protective actions shall not be considered with respect to this factor;

(VII) Whether the past pattern of involvement of the parties with the child reflects a system of values, time commitment, and mutual support;

(VIII) The physical proximity of the parties to each other as this relates to the practical considerations of parenting time;

(IX) Repealed by Laws 2013, Ch. 218, § 2, eff. July 1, 2013.

(X) Repealed by Laws 2013, Ch. 218, § 2, eff. July 1, 2013.

(XI) The ability of each party to place the needs of the child ahead of his or her own needs.

(b) Allocation of decision-making responsibility. The court, upon the motion of either party or its own motion, shall allocate the decision-making responsibilities between the parties based upon the best interests of the child. In determining decision-making responsibility, the court may allocate the decision-making responsibility with respect to each issue affecting the child mutually between both parties or individually to one or the other party or any combination thereof. When a claim of child abuse or neglect or domestic violence has been made to the court, or the court has reason to believe that a party has committed child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault where there is also a claim that the child in question was conceived as a result of the sexual assault, prior to allocating decision-making responsibility, the court shall follow the provisions of subsection (4) of this section. In determining the best interests of the child for purposes of allocating decision-making responsibilities, the court shall consider, in addition to the factors set forth in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1.5), all relevant factors including:

(I) Credible evidence of the ability of the parties to cooperate and to make decisions jointly;

(II) Whether the past pattern of involvement of the parties with the child reflects a system of values, time commitment, and mutual support that would indicate an ability as mutual decision makers to provide a positive and nourishing relationship with the child;

(III) Whether an allocation of mutual decision-making responsibility on any one or a number of issues will promote more frequent or continuing contact between the child and each of the parties.

(IV) Repealed by Laws 2013, Ch. 218, § 2, eff. July 1, 2013.

(V) Repealed by Laws 2013, Ch. 218, § 2, eff. July 1, 2013.

(1.7) Pursuant to section 14-10-123.4, children have the right to have the determination of matters relating to parental responsibilities based upon the best interests of the child. In contested hearings on final orders regarding the allocation of parental responsibilities, the court shall make findings on the record concerning the factors the court considered and the reasons why the allocation of parental responsibilities is in the best interests of the child.

(2) The court shall not consider conduct of a party that does not affect that party’s relationship to the child.

(3) In determining parenting time or decision-making responsibilities, the court shall not presume that any person is better able to serve the best interests of the child because of that person’s sex.

(3.5) A request by either party for genetic testing shall not prejudice the requesting party in the allocation of parental responsibilities pursuant to subsection (1.5) of this section.

(4)(a) When a claim of child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault where there is also a claim that the child was conceived as a result of the sexual assault has been made to the court, or the court has reason to believe that a party has committed child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault that resulted in the conception of the child, prior to allocating parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibility, and prior to considering the factors set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (1.5) of this section, the court shall consider the following factors:

(I) Whether one of the parties has committed an act of child abuse or neglect as defined in section 18-6-401, C.R.S., or as defined under the law of any state, which factor must be supported by a preponderance of the evidence. If the court finds that one of the parties has committed child abuse or neglect, then it shall not be in the best interests of the child to allocate mutual decision-making with respect to any issue over the objection of the other party or the legal representative of the child.

(II) Whether one of the parties has committed an act of domestic violence, has engaged in a pattern of domestic violence, or has a history of domestic violence, which factor must be supported by a preponderance of the evidence. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that one of the parties has committed domestic violence:

(A) It shall not be in the best interests of the child to allocate mutual decision-making responsibility over the objection of the other party or the legal representative of the child, unless the court finds that there is credible evidence of the ability of the parties to make decisions cooperatively in the best interest of the child in a manner that is safe for the abused party and the child; and

(B) The court shall not appoint a parenting coordinator solely to ensure that mutual decision-making can be accomplished.

(III) Whether one of the parties has committed an act of sexual assault resulting in the conception of the child, which factor must be supported by a preponderance of the evidence. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that one of the parties has committed sexual assault and the child was conceived as a result of the sexual assault, there is a rebuttable presumption that it is not in the best interests of the child to allocate sole or split decision-making authority to the party found to have committed sexual assault or to allocate mutual decision-making between a party found to have committed sexual assault and the party who was sexually assaulted with respect to any issue.

(IV) If one of the parties is found by a preponderance of the evidence to have committed sexual assault resulting in the conception of the child, whether it is in the best interests of the child to prohibit or limit the parenting time of that party with the child.

(b) The court shall consider the additional factors set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (1.5) of this section in light of any finding of child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault resulting in the conception of a child pursuant to this subsection (4).

(c) If a party is absent or leaves home because of an act or threatened act of domestic violence committed by the other party, such absence or leaving shall not be a factor in determining the best interests of the child.

(d) When the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that one of the parties has committed child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault resulting in the conception of the child, the court shall consider, as the primary concern, the safety and well-being of the child and the abused party.

(e) When the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that one of the parties has committed child abuse or neglect, domestic violence, or sexual assault resulting in the conception of the child, in formulating or approving a parenting plan, the court shall consider conditions on parenting time that ensure the safety of the child and of the abused party. In addition to any provisions set forth in subsection (7) of this section that are appropriate, the parenting plan in these cases may include, but is not limited to, the following provisions:

(I) An order limiting contact between the parties to contact that the court deems is safe and that minimizes unnecessary communication between the parties;

(II) An order that requires the exchange of the child for parenting time to occur in a protected setting determined by the court;

(III) An order for supervised parenting time;

(IV) An order restricting overnight parenting time;

(V) An order that restricts the party who has committed domestic violence, sexual assault resulting in the conception of the child, or child abuse or neglect from possessing or consuming alcohol or controlled substances during parenting time or for twenty-four hours prior to the commencement of parenting time;

(VI) An order directing that the address of the child or of any party remain confidential;

(VII) An order that imposes any other condition on one or more parties that the court determines is necessary to protect the child, another party, or any other family or household member of a party; and

(VIII) An order that requires child support payments to be made through the child support registry to avoid the need for any related contact between the parties and an order that the payments be treated as a nondisclosure of information case.

(f) When the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that one of the parties has committed domestic violence, the court may order the party to submit to a domestic violence evaluation. If the court determines, based upon the results of the evaluation, that treatment is appropriate, the court may order the party to participate in domestic violence treatment. At any time, the court may require a subsequent evaluation to determine whether additional treatment is necessary. If the court awards parenting time to a party who has been ordered to participate in domestic violence treatment, the court may order the party to obtain a report from the treatment provider concerning the party’s progress in treatment and addressing any ongoing safety concerns regarding the party’s parenting time. The court may order the party who has committed domestic violence to pay the costs of the domestic violence evaluations and treatment.

(5) Repealed by Laws 1987, H.B.1019, § 6, eff. July 1, 1987.

(6) In the event of a medical emergency, either party shall be allowed to obtain necessary medical treatment for the minor child or children without being in violation of the order allocating decision-making responsibility or in contempt of court.

(7) In order to implement an order allocating parental responsibilities, both parties may submit a parenting plan or plans for the court’s approval that shall address both parenting time and the allocation of decision-making responsibilities. If no parenting plan is submitted or if the court does not approve a submitted parenting plan, the court, on its own motion, shall formulate a parenting plan that shall address parenting time and the allocation of decision-making responsibilities. When issues relating to parenting time are contested, and in other cases where appropriate, the parenting plan must be as specific as possible to clearly address the needs of the family as well as the current and future needs of the aging child. In general, the parenting plan may include, but is not limited to, the following provisions:

(a) A designation of the type of decision-making awarded;

(b) A practical schedule of parenting time for the child, including holidays and school vacations;

(c) A procedure for the exchanges of the child for parenting time, including the location of the exchanges and the party or parties responsible for the child’s transportation;

(d) A procedure for communicating with each other about the child, including methods for communicating and frequency of communication;

(e) A procedure for communication between a parent and the child outside of that parent’s parenting time, including methods for communicating and frequency of communication; and

(f) Any other orders in the best interests of the child.(8) The court may order mediation, pursuant to section 13-22-311, C.R.S., to assist the parties in formulating or modifying a parenting plan or in implementing a parenting plan specified in subsection (7) of this section and may allocate the cost of said mediation between the parties.

§ 14-10-124.4. Family time for grandparents or great-grandparents--legislative declaration--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) The general assembly finds and declares that:

(I) A close relationship between grandparents or great-grandparents and grandchildren or great-grandchildren can be beneficial for the health and well-being of grandchildren or great-grandchildren; and

(II) Grandparents or great-grandparents may provide acceptance, patience, love, stability, wisdom, and support to grandchildren or great-grandchildren.

(b) The general assembly further finds that it may be in the best interests of grandchildren or great-grandchildren for grandparents or great-grandparents to be granted grandparent or great-grandparent family time because of the positive effects the relationship may have on a grandchild’s or great-grandchild’s health and well-being.

(2) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Grandparent” means a person who is the parent of a child’s father or mother, who is related to the child by blood, in whole or by half, adoption, or marriage; except that “grandparent” does not include the parent of a child’s legal father or mother whose parental rights have been terminated in accordance with sections 19-5-101 and 19-1-104(1)(d).

(b) “Great-grandparent” means a person who is the grandparent of a child’s father or mother, who is related to the child by blood, in whole or by half, adoption, or marriage; except that “great-grandparent” does not include the grandparent of a child’s legal father or mother whose parental rights have been terminated in accordance with sections 19-5-101 and 19-1-104(1)(d).

(c) “Grandparent or great-grandparent family time” or “grandparent family time” means any form of contact or engagement between grandparents or great-grandparents and their grandchildren or great-grandchildren for the purposes of preserving and strengthening family ties.

(3) Any grandparent or great-grandparent of a child may, in the manner set forth in this section, seek a court order granting reasonable grandparent family time with a grandchild or great-grandchild when there is or has been a child custody case or a case concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to that child. Because cases arise that do not directly deal with child custody or the allocation of parental responsibilities but nonetheless have an impact on the custody of, or parental responsibilities with respect to a child, for the purposes of this section, a “case concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child” includes any of the following, whether or not child custody was or parental responsibilities were specifically an issue:

(a) The marriage of the child’s parents has been declared invalid or has been dissolved by a court or a court has entered a decree of legal separation with regard to such marriage;

(b) Legal custody of or parental responsibilities with respect to the child have been given or allocated to a party other than the child’s parent or the child has been placed outside of and does not reside in the home of the child’s parent, excluding any child who has been placed for adoption or whose adoption has been legally finalized; or

(c) The child’s parent, who is the child of the grandparent or grandchild of the great-grandparent, has died.

(4) A party seeking a grandparent family time order shall submit, together with the party’s petition for grandparent family time, to the district court for the district in which the child resides, an affidavit setting forth facts supporting the requested order and shall give notice, together with a copy of the party’s affidavit, to each party involved in the allocation of parental responsibilities proceedings as determined by a court pursuant to this article 10. The party with legal custody or parental responsibilities as determined by a court pursuant to this article 10, may file opposing affidavits. If neither party requests a hearing, the court shall enter an order granting grandparent family time to the petitioning grandparent or great-grandparent only upon a finding that the grandparent family time is in the best interests of the child. A hearing must be held if either party so requests or if it appears to the court that it is in the best interests of the child that a hearing be held. At the hearing, parties submitting affidavits are allowed an opportunity to be heard. If, at the conclusion of the hearing, the court finds it is in the best interests of the child to grant grandparent family time to the petitioning grandparent or great-grandparent, the court shall enter an order granting grandparent family time. In determining the best interests of the child for the purpose of grandparent or great-grandparent family time, the court shall presume the parental determination regarding grandparent time is in the best interests of the child. A grandparent or great-grandparent may overcome the presumption upon a showing by clear and convincing evidence that the grandparent family time is in the child’s best interests. In making this determination, the court shall consider the factors described in section 14-10-124(1.5)(a).

(5) The court may appoint a legal representative of a child pursuant to section 14-10-116 to represent the best interests of the child in a proceeding pursuant to subsection (4) of this section.

(6) A grandparent or great-grandparent shall not file a petition seeking an order granting grandparent family time more than once every two years absent a showing of good cause. If the court finds there is good cause to file more than one such petition, it shall allow such additional petition to be filed and shall consider it. The court may order reasonable attorney fees to the prevailing party. The court may not make any order restricting the movement of the child if such restriction is solely for the purpose of allowing the grandparent or great-grandparent the opportunity to exercise the grandparent’s or great-grandparent’s family time with the grandchild or great-grandchild.

(7) The court may establish, modify, or terminate grandparent family time if the order would serve the best interests of the child.

(8) An order establishing, granting, or denying parenting time rights to the parent of a child does not affect grandparent family time granted to a grandparent or great-grandparent as long as the grandparent family time is in the best interests of the child pursuant to this section.

§ 14-10-124.5. Disputes concerning grandparent or great-grandparent family time

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Upon a verified motion by a grandparent or great-grandparent who has been granted grandparent or great-grandparent family time or upon the court’s own motion alleging that the person with legal custody or parental responsibilities of the child as determined by a court pursuant to this article 10 with whom grandparent family time has been granted is not complying with a grandparent or great-grandparent family time order or schedule, the court shall determine from the verified motion, and response to the motion, if any, whether there has been or is likely to be a substantial and continuing noncompliance with the grandparent or great-grandparent family time order or schedule and either:

(a) Deny the motion, if there is an inadequate allegation; or

(b) Set the matter for hearing with notice to the grandparent or great-grandparent and the person with legal custody or parental responsibilities of the child as determined by the court of the time and place of the hearing; or

(c) Require said parties to seek mediation and report back to the court on the results of the mediation within sixty days. Mediation services must be provided in accordance with section 13-22-305. At the end of the mediation period, the court may approve an agreement reached by the parties or shall set the matter for hearing.

(2) After the hearing, if a court finds that the person with legal custody or parental responsibilities of the child as determined by the court has not complied with the grandparent or great-grandparent family time order or schedule and has violated the court order, the court, in the best interests of the child, may issue orders which may include but need not be limited to:

(a) Imposing additional terms and conditions which are consistent with the court’s previous order;

(b) Modifying the previous order to meet the best interests of the child;

(c) Requiring the violator to post bond or security to insure future compliance;

(d) Requiring that makeup grandparent or great-grandparent family time be provided for the aggrieved grandparent or great-grandparent and child under the following conditions:

(I) That such grandparent or great-grandparent family time is of the same type and duration of grandparent or great-grandparent family time as that which was denied, including but not limited to grandparent or great-grandparent family time during weekends, on holidays, and on weekdays and during the summer;

(II) That such grandparent or great-grandparent family time is made up within one year after the noncompliance occurs; or

(III) That such grandparent or great-grandparent family time is in the manner chosen by the aggrieved grandparent or great-grandparent if it is in the best interests of the child;

(e) Finding the person who did not comply with the grandparent or great-grandparent family time schedule in contempt of court and imposing a fine or jail sentence; and

(f) Awarding to the aggrieved party, when appropriate, actual expenses, including attorney fees, court costs, and expenses incurred by a grandparent or great-grandparent because of the other person’s failure to provide or exercise court-ordered grandparent or great-grandparent family time. Nothing in this section precludes a party’s right to a separate and independent legal action in tort.

(3) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Grandparent” has the same meaning as set forth in section 14-10-124.4.

(b) “Great-grandparent” has the same meaning as set forth in section 14-10-124.4.

(c) “Grandparent or great-grandparent family time” or “grandparent family time” has the same meaning as set forth in section 14-10-124.4.

§ 14-10-125. Temporary orders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A party to a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities may move for a temporary order. The court may allocate temporary parental responsibilities, including temporary parenting time and temporary decision-making responsibility, after a hearing.

(2) If a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation is dismissed, any temporary order concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities is vacated unless a parent or the person allocated parental responsibilities moves that the proceeding continue as a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities and the court finds, after a hearing, that the circumstances of the parents and the best interests of the child require that a decree concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities be issued.

(3) If a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities commenced in the absence of a petition for dissolution of marriage or legal separation is dismissed, any temporary order concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities is vacated.

§ 14-10-126. Interviews

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The court may interview the child in chambers to ascertain the child’s wishes as to the allocation of parental responsibilities. The court may permit counsel to be present at the interview. The court shall cause a record of the interview to be made, and it shall be made part of the record in the case.

(2) The court may seek the advice of professional personnel whether or not they are employed on a regular basis by the court. The advice given shall be in writing and shall be made available by the court to counsel of record, parties, and other expert witnesses upon request, but it shall otherwise be considered confidential and shall be sealed and shall not be open to inspection, except by consent of the court. Counsel may call for cross-examination any professional personnel consulted by the court.

§ 14-10-127. Evaluation and reports--disclosure

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a)(I)(A) In all proceedings concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child, the court may, upon motion of either party or upon its own motion, order any county or district department of human or social services or a licensed mental health professional qualified pursuant to subsection (4) of this section and referred to in this section as an “evaluator” to perform an evaluation and file a written report concerning the disputed issues relating to the allocation of parental responsibilities for the child, unless the motion by either party is made for the purpose of delaying the proceedings. The purpose of the evaluation and report is to assist in determining the best interests of the child, with the child’s safety always paramount. The evaluation and subsequent report must focus on the best interests of the child and the factors set forth in sections 14-10-124 and 14-10-129 in any post-decree or relocation case. In addition, the evaluator shall assess a party’s parenting attributes as those attributes relate to the best interests of the child, and consider any psychological needs of the child when making recommendations concerning decision making and parenting time.

(B) Any court or any personnel of a county or district department of human or social services appointed by the court to do an evaluation pursuant to this section must be qualified pursuant to subsection (4) of this section and be selected from an eligibility roster established pursuant to applicable chief justice directive.

(C) When a mental health professional performs the evaluation, the court shall appoint or approve the selection of the mental health professional as the evaluator. Within seven days after the appointment, the evaluator shall comply with the disclosure provisions of subsection (1.2) of this section. The court shall, at the time of the evaluator’s appointment, order one or more of the parties to deposit a reasonable sum with the court to pay the cost of the evaluation. The court may order the reasonable charge for the evaluation and report to be assessed as costs between the parties at the time the evaluation is completed.

(I.3) In determining whether to order an evaluation pursuant to this section, in addition to any other considerations the court deems relevant, the court shall consider:

(A) Whether an investigation by a child and family investigator pursuant to section 14-10-116.5 would be sufficient or appropriate given the scope or nature of the disputed issues relating to the allocation of parental responsibilities for the child;

(B) Whether an evaluation pursuant to this section is necessary to assist the court in determining the best interests of the child; and

(C) Whether involving the child in an evaluation pursuant to this section is in the best interests of the child.

(I.5) A party may request a supplemental evaluation to the evaluation ordered pursuant to subsection (1)(a)(I) of this section. The court shall appoint another qualified evaluator to perform the supplemental evaluation at the initial expense of the moving party. The evaluator appointed to perform the supplemental evaluation shall comply with the disclosure provisions of subsection (1.2) of this section. The court shall not order a supplemental evaluation if it determines that any of the following applies, based on motion and supporting affidavits:

(A) Such motion is interposed for purposes of delay;

(B) A party objects, and the party who objects or the child has a physical or mental condition that would make it harmful for such party or the child to participate in the supplemental evaluation;

(C) The purpose of such motion is to harass or oppress the other party;

(D) The moving party has failed or refused to cooperate with the first evaluation;

(E) The weight of the evidence other than the evaluation concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities or parenting time by the mental health professional demonstrates that a second evaluation would not be of benefit to the court in determining the allocation of parental responsibilities and parenting time; or

(F) In addition to the evaluation ordered pursuant to subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a), there has been an investigation and report prepared by a child and family investigator pursuant to section 14-10-116.5, and the court finds that a supplemental evaluation concerning parental responsibilities will not serve the best interests of the child.

(II) Each party and the child, if possible, shall cooperate in the supplemental evaluation. If the court finds that the supplemental evaluation was necessary and materially assisted the court, the court may order the costs of such supplemental evaluation to be assessed as costs between the parties. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the report is confidential and is not available for public inspection unless by order of court. The cost of each department of human services evaluation is based on an ability to pay and must be assessed as part of the costs of the action or proceeding, and, upon receipt of such sum by the clerk of court, the clerk of court shall transmit the money to the department or agency performing the evaluation.

(b) The person signing a report or evaluation and supervising its preparation must be a licensed mental health professional. The licensed mental health professional signing a report or evaluation must be qualified as competent, by training and experience, as described in subsection (4) of this section. Unlicensed associates or other persons may work with the mental health professional to prepare the report.

(c) An evaluator shall strive to engage in culturally informed and nondiscriminatory practices, and strive to avoid conflicts of interest or multiple relationships in conducting evaluations.

(1.2)(a) Within seven days after his or her appointment, the evaluator shall disclose to each party, attorneys of record, and the court any familial, financial, or social relationship that the evaluator has or has had with the child, either party, the attorneys of record, or the judicial officer and, if a relationship exists, the nature of the relationship.

(b) Based on the disclosure required pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (1.2), the court may, in its discretion, terminate the appointment and appoint a different evaluator in the proceedings. A party has seven days from the date of the disclosure to object to the appointment based upon information contained in the disclosure. If a party objects to the appointment, the court shall appoint a different person or confirm the appointment within seven days after the date of the party’s objection. If no party timely objects to the appointment, then the appointment is deemed confirmed.

(2) In preparing the report concerning a child, the evaluator may consult any person who may have information about the child and the child’s potential parenting arrangements. Upon order of the court, the evaluator may refer the child to other professional personnel for diagnosis. The evaluator may consult with and obtain information from medical, mental health, educational, or other expert persons who have served the child in the past without obtaining the consent of the parent or the person allocated parental responsibilities for the child; but the child’s consent must be obtained if the child has reached the age of fifteen years unless the court finds that the child lacks mental capacity to consent. If the requirements of subsections (3) to (7) of this section are fulfilled, the evaluator’s report may be received in evidence at the hearing.

(3) The evaluator shall mail the report to the court and to counsel and to any party not represented by counsel at least twenty-one days prior to the hearing. The evaluator shall make available to counsel and to any party not represented by counsel his or her file of underlying data and reports, complete texts of diagnostic reports made to the evaluator pursuant to the provisions of subsections (2), (5), and (6) of this section, and the names and addresses of all persons whom the evaluator has consulted. Any party to the proceeding may call the evaluator and any person with whom the evaluator has consulted for cross-examination. No party may waive his or her right of cross-examination prior to the hearing.

(4) A person is not allowed to testify as an expert witness regarding a parental responsibilities or parenting time evaluation that the person has performed pursuant to this section unless the court finds that the person is qualified as competent, by training and experience, in the areas of:

(a) The effects of divorce and remarriage on children, adults, and families;

(a.5) The effects of domestic violence on children, adults, and families, including the connection between domestic violence and trauma on children, child abuse, and child sexual abuse. The person’s training and experience must be provided by recognized sources with expertise in domestic violence and the traumatic effects of domestic violence. As of January 1, 2022, initial and ongoing training must include, at a minimum:

(I) Six initial hours of training on domestic violence, including coercive control, and its traumatic effects on children, adults, and families;

(II) Six initial hours of training on child abuse and child sexual abuse and its traumatic effects; and

(III) Four subsequent hours of training every two years on domestic violence, child abuse, and child sexual abuse and the traumatic effects on children, adults, and families.

(b) Appropriate parenting techniques;

(c) Child development, including cognitive, personality, emotional, and psychological development;

(d) Child and adult psychopathology;

(e) Applicable clinical assessment techniques; and

(f) Applicable legal and ethical requirements of parental responsibilities evaluation.

(5) If an evaluation is indicated in an area beyond the training or experience of the evaluator, the evaluator shall consult with a mental health professional qualified by training or experience, as described in subsection (4) of this section, in that area. Such areas may include, but are not limited to, domestic violence, child abuse, child sexual abuse, alcohol or substance abuse, or psychological testing.

(6)(a) An evaluator may make specific reports when the evaluator has interviewed and assessed all parties to the dispute, assessed the quality of the relationship, or the potential for establishing a quality relationship, between the child and each of the parties, and had access to pertinent information from outside sources.

(b) An evaluator may make reports even though all parties and the child have not been evaluated by the same evaluator in the following circumstances, if the evaluator states with particularity the limitations of the evaluator’s findings and reports:

(I) Any of the parties reside outside Colorado and it would not be feasible for all parties and the child to be evaluated by the same mental health professional; or

(II) One party refuses or is unable to cooperate with the court-ordered evaluation; or

(III) The mental health professional is a member of a team of professionals that performed the evaluation and is presenting recommendations of the team that has interviewed and assessed all parties to the dispute.

(c) Recommendations should be considered in full context of the report.

(7)(a) A written report of the evaluation shall be provided to the court and to the parties pursuant to subsection (3) of this section.

(b) The report of the evaluation shall include, but need not be limited to, the following information:

(I) A description of the procedures employed during the evaluation;

(II) A report of the data collected;

(III) A conclusion that explains how the resulting recommendations were reached from the data collected, with specific reference to criteria listed in section 14-10-124(1.5), and, if applicable, to the criteria listed in section 14-10-131, and their relationship to the results of the evaluation;

(IV) Recommendations concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities for the child, including decision-making responsibility, parenting time, and other considerations; and

(V) An explanation of any limitations in the evaluations or any reservations regarding the resulting recommendations.

(8) All evaluations and reports, including but not limited to supplemental evaluations and related medical and mental health information, that are submitted to the court pursuant to this section shall be deemed confidential without the necessity of filing a motion to seal or otherwise limit access to the court file under the Colorado rules of civil procedure. An evaluation or report that is deemed confidential under this subsection (8) shall not be made available for public inspection without an order of the court authorizing public inspection.

(9) On and after January 1, 2022, a party wishing to file a complaint related to a person’s duties as an evaluator shall file such complaint in accordance with the applicable provisions in chief justice directives.(10) The requirements of this section apply only to activities related to work performed that is related to proceedings concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities. All other licensure requirements for mental health professionals, as established by the department of regulatory agencies and set forth in article 245 of title 12, still apply.

§ 14-10-129. Modification of parenting time

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a)(I) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (1)(b)(I) of this section, the court may make or modify an order granting or denying parenting time rights whenever such order or modification would serve the best interests of the child. The trial court retains continuing jurisdiction to make or modify an order granting or denying parenting time rights pursuant to this section during the pendency of an appeal.

(II) In those cases in which a party with whom the child resides a majority of the time is seeking to relocate with the child to a residence that substantially changes the geographical ties between the child and the other party, the court, in determining whether the modification of parenting time is in the best interests of the child, shall take into account all relevant factors, including those enumerated in paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of this section. The party who is intending to relocate with the child to a residence that substantially changes the geographical ties between the child and the other party shall provide the other party with written notice as soon as practicable of his or her intent to relocate, the location where the party intends to reside, the reason for the relocation, and a proposed revised parenting time plan. A court hearing on any modification of parenting time due to an intent to relocate shall be given a priority on the court’s docket.

(b)(I) The court shall not restrict a parent’s parenting time rights unless it finds that the parenting time would endanger the child’s physical health or significantly impair the child’s emotional development. In addition to a finding that parenting time would endanger the child’s physical health or significantly impair the child’s emotional development, in any order imposing or continuing a parenting time restriction, the court shall enumerate the specific factual findings supporting the restriction. Nothing in this section shall be construed to affect grandparent or great-grandparent family time granted pursuant to section 14-10-124.4.

(II) The provisions of subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b) shall not apply in those cases in which a party with whom the child resides a majority of the time is intending to relocate with the child to a residence that substantially changes the geographical ties between the child and the other party.

(1.5) If a motion for a substantial modification of parenting time which also changes the party with whom the child resides a majority of the time has been filed, whether or not it has been granted, no subsequent motion may be filed within two years after disposition of the prior motion unless the court decides, on the basis of affidavits, that the child’s present environment may endanger the child’s physical health or significantly impair the child’s emotional development or that the party with whom the child resides a majority of the time is intending to relocate with the child to a residence that substantially changes the geographical ties between the child and the other party.

(2) The court shall not modify a prior order concerning parenting time that substantially changes the parenting time as well as changes the party with whom the child resides a majority of the time unless it finds, upon the basis of facts that have arisen since the prior decree or that were unknown to the court at the time of the prior decree, that a change has occurred in the circumstances of the child or the party with whom the child resides the majority of the time and that the modification is necessary to serve the best interests of the child. In applying these standards, the court shall retain the parenting time schedule established in the prior decree unless:

(a) The parties agree to the modification; or

(b) The child has been integrated into the family of the moving party with the consent of the other party; or

(c) The party with whom the child resides a majority of the time is intending to relocate with the child to a residence that substantially changes the geographical ties between the child and the other party. A court hearing on any modification of parenting time due to an intent to relocate shall be given a priority on the court’s docket. In determining whether the modification of parenting time is in the best interests of the child, the court shall take into account all relevant factors, including whether a party has committed an act of domestic violence, has engaged in a pattern of domestic violence, or has a history of domestic violence, as that term is defined in section 14-10-124(1.3), which factor shall be supported by a preponderance of the evidence, and shall consider such domestic violence whether it occurred before or after the prior decree, and all other factors enumerated in section 14-10-124(1.5)(a) and:

(I) The reasons why the party wishes to relocate with the child;

(II) The reasons why the opposing party is objecting to the proposed relocation;

(III) The history and quality of each party’s relationship with the child since any previous parenting time order;

(IV) The educational opportunities for the child at the existing location and at the proposed new location;

(V) The presence or absence of extended family at the existing location and at the proposed new location;

(VI) Any advantages of the child remaining with the primary caregiver;

(VII) The anticipated impact of the move on the child;

(VIII) Whether the court will be able to fashion a reasonable parenting time schedule if the change requested is permitted; and

(IX) Any other relevant factors bearing on the best interests of the child; or

(d) The child’s present environment endangers the child’s physical health or significantly impairs the child’s emotional development and the harm likely to be caused by a change of environment is outweighed by the advantage of a change to the child.

(2.5)(a) When the court restricts a party’s parenting time pursuant to section 19-5-105.5, C.R.S., or section 19-5-105.7, C.R.S., or section 14-10-124(4)(a)(IV), the court may make or modify an order granting or denying parenting time rights whenever such order or modification would serve the best interests of the child. Within thirty-five days after the filing of a verified motion by the restricted party seeking a modification of parenting time, the court shall determine from the verified motion, and response to the motion, if any, whether there has been a substantial and continuing change of circumstances such that the current parenting time orders are no longer in the child’s best interests, including consideration of whether the restricted parent has satisfactorily complied with any conditions set forth by the court when the court imposed the restrictions on parenting time, and either:

(I) Deny the motion, if there is an inadequate allegation; or

(II) Set the matter for hearing as expeditiously as possible with notice to the parties of the time and place of the hearing.

(b) If the court finds that the filing of a motion under paragraph (a) of this subsection (2.5) was substantially frivolous, substantially groundless, substantially vexatious, or intended to harass or intimidate the other party, the court shall require the moving party to pay the reasonable and necessary attorney fees and costs of the other party.

(3)(a) If a parent has been convicted of any of the crimes listed in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3) or convicted in another state or jurisdiction, including but not limited to a military or federal jurisdiction, of an offense that, if committed in Colorado, would constitute any of the crimes listed in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3), or convicted of any crime in which the underlying factual basis has been found by the court on the record to include an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), C.R.S., that constitutes a potential threat or endangerment to the child, the other parent, or any other person who has been granted custody of or parental responsibility for the child pursuant to court order may file an objection to parenting time with the court. The other parent or other person having custody or parental responsibility shall give notice to the offending parent of such objection as provided by the Colorado rules of civil procedure, and the offending parent shall have twenty-one days from such notice to respond. If the offending parent fails to respond within twenty-one days, the parenting time rights of such parent shall be suspended until further order of the court. If such parent responds and objects, a hearing shall be held within thirty-five days of such response. The court may determine that any offending parent who responds and objects shall be responsible for the costs associated with any hearing, including reasonable attorney fees incurred by the other parent. In making such determination, the court shall consider the criminal record of the offending parent and any actions to harass the other parent and the children, any mitigating actions by the offending parent, and whether the actions of either parent have been substantially frivolous, substantially groundless, or substantially vexatious. The offending parent shall have the burden at the hearing to prove that parenting time by such parent is in the best interests of the child or children.

(b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) shall apply to the following crimes:

(I) Murder in the first degree, as defined in section 18-3-102, C.R.S.;

(II) Murder in the second degree, as defined in section 18-3-103, C.R.S.;

(III) Enticement of a child, as defined in section 18-3-305, C.R.S.;

(IV)(A) Sexual assault, as described in section 18-3-402, C.R.S.; and

(B) Sexual assault in the first degree, as described in section 18-3-402, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(V) Sexual assault in the second degree, as described in section 18-3-403, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(VI)(A) Unlawful sexual contact if the victim is compelled to submit, as described in section 18-3-404(2), C.R.S.; and

(B) Sexual assault in the third degree if the victim is compelled to submit, as described in section 18-3-404(2), C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(VII) Sexual assault on a child, as defined in section 18-3-405, C.R.S.;

(VIII) Incest, as described in section 18-6-301, C.R.S.;

(IX) Aggravated incest, as described in section 18-6-302, C.R.S.;

(X) Child abuse, as described in section 18-6-401(7)(a)(I) to (7)(a)(IV), C.R.S.;

(XI) Human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude, as described in section 18-3-504(2), C.R.S.;

(XII) Sexual exploitation of children, as defined in section 18-6-403, C.R.S.;

(XIII) Procurement of a child for sexual exploitation, as defined in section 18-6-404, C.R.S.;

(XIV) Soliciting for child prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-402, C.R.S.;

(XV) Pandering of a child, as defined in section 18-7-403, C.R.S.;

(XVI) Procurement of a child, as defined in section 18-7-403.5, C.R.S.;

(XVII) Keeping a place of child prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-404, C.R.S.;

(XVIII) Pimping of a child, as defined in section 18-7-405, C.R.S.;

(XIX) Inducement of child prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-405.5, C.R.S.;

(XX) Patronizing a prostituted child, as defined in section 18-7-406, C.R.S.

(c) If the party was convicted in another state or jurisdiction of an offense that, if committed in Colorado, would constitute an offense listed in subparagraphs (III) to (XX) of paragraph (b) of this subsection (3), the court shall order that party to submit to a sex-offense-specific evaluation and a parental risk assessment in Colorado and the court shall consider the recommendations of the evaluation and the assessment in any order the court makes relating to parenting time or parental contact. The convicted party shall pay for the costs of the evaluation and the assessment.

(4) A motion to restrict parenting time or parental contact with a parent which alleges that the child is in imminent physical or emotional danger due to the parenting time or contact by the parent shall be heard and ruled upon by the court not later than fourteen days after the day of the filing of the motion. Any parenting time which occurs during such fourteen-day period after the filing of such a motion shall be supervised by an unrelated third party deemed suitable by the court or by a licensed mental health professional, as defined in section 14-10-127(1)(b). This subsection (4) shall not apply to any motion which is filed pursuant to subsection (3) of this section.

(5) If the court finds that the filing of a motion under subsection (4) of this section was substantially frivolous, substantially groundless, or substantially vexatious, the court shall require the moving party to pay the reasonable and necessary attorney fees and costs of the other party.

§ 14-10-129.5. Disputes concerning parenting time

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Within thirty-five days after the filing of a verified motion by either parent or upon the court’s own motion alleging that a parent is not complying with a parenting time order or schedule and setting forth the possible sanctions that may be imposed by the court, the court shall determine from the verified motion, and response to the motion, if any, whether there has been or is likely to be substantial or continuing noncompliance with the parenting time order or schedule and either:

(a) Deny the motion, if there is an inadequate allegation; or

(b) Set the matter for hearing with notice to the parents of the time and place of the hearing as expeditiously as possible; or

(c) Require the parties to seek mediation and report back to the court on the results of the mediation within sixty-three days. Mediation services shall be provided in accordance with section 13-22-305, C.R.S. At the end of the mediation period, the court may approve an agreement reached by the parents or shall set the matter for hearing.

(2) After the hearing, if a court finds that a parent has not complied with the parenting time order or schedule and has violated the court order, the court, in the best interests of the child, shall issue an order that may include but not be limited to one or more of the following orders:

(a) An order imposing additional terms and conditions that are consistent with the court’s previous order; except that the court shall separate the issues of child support and parenting time and shall not condition child support upon parenting time;

(b) An order modifying the previous order to meet the best interests of the child;

(b.3) An order requiring either parent or both parents to attend a parental education program as described in section 14-10-123.7, at the expense of the noncomplying parent;

(b.7) An order requiring the parties to participate in family counseling pursuant to section 13-22-313, C.R.S., at the expense of the noncomplying parent;

(c) An order requiring the violator to post bond or security to insure future compliance;

(d) An order requiring that makeup parenting time be provided for the aggrieved parent or child under the following conditions:

(I) That such parenting time is of the same type and duration of parenting time as that which was denied, including but not limited to parenting time during weekends, on holidays, and on weekdays and during the summer;

(II) That such parenting time is made up within six months after the noncompliance occurs, unless the period of time or holiday can not be made up within six months in which case the parenting time shall be made up within one year after the noncompliance occurs;

(III) That such parenting time takes place at the time and in the manner chosen by the aggrieved parent if it is in the best interests of the child;

(e) An order finding the parent who did not comply with the parenting time schedule in contempt of court and imposing a fine or jail sentence;

(e.5) An order imposing on the noncomplying parent a civil fine not to exceed one hundred dollars per incident of denied parenting time;

(f) An order scheduling a hearing for modification of the existing order concerning custody or the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a motion filed pursuant to section 14-10-131;

(g) Deleted by Laws 1997, H.B.97-1164, § 1, eff. Aug. 6, 1997.

(h) Any other order that may promote the best interests of the child or children involved.

(3) Any civil fines collected as a result of an order entered pursuant to paragraph (e.5) of subsection (2) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer, who shall credit the same to the dispute resolution fund created in section 13-22-310, C.R.S.

(4) In addition to any other order entered pursuant to subsection (2) of this section, the court shall order a parent who has failed to provide court-ordered parenting time or to exercise court-ordered parenting time to pay to the aggrieved party, attorney’s fees, court costs, and expenses that are associated with an action brought pursuant to this section. In the event the parent responding to an action brought pursuant to this section is found not to be in violation of the parenting time order or schedule, the court may order the petitioning parent to pay the court costs, attorney fees, and expenses incurred by such responding parent. Nothing in this section shall preclude a party’s right to a separate and independent legal action in tort.

§ 14-10-130. Judicial supervision

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise agreed by the parties in writing at the time of the decree concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child, the person or persons with responsibility for decision-making may determine the child’s upbringing, including his or her education, health care, and religious training, unless the court, after hearing and upon motion by the other party, finds that, in the absence of a specific limitation of the person’s or persons’ decision-making authority, the child’s physical health would be endangered or the child’s emotional development significantly impaired.

(2) If both parties or all contestants agree to the order or if the court finds that in the absence of the order the child’s physical health would be endangered or the child’s emotional development significantly impaired, the court may order the county or district welfare department to exercise continuing supervision over the case to assure that the terms relating to the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to the child or parenting time terms of the decree are carried out.

§ 14-10-131. Modification of custody or decision-making responsibility

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) If a motion for modification of a custody decree or a decree allocating decision-making responsibility has been filed, whether or not it was granted, no subsequent motion may be filed within two years after disposition of the prior motion unless the court decides, on the basis of affidavits, that there is reason to believe that a continuation of the prior decree of custody or order allocating decision-making responsibility may endanger the child’s physical health or significantly impair the child’s emotional development.

(2) The court shall not modify a custody decree or a decree allocating decision-making responsibility unless it finds, upon the basis of facts that have arisen since the prior decree or that were unknown to the court at the time of the prior decree, that a change has occurred in the circumstances of the child or the child’s custodian or party to whom decision-making responsibility was allocated and that the modification is necessary to serve the best interests of the child. The trial court retains jurisdiction to modify an order allocating decision-making responsibility pursuant to this section during the pendency of an appeal. In applying these standards, the court shall retain the allocation of decision-making responsibility established by the prior decree unless:

(a) The parties agree to the modification;

(b) The child has been integrated into the family of the petitioner with the consent of the other party and such situation warrants a modification of the allocation of decision-making responsibilities;

(b.5) There has been a modification in the parenting time order pursuant to section 14-10-129, that warrants a modification of the allocation of decision-making responsibilities;

(b.7) A party has consistently consented to the other party making individual decisions for the child which decisions the party was to make individually or the parties were to make mutually; or

(c) The retention of the allocation of decision-making responsibility would endanger the child’s physical health or significantly impairs the child’s emotional development and the harm likely to be caused by a change of environment is outweighed by the advantage of a change to the child.

§ 14-10-131.7. Designation of custody for the purpose of other state and federal statutes

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

For purposes of all other state and federal statutes that require a designation or determination of custody, the parenting plan set forth in the court’s order shall identify the responsibilities of each of the parties.

§ 14-10-131.8. Construction of 1999 revisions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

The enactment of the 1999 revisions to this article 10 does not constitute substantially changed circumstances for the purposes of modifying decrees involving child custody, parenting time, or grandparent or great-grandparent family time. Any action to modify any decree involving child custody, parenting time, grandparent or great-grandparent family time, or a parenting plan is governed by the provisions of this article 10.

§ 14-10-132. Affidavit practice

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

A party seeking the modification of a custody decree or a decree concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities shall submit, together with his or her moving papers, an affidavit setting forth facts supporting the requested modification and shall give notice, together with a copy of his or her affidavit, to other parties to the proceeding, who may file opposing affidavits. The court shall deny the motion unless it finds that adequate cause for hearing the motion is established by the affidavits, in which case it shall set a date for hearing on an order to show cause why the requested modification should not be granted.

Article 13. Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. General Provisions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 14-13-101. Short title

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

This article shall be known and may be cited as the “Uniform Child-custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act”.

§ 14-13-102. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this article 13, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Abandoned” means left without provision for reasonable and necessary care or supervision.

(2) “Child” means an individual who has not attained eighteen years of age.

(3) “Child-custody determination” means a judgment, decree, or other order of a court providing for the legal custody or physical custody of a child or allocating parental responsibilities with respect to a child or providing for visitation, parenting time, or grandparent or great-grandparent family time with respect to a child. The term includes a permanent, temporary, initial, and modification order. The term does not include an order relating to child support or other monetary obligation of an individual.

(4) “Child-custody proceeding” means a proceeding in which legal custody or physical custody with respect to a child or the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child or visitation, parenting time, or grandparent or great-grandparent family time with respect to a child is an issue. The term includes a proceeding for divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, neglect, abuse, dependency, guardianship, paternity, termination of parental rights, and protection from domestic violence and domestic abuse, in which the issue may appear. The term does not include a proceeding involving juvenile delinquency, except when such court is entering an order to allocate parental responsibilities; contractual emancipation; or enforcement under part 3 of this article 13.

(5) “Commencement” means the filing of the first pleading in a proceeding.

(6) “Court” means an entity authorized under the law of a state to establish, enforce, or modify a child-custody determination.

(7)(a) “Home state” means the state in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as a parent for at least one hundred eighty-two consecutive days immediately before the commencement of a child-custody proceeding. In the case of a child less than six months of age, the term means the state in which the child lived from birth with any of the persons mentioned. A period of temporary absence of any of the mentioned persons is part of the period.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (7), “home state” does not mean a state in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as a parent on a temporary basis as the result of an interim order entered pursuant to article 13.7 of this title.

(8) “Initial determination” means the first child-custody determination concerning a particular child.

(9) “Issuing court” means the court that makes a child-custody determination for which enforcement is sought under this article.

(10) “Issuing state” means the state in which a child-custody determination is made.

(11) “Modification” means a child-custody determination that changes, replaces, supersedes, or is otherwise made after a previous determination concerning the same child, whether or not it is made by the court that made the previous determination.

(12) “Person” means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, public corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(13) “Person acting as a parent” means a person, other than a parent, who:

(a) Has physical custody of the child or has had physical custody for a period of one hundred eighty-two consecutive days, including any temporary absence, within one year immediately before the commencement of a child-custody proceeding; and

(b) Has been awarded legal custody or allocated parental responsibilities with respect to a child by a court or claims a right to legal custody or parental responsibilities under the law of this state.

(14) “Physical custody” means the physical care and supervision of a child.

(15) “State” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(16) “Warrant” means an order issued by a court authorizing law enforcement officers to take physical custody of a child.

§ 14-13-103. Proceedings governed by other law

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

This article does not govern an adoption proceeding or a proceeding pertaining to the authorization of emergency medical care for a child.

§ 14-13-104. International application of article

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state shall treat a foreign country as if it were a state of the United States for the purpose of applying this part 1 and part 2 of this article.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) of this section, a child-custody determination made in a foreign country under factual circumstances in substantial conformity with the jurisdictional standards of this article must be recognized and enforced under part 3 of this article.

(3) A court of this state need not apply this article if the child-custody law of a foreign country violates fundamental principles of human rights.

§ 14-13-105. Effect of child-custody determination

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

A child-custody determination made by a court of this state that had jurisdiction under this article binds all persons who have been served in accordance with the laws of this state or notified in accordance with section 14-13-108 or who have submitted to the jurisdiction of the court, and who have been given an opportunity to be heard. As to those persons, the determination is conclusive as to all decided issues of law and fact except to the extent the determination is modified.

 

§ 14-13-106. Priority

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

If a question of existence or exercise of jurisdiction under this article is raised in a child-custody proceeding, the question, upon request of a party, must be given priority on the calendar and handled expeditiously.

§ 14-13-108. Notice to persons outside state

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Notice required for the exercise of jurisdiction when a person is outside this state may be given in a manner prescribed by the law of this state for service of process or by the law of the state in which the service is made. Notice must be given in a manner reasonably calculated to give actual notice but may be by publication if other means are not effective.

(2) Proof of service may be made in the manner prescribed by the law of this state or by the law of the state in which the service is made.

(3) Notice is not required for the exercise of jurisdiction with respect to a person who submits to the jurisdiction of the court.

§ 14-13-109. Appearance and limited immunity

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A party to a child-custody proceeding, including a modification proceeding, or a petitioner or respondent in a proceeding to enforce or register a child-custody determination, is not subject to personal jurisdiction in this state for another proceeding or purpose solely by reason of having participated, or of having been physically present for the purpose of participating, in the proceeding.

(2) A person who is subject to personal jurisdiction in this state on a basis other than physical presence is not immune from service of process in this state. A party present in this state who is subject to the jurisdiction of another state is not immune from service of process allowable under the laws of that state.

(3) The immunity granted by subsection (1) of this section does not extend to civil litigation based on acts unrelated to the participation in a proceeding under this article committed by an individual while present in this state.

§ 14-13-110. Communication between courts

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state may communicate with a court in another state concerning a proceeding arising under this article.

(2) The court may allow the parties to participate in the communication. If the parties are not able to participate in the communication, they must be given the opportunity to present facts and legal arguments before a decision on jurisdiction is made.

(3) Communication between courts on schedules, calendars, court records, and similar matters may occur without informing the parties. A record need not be made of the communication.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) of this section, a record must be made of a communication under this section. The parties must be informed promptly of the communication and granted access to the record.

(5) For the purposes of this section, “record” means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

§ 14-13-111. Taking testimony in another state

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) In addition to other procedures available to a party, a party to a child-custody proceeding or other legal representative of the child may offer testimony of witnesses who are located in another state, including testimony of the parties and the child, by deposition or other means allowable in this state for testimony taken in another state. The court on its own motion may order that the testimony of a person be taken in another state and may prescribe the manner in which and the terms upon which the testimony is taken.

(2) A court of this state may permit an individual residing in another state to be deposed or to testify by telephone, audiovisual means, or other electronic means before a designated court or at another location in that state. A court of this state shall cooperate with courts of other states in designating an appropriate location for the deposition or testimony.

(3) Documentary evidence transmitted from another state to a court of this state by technological means that do not produce an original writing may not be excluded from evidence on an objection based on the means of transmission.

§ 14-13-112. Cooperation between courts--preservation of records

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state may request the appropriate court of another state to:

(a) Hold an evidentiary hearing;

(b) Order a person to produce or give evidence pursuant to procedures of that state;

(c) Order that an evaluation be made with respect to the custody or allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child involved in a pending proceeding;

(d) Forward to the court of this state a certified copy of the transcript of the record of the hearing, the evidence otherwise presented, and any evaluation prepared in compliance with the request; and

(e) Order a party to a child-custody proceeding or any person having physical custody of the child to appear in the proceeding with or without the child.

(2) Upon request of a court of another state, a court of this state may hold a hearing or enter an order described in subsection (1) of this section.

(3) Travel and other necessary and reasonable expenses incurred under subsections (1) and (2) of this section may be assessed against the parties according to the law of this state.

(4) A court of this state shall preserve the pleadings, orders, decrees, records of hearings, evaluations, and other pertinent records with respect to a child-custody proceeding until the child attains eighteen years of age. Upon appropriate request by a court or law enforcement official of another state, the court shall forward a certified copy of those records.

Part 2. Jurisdiction

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 14-13-201. Initial child-custody jurisdiction

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-204, a court of this state has jurisdiction to make an initial child-custody determination only if:

(a) This state is the home state of the child on the date of the commencement of the proceeding, or was the home state of the child within one hundred eighty-two days before the commencement of the proceeding and the child is absent from this state but a parent or person acting as a parent continues to live in this state;

(b) A court of another state does not have jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), or a court of the home state of the child has declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that this state is the more appropriate forum under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with section 14-13-207 or 14-13-208, and:

(I) The child and the child’s parents, or the child and at least one parent or a person acting as a parent, have a significant connection with this state other than mere physical presence; and

(II) Substantial evidence is available in this state concerning the child’s care, protection, training, and personal relationships;

(c) All courts having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with paragraph (a) or (b) of this subsection (1) have declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that a court of this state is the more appropriate forum to determine the custody of the child under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with section 14-13-207 or 14-13-208; or

(d) No court of any other state would have jurisdiction under the criteria specified in a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this subsection (1).

(2) Subsection (1) of this section is the exclusive jurisdictional basis for making a child-custody determination by a court of this state.

(3) Physical presence of, or personal jurisdiction over, a party or a child is not necessary or sufficient to make a child-custody determination.

§ 14-13-202. Exclusive, continuing jurisdiction

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-204, a court of this state that has made a child-custody determination consistent with section 14-13-201 or 14-13-203 has exclusive, continuing jurisdiction over the determination until:

(a) A court of this state determines that the child, the child’s parents, and any person acting as a parent do not have a significant connection with this state and that substantial evidence is no longer available in this state concerning the child’s care, protection, training, and personal relationships; or

(b) A court of this state or a court of another state determines that the child, the child’s parents, and any person acting as a parent do not presently reside in this state.

(2) A court of this state that has made a child-custody determination and does not have exclusive, continuing jurisdiction under this section may modify that determination only if it has jurisdiction to make an initial determination under section 14-13-201.

§ 14-13-203. Jurisdiction to modify determination

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-204, a court of this state may not modify a child-custody determination made by a court of another state unless a court of this state has jurisdiction to make an initial determination under section 14-13-201(1)(a) or 14-13-201(1)(b) and:

(a) The court of the other state determines it no longer has exclusive, continuing jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with section 14-13-202 or that a court of this state would be a more convenient forum under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with section 14-13-207; or

(b) A court of this state or a court of the other state determines that the child, the child’s parents, and any person acting as a parent do not presently reside in the other state.

§ 14-13-204. Temporary emergency jurisdiction

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state has temporary emergency jurisdiction if the child is present in this state and the child has been abandoned or it is necessary in an emergency to protect the child because the child, or a sibling or parent of the child, is subjected to or threatened with mistreatment or abuse. A court of this state may exercise temporary emergency jurisdiction during the pendency of an appeal of a child-custody determination.

(2) If there is no previous child-custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this article and a child-custody proceeding has not been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203, a child-custody determination made under this section remains in effect until an order is obtained from a court of a state having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203. If a child-custody proceeding has not been or is not commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203, a child-custody determination made under this section becomes a final determination, if it so provides and this state becomes the home state of the child.

(3) If there is a previous child-custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this article, or a child-custody proceeding has been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203, any order issued by a court of this state under this section must specify in the order a period that the court considers adequate to allow the person seeking an order to obtain an order from the state having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203. The order issued in this state remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other state within the period specified or the period expires.

(4) A court of this state that has been asked to make a child-custody determination under this section, upon being informed that a child-custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child-custody determination has been made by, a court of a state having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203, shall immediately communicate with the other court. A court of this state that is exercising jurisdiction pursuant to sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203, upon being informed that a child-custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child-custody determination has been made by, a court of another state under a statute similar to this section shall immediately communicate with the court of that state to resolve the emergency, protect the safety of the parties and the child, and determine a period for the duration of the temporary order.

§ 14-13-205. Notice--opportunity to be heard--joinder

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Before a child-custody determination is made under this article, notice and an opportunity to be heard in accordance with the standards of section 14-13-108 must be given to all persons entitled to notice under the law of this state as in child-custody proceedings between residents of this state, any parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated, and any person having physical custody of the child.

(2) This article does not govern the enforceability of a child-custody determination made without notice or an opportunity to be heard.

(3) The obligation to join a party and the right to intervene as a party in a child-custody proceeding under this article are governed by the law of this state as in child-custody proceedings between residents of this state.

§ 14-13-206. Simultaneous proceedings

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-204, a court of this state may not exercise its jurisdiction under this part 2 if, at the time of the commencement of the proceeding, a proceeding concerning the custody of the child has been commenced in a court of another state having jurisdiction substantially in conformity with this article, unless the proceeding has been terminated or is stayed by the court of the other state because a court of this state is a more convenient forum under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with section 14-13-207.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-204, a court of this state, before hearing a child-custody proceeding, shall examine the court documents and other information supplied by the parties pursuant to section 14-13-209. If the court determines that a child-custody proceeding has been commenced in a court in another state having jurisdiction substantially in accordance with a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with this article, the court of this state shall stay its proceeding and communicate with the court of the other state. If the court of the state having jurisdiction substantially in accordance with this article does not determine that the court of this state is a more appropriate forum, the court of this state shall dismiss the proceeding.

(3) In a proceeding to modify a child-custody determination, a court of this state shall determine whether a proceeding to enforce the determination has been commenced in another state. If a proceeding to enforce a child-custody determination has been commenced in another state, the court of this state may:

(a) Stay the proceeding for modification pending the entry of an order of a court of the other state enforcing, staying, denying, or dismissing the proceeding for enforcement;

(b) Enjoin the parties from continuing with the proceeding for enforcement; or

(c) Proceed with the modification under conditions it considers appropriate.

§ 14-13-207. Inconvenient forum

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state that has jurisdiction under this article to make a child-custody determination may decline to exercise its jurisdiction at any time if it determines that it is an inconvenient forum under the circumstances and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum. The issue of inconvenient forum may be raised upon motion of a party, the court’s own motion, or request of another court.

(2) Before determining whether it is an inconvenient forum, a court of this state shall consider whether it is appropriate for a court of another state to exercise jurisdiction. For this purpose, the court shall allow the parties to submit information and shall consider all relevant factors, including:

(a) Whether domestic violence or domestic abuse has occurred and is likely to continue in the future and which state could best protect the parties and the child;

(b) The length of time the child has resided outside this state;

(c) The distance between the court in this state and the court in the state that would assume jurisdiction;

(d) The relative financial circumstances of the parties;

(e) Any agreement of the parties as to which state should assume jurisdiction;

(f) The nature and location of the evidence required to resolve the pending litigation, including testimony of the child;

(g) The ability of the court of each state to decide the issue expeditiously and the procedures necessary to present the evidence; and

(h) The familiarity of the court of each state with the facts and issues in the pending litigation.

(3) If a court of this state determines that it is an inconvenient forum and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum, it shall stay the proceedings upon condition that a child-custody proceeding be promptly commenced in another designated state and may impose any other condition the court considers just and proper.

(4) A court of this state may decline to exercise its jurisdiction under this article if a child-custody determination is incidental to an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, or another proceeding while still retaining jurisdiction over the divorce, dissolution of marriage, or other proceeding.

§ 14-13-208. Jurisdiction declined by reason of conduct

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-204, or by other law of this state, if a person seeking to invoke the jurisdiction of a court of this state under this article has engaged in unjustifiable conduct, the court shall decline to exercise its jurisdiction unless:

(a) The parents and all persons acting as parents have acquiesced in the exercise of jurisdiction;

(b) A court of the state otherwise having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203 determines that this state is a more appropriate forum under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with section 14-13-207; or

(c) No court of any other state would have jurisdiction under the criteria specified in a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203.

(2) If a court of this state declines to exercise its jurisdiction pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, it may fashion an appropriate remedy to ensure the safety of the child and prevent a repetition of the unjustifiable conduct, including staying the proceeding until a child-custody proceeding is commenced in a court having jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with sections 14-13-201 to 14-13-203.

(3) If a court dismisses a petition or stays a proceeding because it declines to exercise its jurisdiction pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, it shall assess against the party seeking to invoke its jurisdiction necessary and reasonable expenses including costs, communication expenses, attorney fees, investigative fees, expenses for witnesses, travel expenses, and child care during the course of the proceedings, unless the party from whom fees are sought establishes that the assessment would be clearly inappropriate. The court may not assess fees, costs, or expenses against this state unless authorized by law other than this article.

§ 14-13-209. Information to be submitted to court

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Subject to a court order allowing a party to maintain the confidentiality of addresses and other identifying information and to subsection (5) of this section, in a child-custody proceeding, each party, in its first pleading or in an attached affidavit, shall give information, if reasonably ascertainable, under oath, as to the child’s present address or whereabouts, the places where the child has lived during the last five years, and the names and present addresses of the persons with whom the child has lived during that period. The pleading or affidavit must state whether the party:

(a) Has participated, as a party or witness or in any other capacity, in any other proceeding concerning the custody of or visitation or parenting time with the child and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the date of the child-custody determination, if any;

(b) Knows of any proceeding that could affect the current proceeding, including proceedings for enforcement and proceedings relating to domestic violence or domestic abuse, protective orders or restraining orders, termination of parental rights, and adoptions and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding; and

(c) Knows the names and addresses of any person not a party to the proceeding who has physical custody of the child or claims rights of parental responsibilities or legal custody or physical custody of, or visitation or parenting time with, the child and, if so, the names and addresses of those persons.

(2) If the information required by subsection (1) of this section is not furnished, the court, upon motion of a party or its own motion, may stay the proceeding until the information is furnished.

(3) If the declaration as to any of the items described in paragraphs (a) to (c) of subsection (1) of this section is in the affirmative, the declarant shall give additional information under oath as required by the court. The court may examine the parties under oath as to details of the information furnished and other matters pertinent to the court’s jurisdiction and the disposition of the case.

(4) Each party has a continuing duty to inform the court of any proceeding in this or any other state that could affect the current proceeding.

(5) If a party alleges in an affidavit or a pleading under oath that the health, safety, or liberty of a party or child would be jeopardized by disclosure of identifying information, the information must be sealed and may not be disclosed to the other party or the public unless the court orders the disclosure to be made after a hearing in which the court takes into consideration the health, safety, or liberty of the party or child and determines that the disclosure is in the interest of justice.

§ 14-13-210. Appearance of parties and child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) In a child-custody proceeding in this state, the court may order a party to the proceeding who is in this state to appear before the court in person with or without the child. The court may order any person who is in this state and who has physical custody or control of the child to appear in person with the child.

(2) If a party to a child-custody proceeding whose presence is desired by the court is outside this state, the court may order that a notice given pursuant to section 14-13-108 include a statement directing the party to appear in person with or without the child and informing the party that failure to appear may result in a decision adverse to the party.

(3) The court may enter any orders necessary to ensure the safety of the child and of any person ordered to appear under this section.

(4) If a party to a child-custody proceeding who is outside this state is directed to appear under subsection (2) of this section or desires to appear personally before the court with or without the child, the court may require another party to pay reasonable and necessary travel and other expenses of the party so appearing and of the child.

Part 3. Enforcement

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 14-13-301. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this part 3, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Petitioner” means a person who seeks enforcement of an order for the return of a child under the “Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction” or enforcement of a child-custody determination.

(2) “Respondent” means a person against whom a proceeding has been commenced for enforcement of an order for the return of a child under the “Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction” or enforcement of a child-custody determination.

§ 14-13-302. Enforcement under Hague Convention

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Under this part 3 a court of this state may enforce an order for the return of the child made under the “Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction” as if it were a child-custody determination.

§ 14-13-303. Duty to enforce

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state shall recognize and enforce a child-custody determination of a court of another state if the latter court exercised jurisdiction in substantial conformity with this article or the determination was made under factual circumstances meeting the jurisdictional standards of this article and the determination has not been modified in accordance with this article.

(2) A court of this state may utilize any remedy available under other law of this state to enforce a child-custody determination made by a court of another state. The remedies provided in this part 3 are cumulative and do not affect the availability of other remedies to enforce a child-custody determination.

§ 14-13-304. Temporary visitation or parenting time

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state that does not have jurisdiction to modify a child-custody determination may issue a temporary order enforcing:

(a) A visitation or parenting time schedule made by a court of another state; or

(b) The visitation or parenting time provisions of a child-custody determination of another state that does not provide for a specific visitation or parenting time schedule.

(2) If a court of this state makes an order under paragraph (b) of subsection (1) of this section, it shall specify in the order a period that it considers adequate to allow the petitioner to obtain an order from a court having jurisdiction under criteria substantially in conformity with those criteria specified in part 2 of this article. The order remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other court or the period expires.

§ 14-13-305. Registration of child-custody determination

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A child-custody determination issued by a court of another state may be registered in this state, with or without a simultaneous request for enforcement, by sending to the appropriate district court in this state:

(a) A letter or other document requesting registration;

(b) Two copies, including one certified copy, of the determination sought to be registered, and a statement under penalty of perjury that to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person seeking registration the order has not been modified; and

(c) Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-209, the name and address of the person seeking registration and any parent or person acting as a parent who has been awarded custody, allocated parental responsibilities, or granted visitation or parenting time in the child-custody determination sought to be registered.

(2) On receipt of the documents required by subsection (1) of this section, the registering court shall:

(a) Cause the determination to be filed as a foreign judgment, together with one copy of any accompanying documents and information, regardless of their form; and

(b) Serve notice upon the persons named pursuant to paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section and provide them with an opportunity to contest the registration in accordance with this section.

(3) The notice required by paragraph (b) of subsection (2) of this section must state that:

(a) A registered determination is enforceable as of the date of the registration in the same manner as a determination issued by a court of this state;

(b) A hearing to contest the validity of the registered determination must be requested within twenty-one days after service of notice; and

(c) Failure to contest the registration will result in confirmation of the child-custody determination and preclude further contest of that determination with respect to any matter that could have been asserted.

(4) A person seeking to contest the validity of a registered order must request a hearing within twenty-one days after service of the notice. At that hearing, the court shall confirm the registered order unless the person contesting registration establishes that:

(a) The issuing court did not have jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with part 2 of this article;

(b) The child-custody determination sought to be registered has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under part 2 of this article; or

(c) The person contesting registration was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with standards substantially in conformity with the standards set forth in section 14-13-108, in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which registration is sought.

(5) If a timely request for a hearing to contest the validity of the registration is not made, the registration is confirmed as a matter of law and the person requesting registration and all persons served must be notified of the confirmation.

(6) Confirmation of a registered order, whether by operation of law or after notice and hearing, precludes further contest of the order with respect to any matter that could have been asserted at the time of registration.

§ 14-13-306. Enforcement of registered determination

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court of this state may grant any relief normally available under the law of this state to enforce a registered child-custody determination made by a court of another state.

(2) A court of this state shall recognize and enforce, but may not modify, except in accordance with part 2 of this article, a registered child-custody determination of a court of another state.

§ 14-13-307. Simultaneous proceedings

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

If a proceeding for enforcement under this part 3 is commenced in a court of this state and the court determines that a proceeding to modify the determination is pending in a court of another state having jurisdiction to modify the determination under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with part 2 of this article, the enforcing court shall immediately communicate with the modifying court. The proceeding for enforcement continues unless the enforcing court, after consultation with the modifying court, stays or dismisses the proceeding.

§ 14-13-308. Expedited enforcement of child-custody determination

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A petition under this part 3 in which the petitioner is seeking expedited enforcement pursuant to this section must be verified. Certified copies of all orders sought to be enforced and of any order confirming registration must be attached to the petition. A copy of a certified copy of an order may be attached instead of the original.

(2) A petition for expedited enforcement of a child-custody determination pursuant to this section must state:

(a) Whether the court that issued the determination identified the jurisdictional basis it relied upon in exercising jurisdiction and, if so, what the basis was;

(b) Whether the determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court whose decision must be enforced under this article and, if so, the identity of the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding;

(c) Whether any proceeding has been commenced that could affect the current proceeding, including proceedings relating to domestic violence or domestic abuse, protective orders or restraining orders, termination of parental rights, and adoptions and, if so, the identity of the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding;

(d) The present physical address of the child and the respondent, if known;

(e) Whether relief in addition to the immediate physical custody of the child and attorney’s fees is sought, including a request for assistance from law enforcement officials and, if so, the relief sought; and

(f) If the child-custody determination has been registered and confirmed under section 14-13-305, the date and place of registration.

(3) Upon the filing of a petition for expedited enforcement pursuant to this section, the court shall issue an order directing the respondent to appear in person at a hearing, with or without the child, and may enter any order necessary to ensure the safety of the parties and the child. The hearing must be held on the next judicial day after service of the order unless that date is impossible. In that event, the court shall hold the hearing on the first judicial day possible. The court may extend the date of hearing at the request of the petitioner.

(4) An order issued under subsection (3) of this section must state the time and place of the hearing and advise the respondent that at the hearing the court will order that the petitioner may take immediate physical custody of the child and the payment of fees, costs, and expenses under section 14-13-312, and may schedule a hearing to determine whether further relief is appropriate, unless the respondent appears and establishes that:

(a) The child-custody determination has not been registered and confirmed under section 14-13-305 and that:

(I) The issuing court did not have jurisdiction under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with part 2 of this article;

(II) The child-custody determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with part 2 of this article;

(III) The respondent was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with the standards substantially in conformity with the standards of section 14-13-108, in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which enforcement is sought; or

(b) The child-custody determination for which enforcement is sought was registered and confirmed under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with section 14-13-304, but has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court of a state having jurisdiction to do so under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with part 2 of this article.

§ 14-13-309. Service of petition and order

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Except as otherwise provided in section 14-13-311, the petition and order must be served, by any method authorized by the law of this state, upon respondent and any person who has physical custody of the child.

§ 14-13-310. Hearing and order

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Unless the court issues a temporary emergency order pursuant to section 14-13-204, upon a finding that a petitioner is entitled to immediate physical custody of the child, the court shall order that the petitioner may take immediate physical custody of the child unless the respondent establishes that:

(a) The child-custody determination has not been registered and confirmed under section 14-13-305 and that:

(I) The issuing court did not have jurisdiction under part 2 of this article;

(II) The child-custody determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court of a state having jurisdiction to do so under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with part 2 of this article; or

(III) The respondent was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with standards in substantial conformity with the standards set forth in section 14-13-108, in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which enforcement is sought; or

(b) The child-custody determination for which enforcement is sought was registered and confirmed under section 14-13-305 but has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court of a state having jurisdiction to do so under part 3 of this article.

(2) The court shall award the fees, costs, and expenses authorized under section 14-13-312 and may grant additional relief, including a request for the assistance of law enforcement officials, and set a further hearing to determine whether additional relief is appropriate.

(3) If a party called to testify refuses to answer on the ground that the testimony may be self-incriminating, the court may draw an adverse inference from the refusal.

(4) A privilege against disclosure of communications between spouses and a defense of immunity based on the relationship of husband and wife or parent and child may not be invoked in a proceeding under this part 3.

(5) A privilege against disclosure of communications between partners in a civil union and a defense of immunity based on the relationship of partners in a civil union or parent and child may not be invoked in a proceeding under this part 3.

§ 14-13-311. Warrant to take physical custody of child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Upon the filing of a petition seeking enforcement of a child-custody determination, the petitioner may file a verified application for the issuance of a warrant to take physical custody of the child if the child is immediately likely to suffer serious physical harm or be removed from this state.

(2) If the court, upon the testimony of the petitioner or other witness, finds that the child is imminently likely to suffer serious physical harm or be removed from this state, it may issue a warrant to take physical custody of the child. The petition must be heard on the next judicial day after the warrant is executed unless that date is impossible. In that event, the court shall hold the hearing on the first judicial day possible. The application for the warrant must include the statements required by section 14-13-308(2).

(3) A warrant to take physical custody of a child must:

(a) Recite the facts upon which a conclusion of imminent serious physical harm or removal from the jurisdiction is based;

(b) Direct law enforcement officers to take physical custody of the child immediately; and

(c) Provide for the placement of the child pending final relief.

(4) The respondent must be served with the petition, warrant, and order immediately after the child is taken into physical custody.

(5) A warrant to take physical custody of a child is enforceable throughout this state. If the court finds on the basis of the testimony of the petitioner or other witness that a less intrusive remedy is not effective, it may authorize law enforcement officers to enter private property to take physical custody of the child. If required by exigent circumstances of the case, the court may authorize law enforcement officers to make a forcible entry at any hour.

(6) The court may impose conditions upon placement of a child to ensure the appearance of the child and the child’s custodian.

§ 14-13-312. Costs, fees, and expenses

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The court shall award the prevailing party, including a state, necessary and reasonable expenses incurred by or on behalf of the prevailing party, including costs, communication expenses, attorney fees, investigative fees, expenses for witnesses, travel expenses, and child care during the course of the proceedings, unless the party from whom fees or expenses are sought establishes that the award would be clearly inappropriate.

(2) The court may not assess fees, costs, or expenses against a state unless authorized by law other than this article.

§ 14-13-313. Recognition and enforcement

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

A court of this state shall accord full faith and credit to an order issued by another state and consistent with this article that enforces a child-custody determination by a court of another state unless the order has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under a provision of law adopted by that state that is in substantial conformity with part 2 of this article.

§ 14-13-314. Appeals

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

An appeal may be taken from a final order in a proceeding under this part 3 in accordance with expedited appellate procedures in other civil cases. Unless the court enters a temporary emergency order under section 14-13-204, the enforcing court may not stay an order enforcing a child-custody determination pending appeal.

Part 4. Miscellaneous Provisions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 14-13-401. Application and construction

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

In applying and construing this article, consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.

§ 14-13-402. Severability clause

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

If any provision of this article or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of this article that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this article are severable.

§ 14-13-403. Transitional provision

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

A motion or other request for relief made in a child-custody proceeding or to enforce a child-custody determination that was commenced before July 1, 2000, is governed by the law in effect at the time the motion or other request was made.

Article 13.5 Uniform Child Abduction Prevention Act

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 14-13.5-102. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

In this article:

(1) “Abduction” means the wrongful removal or wrongful retention of a child.

(2) “Child” means an unemancipated individual who is less than 18 years of age.

(3) “Child-custody determination” means a judgment, decree, or other order of a court providing for the legal custody or physical custody of a child, allocating parental responsibilities with respect to a child, or providing for visitation or parenting time with respect to a child. The term includes a permanent, temporary, initial, and modification order. The term does not include an order relating to child support or other monetary obligation of an individual.

(4) “Child-custody proceeding” means a proceeding in which the legal custody or physical custody of a child, the allocation of parental responsibilities with respect to a child, or visitation or parenting time with respect to a child is at issue. The term includes a proceeding for divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, neglect, abuse, dependency, guardianship, paternity, termination of parental rights, or protection from domestic violence or domestic abuse. The term does not include a proceeding involving juvenile delinquency or contractual emancipation.

(5) “Court” means an entity authorized under the law of a state to establish, enforce, or modify a child-custody determination.

(6) “Petition” includes a motion or its equivalent.

(7) “Record” means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

(8) “State” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. The term includes a federally recognized Indian tribe or nation.

(9) “Travel document” means records relating to a travel itinerary, including travel tickets, passes, reservations for transportation, or accommodations. The term does not include a passport or visa.

(10) “Wrongful removal” means the taking of a child that breaches rights of custody or orders concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities or breaches rights of visitation or parenting time given or recognized under the law of this state.

(11) “Wrongful retention” means the keeping or concealing of a child that breaches rights of custody or orders concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities or breaches rights of visitation or parenting time given or recognized under the law of this state.

§ 14-13.5-104. Actions for abduction prevention measures

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A court on its own motion may order abduction prevention measures in a child-custody proceeding if the court finds that the evidence establishes a credible risk of abduction of the child.

(2) A party to a child-custody determination or another individual or entity having a right under the law of this state or any other state to seek a child-custody determination for the child may file a petition seeking abduction prevention measures to protect the child under this article.

Title 16. Criminal Proceedings

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Code of Criminal Procedure

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Article 11.7. Standardized Treatment Program for Sex Offenders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 16-11.7-102. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this article 11.7, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Adult sex offender” means a person who has been convicted, as described in subsection (2)(a)(I), (2)(a)(II), or (2)(a)(IV) of this section, of a sex offense, but does not include a person who meets the definition of a “juvenile who has committed a sexual offense”, as defined in subsection (1.5) of this section, unless the person has also been convicted of a sex offense committed on or after the day the person attained eighteen years of age or who is sentenced for a sex offense on or after the person attained twenty-one years of age.

(1.3) “Board” means the sex offender management board created in section 16-11.7-103.

(1.5) “Juvenile who has committed a sexual offense” means a juvenile who was less than eighteen years of age at the time of the sex offense and who has been adjudicated as a juvenile or who receives a deferred adjudication or who is sentenced prior to attaining twenty-one years of age after being criminally convicted in the district court pursuant to section 19-2-517 or 19-2-518 on or after July 1, 2002, or section 19-2.5-801 or 19-2.5-802, on or after October 1, 2021, for an offense that would constitute a sex offense, as defined in subsection (3) of this section, if committed as an adult, or a juvenile who has committed any offense, the underlying factual basis of which involves a sex offense.

(2)(a) “Sex offender” means any person who is:

(I) Convicted in the state of Colorado on or after January 1, 1994, of any sex offense as defined in subsection (3) of this section;

(II) Convicted in the state of Colorado on or after July 1, 2000, of any criminal offense, the underlying factual basis of which involves a sex offense;

(III) A juvenile who has committed a sexual offense; or

(IV) A person who:

(A) Was evaluated because of a discretionary request by a prosecuting attorney or court pursuant to section 16-11-102; and

(B) A court determines should undergo sex offender treatment based upon the recommendations of the evaluation and identification pursuant to section 16-11.7-104; and

(C) Is convicted in the state of Colorado on or after January 1, 1994, of any criminal offense and, if the person has previously been convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (3) of this section, in the state of Colorado; or if the person has previously been convicted in any other jurisdiction of any offense that would constitute a sex offense as defined in subsection (3) of this section; or if the person has a history of any sex offenses as defined in subsection (3) of this section.

(b) For purposes of this subsection (2), any person who receives a deferred judgment or deferred sentence for the offenses specified in this subsection (2) is deemed convicted.

(3) “Sex offense” means any felony or misdemeanor offense described in this subsection (3) as follows:

(a)(I) Sexual assault, in violation of section 18-3-402, C.R.S.; or

(II) Sexual assault in the first degree, in violation of section 18-3-402, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(b) Sexual assault in the second degree, in violation of section 18-3-403, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(c)(I) Unlawful sexual contact, in violation of section 18-3-404, C.R.S.; or

(II) Sexual assault in the third degree, in violation of section 18-3-404, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(d) Sexual assault on a child, in violation of section 18-3-405, C.R.S.;

(e) Sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust, in violation of section 18-3-405.3, C.R.S.;

(f) Sexual assault on a client by a psychotherapist, in violation of section 18-3-405.5, C.R.S.;

(g) Enticement of a child, in violation of section 18-3-305, C.R.S.;

(h) Incest, in violation of section 18-6-301, C.R.S.;

(i) Aggravated incest, in violation of section 18-6-302, C.R.S.;

(j) Human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude, as described in section 18-3-504(2), C.R.S.;

(k) Sexual exploitation of children, in violation of section 18-6-403, C.R.S.;

(l) Procurement of a child for sexual exploitation, in violation of section 18-6-404, C.R.S.;

(m) Indecent exposure, in violation of section 18-7-302, C.R.S.;

(n) Soliciting for child prostitution, in violation of section 18-7-402, C.R.S.;

(o) Pandering of a child, in violation of section 18-7-403, C.R.S.;

(p) Procurement of a child, in violation of section 18-7-403.5, C.R.S.;

(q) Keeping a place of child prostitution, in violation of section 18-7-404, C.R.S.;

(r) Pimping of a child, in violation of section 18-7-405, C.R.S.;

(s) Inducement of child prostitution, in violation of section 18-7-405.5, C.R.S.;

(t) Patronizing a prostituted child, in violation of section 18-7-406, C.R.S.;

(u) Criminal attempt, conspiracy, or solicitation to commit any of the offenses specified in this subsection (3);

(v) Class 4 felony internet luring of a child, in violation of section 18-3-306(3), C.R.S.;

(w) Internet sexual exploitation of a child in violation of section 18-3-405.4, C.R.S.;

(x) Public indecency, committed in violation of section 18-7-301(2)(b), if a second offense is committed within five years of the previous offense or a third or subsequent offense is committed;

(y) Invasion of privacy for sexual gratification, as described in section 18-3-405.6;

(z) Unlawful electronic sexual communication, in violation of section 18-3-418; or

(aa) Unlawful sexual conduct by a peace officer, in violation of section 18-3-405.7.

(4) “Treatment” means therapy, monitoring, and supervision of any sex offender which conforms to the standards created by the board pursuant to section 16-11.7-103.

Article 13. Special Proceedings

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 3. Abatement of Public Nuisance

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 16-13-311. Disposition of seized personal property

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any personal property subject to seizure, confiscation, forfeiture, or destruction under the provisions of this part 3, and which is seized as a part of or incident to proceedings under this part 3 for which disposition is not provided by another statute of this state, shall be disposed of as provided in this section.

(2) Any such property which is required by law to be destroyed, or the possession of which is illegal, or which in the opinion of the court is not properly the subject of a sale may be destroyed pursuant to a warrant for the destruction of personal property issued by the court and directed to the sheriff of the proper county or any peace officer and returned by the sheriff or peace officer after execution thereof. The court shall stay the execution of any such warrant during the period in which the property is used as evidence in any pending criminal or civil proceeding.

(3)(a) If the prosecution prevails in the forfeiture action, the court shall order the property forfeited. Such order perfects the state’s right and interest in and title to such property and relates back to the date when title to the property vested in the state pursuant to section 16-13-316. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3)(c) of this section, the court shall also order such property to be sold at a public sale by the law enforcement agency in possession of the property in the manner provided for sales on execution, or in another commercially reasonable manner. Property forfeited pursuant to this section or proceeds therefrom must be distributed or applied in the following order:

(I) To payment of the balances due on any liens perfected on or before the date of seizure preserved by the court in the forfeiture proceedings, in the order of their priority;

(II) To compensate an innocent partial owner for the fair market value of his or her interest in the property;

(III) To any person who suffers bodily injury, property damage, or property loss as a result of the conduct constituting a public nuisance that resulted in such forfeiture, if said person petitions the court therefor prior to the hearing dividing the proceeds pursuant to this section and the court finds that such person suffered said damages as a result of the subject acts that resulted in the forfeiture;

(IV) To the law enforcement agency in possession of the property for reasonable fees and costs of sale, maintenance, and storage of the property;

(V) To the district attorney for actual and reasonable expenses related to the costs of prosecuting the forfeiture proceeding and title transfer not to exceed ten percent of the value of the property;

(VI) One percent of the value of the property to the clerk of the court for administrative costs associated with compliance with this section;

(VII) The balance must be delivered, upon order of the court, as follows:

(A) Fifty percent to the general fund of the governmental body or bodies with budgetary authority over the seizing agency for public safety purposes or, if the seizing agency was a multijurisdictional task force, fifty percent to be distributed in accordance with the appropriate intergovernmental agreement;

(B) Twenty-five percent to the behavioral health administrative services organization contracting with the behavioral health administration in the department of human services serving the judicial district where the forfeiture proceeding was prosecuted to fund detoxification and substance use disorder treatment. Money appropriated to the behavioral health administrative services organization must be in addition to, and not be used to supplant, other funding appropriated to the behavioral health administration; and

(C) Twenty-five percent to the law enforcement community services grant program fund, created pursuant to section 24-32-124(5).

(b) Deleted by Laws 2002, Ch. 244, § 5, eff. July 1, 2002.

(c) If, in a forfeiture proceeding, a partial owner is determined to be an innocent owner under law, at the option of the innocent partial owner, in lieu of a public sale, the innocent partial owner may purchase the forfeited items from the state at a private sale for fair market value. Proceeds received by the state shall be disposed of pursuant to this section.

(d) After a judgment of forfeiture has been entered, any seizing agency in possession of any money forfeited shall deposit the money in the registry of the court where the forfeiture order was entered. Upon the sale of forfeited real or personal property, the seizing agency responsible for overseeing the sale shall ensure that any lienholders are compensated from the proceeds of the sale pursuant to the priorities specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) for their interests in the forfeited property. The seizing agency shall deposit all remaining proceeds from the sale in the registry of the court immediately upon completion of the sale. The seizing agency shall notify the court and the district attorney when all property subject to the forfeiture order has been sold and all proceeds and money have been deposited in the registry of the court where the forfeiture order was entered.

(e) Within thirty-five days after the date the order of forfeiture is entered, the district attorney may submit a motion, an affidavit, and any supporting documentation to the court to request compensation consistent with this section. Within thirty-five days after the date the order of forfeiture is entered, any victim of the criminal act giving rise to the forfeiture may submit a request for compensation, an affidavit, and supporting documentation to the district attorney to request compensation from the forfeiture proceeds.

(f) Within fourteen days after the date a seizing agency notifies the court that all property forfeited has been sold and all proceeds and money have been deposited in the registry of the court where the forfeiture order was entered, the seizing agency may submit a motion, an affidavit, and supporting documentation to the court for reimbursement of expenses consistent with this section. In its motion, the seizing agency shall identify any other seizing agencies that participated in the seizure and specify the details of any intergovernmental agreement regarding sharing of proceeds. The seizing agency shall send a copy of this motion to the district attorney.

(g) The district attorney shall prepare a motion and proposed order for distribution based upon the motions and requests submitted by the parties. The order shall include allocation of one percent of the value of the property to the clerk of the court for the direct and indirect costs incurred by the clerk in implementing the provisions of this subsection (3). The district attorney shall send copies to all remaining interested parties.

(h) Any party shall have fourteen days after filing of the proposed order to file any objections to the proposed order filed by the district attorney.

(3.5) Instead of liens and encumbrances on real property being satisfied from the proceeds of sale, real property may be sold subject to all liens or encumbrances on record. The purchase of the property by the successful bidder under this subsection (3.5) shall be conditioned on the bidder satisfying and obtaining the release of the first and second priority liens within sixty-three days after the sale, or obtaining written authorization from those lien holders for the bidder to receive the sheriff’s deed which shall be issued after such satisfaction or authorization. The purchaser of the property shall take title free of any lien, encumbrance, or cloud on the title recorded after title vests in the state pursuant to section 16-13-316.

(4) It is the intent of the general assembly that moneys allocated to a seizing agency pursuant to subsection (3) of this section shall not be considered a source of revenue to meet normal operating needs.

(5) If more than one seizing agency was substantially involved in effecting the forfeiture, the agencies shall enter into a stipulation with regard to costs incurred by the agencies and the percentage of any remaining proceeds to be deposited for the benefit of the agencies or any property to be directly forfeited for use of such agencies. Upon the filing by such agencies of such stipulation with the court, the court shall order the proceeds or property so distributed. If the agencies are unable to reach an agreement, the court shall take testimony and equitably distribute the proceeds.

(6) The state shall issue a certificate of title for a vehicle to the purchaser or seizing agency if said vehicle is acquired pursuant to this part 3.

Article 22. Colorado Sex Offender Registration Act

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 16-22-102. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this article 22, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Adjudicated” or “adjudication” means a determination by the court that it has been proven beyond a reasonable doubt to the trier of fact that a juvenile has committed a delinquent act or that a juvenile has pled guilty to committing a delinquent act. In addition, when a previous conviction must be pled and proven as an element of an offense or for purposes of sentence enhancement, “adjudication” means conviction.

(1.5) “Birthday” means a person’s birthday as reflected on the notice provided to the person pursuant to section 16-22-106 or 16-22-107 or the person’s actual date of birth if the notice does not reflect the person’s birthday.

(2) “CBI” means the Colorado bureau of investigation established pursuant to part 4 of article 33.5 of title 24, C.R.S.

(3) “Convicted” or “conviction” means having received a verdict of guilty by a judge or jury, having pleaded guilty or nolo contendere, having received a disposition as a juvenile, having been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent, or having received a deferred judgment and sentence or a deferred adjudication.

(3.5) “Employed at an institution of postsecondary education” means a person:

(a) Is employed by or is an independent contractor with an institution of postsecondary education or is employed by or is an independent contractor with an entity that contracts with an institution of postsecondary education; and

(b) Spends any period of time in furtherance of the employment or independent contractor relationship on the campus of the postsecondary institution or at a site that is owned or leased by the postsecondary institution.

(4) “Immediate family” means a person’s spouse, parent, grandparent, sibling, or child.

(4.2) “Juvenile” means a person who is under eighteen years of age at the time of the offense and who has not been criminally convicted in the district court of unlawful sexual behavior pursuant to section 19-2.5-801 or 19-2.5-802.

(4.3)(a) “Lacks a fixed residence” means that a person does not have a living situation that meets the definition of “residence” pursuant to subsection (5.7) of this section. “Lacks a fixed residence” may include, but need not be limited to, outdoor sleeping locations or any public or private locations not designed as traditional living accommodations. “Lacks a fixed residence” may also include temporary public or private housing or temporary shelter facilities, residential treatment facilities, or any other residential program or facility if the person remains at the location for less than fourteen days.

(b) “Lacks a fixed residence” also includes a person who is registered in any jurisdiction if the person:

(I) Ceases to reside at an address in that jurisdiction; and

(II) Fails to register:

(A) A change of address in the same jurisdiction; or

(B) In a new jurisdiction pursuant to section 16-22-108(4); or

(C) Pursuant to section 16-22-108(3).

(4.5) “Local law enforcement agency” means the law enforcement agency, including but not limited to a campus police agency, that has jurisdiction over a certain geographic area.

(5) “Register” and “registration” include initial registration pursuant to section 16-22-104, and registration, confirmation of registration, and reregistration, as required in section 16-22-108.

(5.5) “Registrant” means a person who is required to register in accordance with this article.

(5.7) “Residence” means a place or dwelling that is used, intended to be used, or usually used for habitation by a person who is required to register pursuant to section 16-22-103. “Residence” may include, but need not be limited to, a temporary shelter or institution, if the person resides at the temporary shelter or institution for fourteen consecutive days or longer, if the owner of the shelter or institution consents to the person utilizing the shelter or institution as his or her registered address as required by section 16-22-106(4) or 16-22-107(4)(a), and if the residence of the person at the shelter or institution can be verified as required by section 16-22-109(3.5). A person may establish multiple residences by residing in more than one place or dwelling.

(5.8) “Resides” includes residence and lacks a fixed residence.

(6) “Sex offender registry” means the Colorado sex offender registry created and maintained by the CBI pursuant to section 16-22-110.

(7) “Sexually violent predator” means a person who is found to be a sexually violent predator pursuant to section 18-3-414.5, C.R.S.

(8) “Temporary resident” means a person who is a resident of another state but in Colorado temporarily because the person is:

(a) Employed in this state on a full-time or part-time basis, with or without compensation, for more than fourteen consecutive business days or for an aggregate period of more than thirty days in any calendar year; or

(b) Enrolled in any type of educational institution in this state on a full-time or part-time basis; or

(c) Present in Colorado for more than fourteen consecutive business days or for an aggregate period of more than thirty days in a calendar year for any purpose, including but not limited to vacation, travel, or retirement.

(9) “Unlawful sexual behavior” means any of the following offenses or criminal attempt, conspiracy, or solicitation to commit any of the following offenses:

(a)(I) Sexual assault, in violation of section 18-3-402, C.R.S.; or

(II) Sexual assault in the first degree, in violation of section 18-3-402, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(b) Sexual assault in the second degree, in violation of section 18-3-403, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(c)(I) Unlawful sexual contact, in violation of section 18-3-404, C.R.S.; or

(II) Sexual assault in the third degree, in violation of section 18-3-404, C.R.S., as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(d) Sexual assault on a child, in violation of section 18-3-405, C.R.S.;

(e) Sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust, in violation of section 18-3-405.3, C.R.S.;

(f) Sexual assault on a client by a psychotherapist, in violation of section 18-3-405.5, C.R.S.;

(g) Enticement of a child, in violation of section 18-3-305, C.R.S.;

(h) Incest, in violation of section 18-6-301, C.R.S.;

(i) Aggravated incest, in violation of section 18-6-302, C.R.S.;

(j) Human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude, as described in section 18-3-504(2), C.R.S.;

(j.5) Human trafficking for sexual servitude, as described in section 18-3-504(1);

(k) Sexual exploitation of children, in violation of section 18-6-403, C.R.S.;

(l) Procurement of a child for sexual exploitation, in violation of section 18-6-404, C.R.S.;

(m) Indecent exposure, in violation of section 18-7-302, C.R.S.;

(n) Soliciting for child prostitution, in violation of section 18-7-402, C.R.S.;

(o) Pandering of a child, in violation of section 18-7-403, C.R.S.;

(p) Procurement of a child, in violation of section 18-7-403.5, C.R.S.;

(q) Keeping a place of child prostitution, in violation of section 18-7-404, C.R.S.;

(r) Pimping of a child, in violation of section 18-7-405, C.R.S.;

(s) Inducement of child prostitution, in violation of section 18-7-405.5, C.R.S.;

(t) Patronizing a prostituted child, in violation of section 18-7-406, C.R.S.;

(u) Engaging in sexual conduct in a correctional institution, in violation of section 18-7-701, C.R.S.;

(v) Wholesale promotion of obscenity to a minor, in violation of section 18-7-102(1.5), C.R.S.;

(w) Promotion of obscenity to a minor, in violation of section 18-7-102(2.5), C.R.S.;

(x) Class 4 felony internet luring of a child, in violation of section 18-3-306(3), C.R.S.;

(y) Internet sexual exploitation of a child, in violation of section 18-3-405.4, C.R.S.;

(z) Public indecency, committed in violation of section 18-7-301(2)(b), C.R.S., if a second offense is committed within five years of the previous offense or a third or subsequent offense is committed;

(aa) Invasion of privacy for sexual gratification, in violation of section 18-3-405.6;

(bb) Second degree kidnapping, if committed in violation of section 18-3-302(3)(a);

(cc) Unlawful electronic sexual communication, in violation of section 18-3-418; or

(dd) Unlawful sexual conduct by a peace officer, in violation of section 18-3-405.7.

Title 18. Criminal Code

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Article 1. Provisions Applicable to Offenses Generally

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 7. Justification and Exemptions from Criminal Responsibility

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-1-704. Use of physical force in defense of a person--definitions

Actualizada: 
31 de enero de 2024

(1) Except as provided in subsections (2) and (3) of this section, a person is justified in using physical force upon another person in order to defend himself or a third person from what he reasonably believes to be the use or imminent use of unlawful physical force by that other person, and he may use a degree of force which he reasonably believes to be necessary for that purpose.

(2) Deadly physical force may be used only if a person reasonably believes a lesser degree of force is inadequate and:

(a) The actor has reasonable ground to believe, and does believe, that he or another person is in imminent danger of being killed or of receiving great bodily injury; or

(b) The other person is using or reasonably appears about to use physical force against an occupant of a dwelling or business establishment while committing or attempting to commit burglary as defined in sections 18-4-202 to 18-4-204; or

(c) The other person is committing or reasonably appears about to commit kidnapping as defined in section 18-3-301 or 18-3-302, robbery as defined in section 18-4-301 or 18-4-302, sexual assault as set forth in section 18-3-402, or in section 18-3-403 as it existed prior to July 1, 2000, or assault as defined in sections 18-3-202 and 18-3-203.

(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1) of this section, a person is not justified in using physical force if:

(a) With intent to cause bodily injury or death to another person, he provokes the use of unlawful physical force by that other person; or

(b) He or she is the initial aggressor; except that his or her use of physical force upon another person under the circumstances is justifiable if he or she withdraws from the encounter and effectively communicates to the other person his or her intent to do so, but the latter nevertheless continues or threatens the use of unlawful physical force;

(c) The physical force involved is the product of a combat by agreement not specifically authorized by law; or

(d) The use of physical force against another is based on the discovery of, knowledge about, or potential disclosure of the victim’s actual or perceived gender, gender identity, gender expression, or sexual orientation, including but not limited to under circumstances in which the victim made an unwanted nonforcible romantic or sexual advance toward the defendant. Nothing in this subsection (3)(d) precludes the admission of evidence, which is otherwise admissible, of a victim’s or witness’s conduct, behavior, or statements.

(4) In a case in which the defendant is not entitled to a jury instruction regarding self-defense as an affirmative defense, the court shall allow the defendant to present evidence, when relevant, that he or she was acting in self-defense. If the defendant presents evidence of self-defense, the court shall instruct the jury with a self-defense law instruction. The court shall instruct the jury that it may consider the evidence of self-defense in determining whether the defendant acted recklessly, with extreme indifference, or in a criminally negligent manner. However, the self-defense law instruction shall not be an affirmative defense instruction and the prosecuting attorney shall not have the burden of disproving self-defense. This section shall not apply to strict liability crimes.

(5) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Gender identity” and “gender expression” have the same meaning as in section 18-1-901(3)(h.5).

(b) “Intimate relationship” has the same meaning as in section 18-6-800.3.

(c) “Sexual orientation” has the same meaning as in section 18-9-121(5)(b).

Part 9. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-1-901. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Definitions set forth in any section of this title apply wherever the same term is used in the same sense in another section of this title unless the definition is specifically limited or the context indicates that it is inapplicable.

(2) The terms defined in section 18-1-104 and in section 18-1-501, as well as the terms defined in subsection (3) of this section, are terms which appear in various articles of this code. Other terms which need definition but which are used only in a limited number of sections of this code are defined in the particular section or article in which the terms appear.

(3)(a) “To aid” or “to assist” includes knowingly to give or lend money or extend credit to be used for, or to make possible or available, or to further the activity thus aided or assisted.

(b) “Benefit” means any gain or advantage to the beneficiary including any gain or advantage to another person pursuant to the desire or consent of the beneficiary.

(c) “Bodily injury” means physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical or mental condition.

(d) “Deadly physical force” means force, the intended, natural, and probable consequence of which is to produce death, and which does, in fact, produce death.

(e) “Deadly weapon” means:

(I) A firearm, whether loaded or unloaded; or

(II) A knife, bludgeon, or any other weapon, device, instrument, material, or substance, whether animate or inanimate, that, in the manner it is used or intended to be used, is capable of producing death or serious bodily injury.

(III), (IV) Deleted by Laws 2013, Ch. 39, § 1, eff. March 15, 2013.

(f) “Deface” means to alter the appearance of something by removing, distorting, adding to, or covering all or a part of the thing.

(g) “Dwelling” means a building which is used, intended to be used, or usually used by a person for habitation.

(h) “Firearm” means any handgun, automatic, revolver, pistol, rifle, shotgun, or other instrument or device capable or intended to be capable of discharging bullets, cartridges, or other explosive charges.

(h.5) “Gender identity” and “gender expression” mean a person’s gender-related identity and gender-related appearance or behavior whether or not that gender-related identity, appearance, or behavior is associated with the person’s assigned sex at birth.

(i) “Government” includes the United States, any state, county, municipality, or other political unit, any branch, department, agency, or subdivision of any of the foregoing, and any corporation or other entity established by law to carry out any governmental function.

(j) “Governmental function” includes any activity which a public servant is legally authorized to undertake on behalf of government.

(k) “Motor vehicle” includes any self-propelled device by which persons or property may be moved, carried, or transported from one place to another by land, water, or air, except devices operated on rails, tracks, or cables fixed to the ground or supported by pylons, towers, or other structures.

(l) Repealed by Laws 2003, Ch. 242, § 1, eff. Aug. 6, 2003.

(m) “Pecuniary benefit” means benefit in the form of money, property, commercial interests, or anything else, the primary significance of which is economic gain.

(n) “Public place” means a place to which the public or a substantial number of the public has access, and includes but is not limited to highways, transportation facilities, schools, places of amusement, parks, playgrounds, and the common areas of public and private buildings and facilities.

(o) “Public servant” means any officer or employee of government, whether elected or appointed, and any person participating as an advisor, consultant, process server, or otherwise in performing a governmental function, but the term does not include witnesses.

(o.5) “Restorative justice practices” means practices that emphasize repairing the harm caused to victims and the community by offenses. Restorative justice practices include victim-offender conferences, family group conferences, circles, community conferences, and other similar victim-centered practices. Restorative justice practices are facilitated meetings attended voluntarily by the victim or victim’s representatives, the victim’s supporters, the offender, and the offender’s supporters and may include community members. By engaging the parties to the offense in voluntary dialogue, restorative justice practices provide an opportunity for the offender to accept responsibility for the harm caused to the victim and community, promote victim healing, and enable the participants to agree on consequences to repair the harm, to the extent possible, including but not limited to apologies, community service, reparation, restoration, and counseling. Restorative justice practices may be used in addition to any other conditions, consequences, or sentence imposed by the court.

(p) “Serious bodily injury” means bodily injury that, either at the time of the actual injury or at a later time, involves a substantial risk of death; a substantial risk of serious permanent disfigurement; a substantial risk of protracted loss or impairment of the function of any part or organ of the body; or breaks, fractures, a penetrating knife or penetrating gunshot wound, or burns of the second or third degree.

(q) “Tamper” means to interfere with something improperly, to meddle with it, or to make unwarranted alterations in its condition.

(r) “Thing of value” includes real property, tangible and intangible personal property, contract rights, choses in action, services, confidential information, medical records information, and any rights of use or enjoyment connected therewith.

(s) “Utility” means an enterprise which provides gas, sewer, electric, steam, water, transportation, or communication services, and includes any carrier, pipeline, transmitter, or source, whether publicly or privately owned or operated.

Part 10. Orders and Proceedings Against Defendant

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-1-1001. Protection order against defendant

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) There is created a mandatory protection order against any person charged with a criminal violation of any of the provisions of this title 18, which order remains in effect from the time that the person is advised of the person’s rights at arraignment or the person’s first appearance before the court and informed of such order until final disposition of the action. Such order restrains the person charged from harassing, molesting, intimidating, retaliating against, or tampering with any witness to or victim of the acts charged. The protection order issued pursuant to this section must be on a standardized form prescribed by the judicial department, and a copy provided to the protected parties.

(2) At the time of arraignment or the person’s first appearance before the court, the court shall inform the defendant of the protection order effective pursuant to this section and shall inform the defendant that a violation of such order is punishable by contempt.

(3)(a) Nothing in this section precludes the defendant from applying to the court at any time for modification or dismissal of the protection order issued pursuant to this section or the district attorney from applying to the court at any time for further orders, additional provisions under the protection order, or modification or dismissal of the same. The trial court retains jurisdiction to enforce, modify, or dismiss the protection order until final disposition of the action. Upon motion of the district attorney or on the court’s own motion for the protection of the alleged victim or witness, the court may, in cases involving domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1) and cases involving crimes listed in section 24-4.1-302, except those listed in subsections (1)(cc.5) and (1)(cc.6) of that section, enter any of the following further orders against the defendant:

(I) An order to vacate or stay away from the home of the alleged victim or witness and to stay away from any other location where the victim or witness is likely to be found;

(II) An order to refrain from contact or direct or indirect communication with the alleged victim or witness;

(III) An order prohibiting possession or control of firearms or other weapons;

(IV) An order prohibiting possession or consumption of alcohol or controlled substances;

(V) An order prohibiting the taking, transferring, concealing, harming, disposing of, or threatening to harm an animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by an alleged victim or witness; and

(VI) Any other order the court deems appropriate to protect the safety of the alleged victim or witness.

(b) Any further orders issued pursuant to subsection (3)(a) of this section are for the protection of a victim or witness and not for the protection of the defendant, including for the protection of the defendant from the use of alcohol or other substances.

(4) Any person failing to comply with a protection order issued pursuant to this section commits the crime of violation of a protection order and may be punished as provided in section 18-6-803.5.

(5) Before a defendant is released on bail pursuant to article 4 of title 16, C.R.S., the court shall, in cases involving domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), in cases of stalking pursuant to section 18-3-602, or in cases involving unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102(9), C.R.S., state the terms of the protection order issued pursuant to this section, including any additional provisions added pursuant to subsection (3) of this section, to the defendant on the record, and the court shall further require the defendant to acknowledge the protection order in court and in writing prior to release as a condition of any bond for the release of the defendant. The prosecuting attorney shall, in such domestic violence cases, stalking cases, or in cases involving unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102(9), C.R.S., notify the alleged victim, the complainant, and the protected person of the order if such persons are not present at the time the protection order is issued.

(6) The defendant or, in cases involving domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), in cases of stalking pursuant to section 18-3-602, or in cases involving unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102(9), C.R.S., the prosecuting attorney may request a hearing before the court to modify the terms of a protection order issued pursuant to this section. Upon such a request, the court shall set a hearing and the prosecuting attorney shall send notice of the hearing to the defendant and the alleged victim. At the hearing the court shall review the terms of the protection order and any further orders entered and shall consider the modifications, if any, requested by the defendant or the prosecuting attorney.

(7) The duties of peace officers enforcing orders issued pursuant to this section shall be in accordance with section 18-6-803.5 and any rules adopted by the Colorado supreme court pursuant to said section.

(8) For purposes of this section:

(a) “Court” means the trial court or a designee of the trial court.

(a.5) “Protection order” shall include a restraining order entered pursuant to this section prior to July 1, 2003.

(b) “Until final disposition of the action” means until the case is dismissed, until the defendant is acquitted, until the defendant completes the defendant’s sentence, or until the defendant’s commitment is terminated and the defendant is discharged from supervision following a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to section 16-8-115. Any defendant sentenced to probation is deemed to have completed the defendant’s sentence upon discharge from probation. A defendant sentenced to incarceration is deemed to have completed the defendant’s sentence upon release from incarceration and discharge from parole supervision.

(9)(a) Order requirements. When the court subjects a defendant to a mandatory protection order that the court, using the probable cause standard of review, determines on the record after reviewing the probable cause statement or arrest warrant that the order includes a crime that includes an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), and the act of domestic violence involved the threat of use, use of, or attempted use of physical force, the court, as part of such order:

(I) Shall order the defendant to:

(A) Refrain from possessing or purchasing any firearm or ammunition for the duration of the order; and

(B) Relinquish, for the duration of the order, any firearm or ammunition in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control; and

(II) May require that before the defendant is released from custody on bond, the defendant relinquish, for the duration of the order, any firearm or ammunition in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control; and

(III) Shall schedule a compliance hearing pursuant to subsection (9)(e) of this section and notify the defendant of the hearing date and that the defendant shall appear at the hearing in person unless the hearing is vacated pursuant to subsection (9)(e)(I) of this section.

(b) Time period to relinquish. Upon issuance of an order pursuant to subsection (9)(a) of this section, the defendant shall relinquish, in accordance with subsection (9)(d) of this section, any firearm or ammunition not more than twenty-four hours, excluding legal holidays and weekends, after being served with the order; except that a court may allow a defendant additional time based on a showing of good cause to relinquish a firearm if the defendant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the court that the defendant is unable to comply within the time frame set forth in this subsection (9)(b).

(c) Additional time to comply if defendant is in custody. If a defendant is unable to satisfy the provisions of this subsection (9) because the defendant is incarcerated or otherwise held in the custody of a law enforcement agency, the court shall require the defendant to satisfy the provisions of this subsection (9) not more than twenty-four hours, excluding legal holidays and weekends, after the defendant’s release from incarceration or custody or be held in contempt of court. Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (9)(c), the court may, in its discretion, require the defendant to relinquish any firearm or ammunition in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control before the end of the defendant’s incarceration or release from custody. In such a case, a defendant’s failure to relinquish a firearm or ammunition as required constitutes contempt of court.

(d) Relinquishment options. To satisfy the requirement in subsection (9)(b) of this section, the defendant shall either:

(I) Sell or transfer possession of the firearm or ammunition to a federally licensed firearms dealer described in 18 U.S.C. sec. 923, as amended; except that this provision must not be interpreted to require any federally licensed firearms dealer to purchase or accept possession of any firearm or ammunition; or

(II) Arrange for the storage of the firearm or ammunition by a law enforcement agency or by a storage facility with which the law enforcement agency has contracted for the storage of transferred firearms or ammunition, pursuant to subsection (9)(g) of this section; except that this provision must not be interpreted to require any law enforcement agency to provide storage of firearms or ammunition for any person; or

(III) Sell or otherwise transfer the firearm or ammunition to a private party who may legally possess the firearm or ammunition; except that a defendant who sells or transfers a firearm pursuant to this subsection (9)(d)(III) shall satisfy all of the provisions of section 18-12-112 concerning private firearms transfers, including but not limited to the performance of a criminal background check of the transferee.

(e) Compliance hearing, conditions of release on bond, and affidavit. (I) The court shall conduct a compliance hearing to ensure the defendant has complied with this subsection (9) by requiring the defendant to comply with subsection (9)(e)(II) of this section. The court may consider the issue in other proceedings before the court in the criminal case. The hearing is considered a court action involving a bond reduction or modification as described in section 24-4.1-302(2)(c). A defendant shall comply with section 16-4-105(4.1) as it relates to the conditions of release on bond. The court may vacate the hearing if the court determines that the defendant has completed the affidavit described in subsection (9)(e)(II) of this section. Failure to appear at a hearing described in this subsection (9)(e)(I) constitutes contempt of court.

(II) The defendant shall complete an affidavit, which must be filed in the court record within seven business days after the order is issued, stating the number of firearms in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control, the make and model of each firearm, any reason the defendant is still in immediate possession or control of such firearm, and the location of each firearm. If the defendant does not possess a firearm at the time the order is issued pursuant to subsection (9)(a) of this section, the defendant shall indicate such nonpossession in the affidavit.

(III) If the defendant possessed a firearm at the time of the qualifying incident giving rise to the duty to relinquish the firearm pursuant to this subsection (9) but transferred or sold the firearm to a private party prior to the court’s issuance of the order, the defendant shall disclose the sale or transfer of the firearm to the private party in the affidavit described in subsection (9)(e)(II) of this section. The defendant, within seven business days after the relinquishment period established by the court pursuant to this subsection (9), shall acquire a written receipt and signed declaration that complies with subsection (9)(h)(I)(A) of this section, and the defendant shall file the signed declaration at the same time the defendant files the affidavit pursuant to subsection (9)(e)(II) of this section.

(IV) No testimony or other information compelled pursuant to this subsection (9), or any information directly or indirectly derived from such testimony or other information, may be used against the defendant in any criminal case, except prosecution for perjury pursuant to section 18-8-503.

(V) The state court administrator shall develop the affidavit described in subsection (9)(e)(II) of this section and all other forms necessary to implement this subsection (9) no later than January 1, 2022. State courts may use the forms developed by the state court administrator pursuant to this subsection (9)(e) or another form of the court’s choosing, so long as the forms comply with the requirements of this subsection (9)(e).

(VI) Upon the sworn statement or testimony of the petitioner or of any law enforcement officer alleging there is probable cause to believe the respondent has failed to comply with the provisions of this section, the court shall determine whether probable cause exists to believe that the respondent has failed to relinquish all firearms or a concealed carry permit in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession. If probable cause exists, the court shall issue a search warrant that states with particularity the places to be searched and the items to be taken into custody.

(f) Relinquishment to a federally licensed firearms dealer. A federally licensed firearms dealer who takes possession of a firearm or ammunition pursuant to this subsection (9) shall issue a written receipt and signed declaration to the defendant at the time of relinquishment. The declaration must memorialize the sale or transfer of the firearm. The federally licensed firearms dealer shall not return the firearm or ammunition to the defendant unless the dealer:

(I) Contacts the Colorado bureau of investigation, referred to in this subsection (9) as the “bureau”, to request that a criminal background check of the defendant be performed; and

(II) Obtains approval of the transfer from the bureau after the performance of the criminal background check.

(g) Storage by a law enforcement agency or storage facility. (I) A local law enforcement agency may elect to store firearms or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (9). The law enforcement agency may enter into an agreement with any other law enforcement agency or storage facility for the storage of transferred firearms or ammunition. If a law enforcement agency elects to store firearms or ammunition for a defendant:

(A) The law enforcement agency may charge a fee for the storage, the amount of which must not exceed the direct and indirect costs incurred by the law enforcement agency in providing the storage;

(B) The law enforcement agency shall establish policies for disposal of abandoned or stolen firearms or ammunition; and

(C) The law enforcement agency shall issue a written receipt and signed declaration to the defendant at the time of relinquishment. The declaration must memorialize the sale or transfer of the firearm.

(II) If a local law enforcement agency elects to store firearms or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (9)(g), the law enforcement agency shall not return the firearm or ammunition to the defendant unless the law enforcement agency:

(A) Contacts the bureau to request that a criminal background check of the defendant be performed; and

(B) Obtains approval of the transfer from the bureau after the performance of the criminal background check.

(III)(A) A law enforcement agency that elects to store a firearm or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (9) may elect to cease storing the firearm or ammunition. A law enforcement agency that elects to cease storing a firearm or ammunition for a defendant shall notify the defendant of the decision and request that the defendant immediately make arrangements for the transfer of the possession of the firearm or ammunition to the defendant or, if the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm, to another person who is legally permitted to possess a firearm.

(B) If a law enforcement agency elects to cease storing a firearm or ammunition for a defendant and notifies the defendant as described in subsection (9)(g)(III)(A) of this section, the law enforcement agency may dispose of the firearm or ammunition if the defendant fails to make arrangements for the transfer of the firearm or ammunition and complete the transfer within ninety days after receiving the notification.

(IV) A law enforcement agency that elects to store a firearm or ammunition shall obtain a search warrant to examine or test the firearm or ammunition or facilitate a criminal investigation if a law enforcement agency has probable cause to believe the firearm or ammunition has been used in the commission of a crime, is stolen, or is contraband. This subsection (9)(g)(IV) does not preclude a law enforcement agency from conducting a routine inspection of the firearm or ammunition prior to accepting the firearm for storage.

(h) Relinquishment to a private party. (I) If a defendant sells or otherwise transfers a firearm or ammunition to a private party who may legally possess the firearm or ammunition, as described in subsection (9)(d)(III) of this section, the defendant shall acquire:

(A) From the federally licensed firearms dealer, a written receipt and signed declaration memorializing the transfer, which receipt must be dated and signed by the defendant, the transferee, and the federally licensed firearms dealer; and

(B) From the federally licensed firearms dealer who requests from the bureau a criminal background check of the transferee, as described in section 18-12-112, a written statement of the results of the criminal background check.

(II) The defendant shall not transfer the firearm to a private party living in the same residence as the defendant at the time of the transfer.

(III) Notwithstanding section 18-12-112, if a private party elects to store a firearm for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (9), the private party shall not return the firearm to the defendant unless the private party acquires from the federally licensed firearms dealer who requests from the bureau a criminal background check of the defendant, a written statement of the results of the background check authorizing the return of the firearm to the defendant.

(i) Requirement to file signed declaration. (I) The defendant shall file a copy of the signed declaration issued pursuant to subsection (9)(f), (9)(g)(I)(C), or (9)(h)(I)(A) of this section, and, if applicable, the written statement of the results of a criminal background check performed on the defendant, as described in subsection (9)(h)(I)(B) of this section, with the court as proof of the relinquishment at the same time the defendant files the signed affidavit pursuant to subsection (9)(e)(II) of this section. The signed declaration and written statement filed pursuant to this subsection (9)(i) are only available for inspection by the court and the parties to the proceeding. If a defendant fails to timely transfer or sell a firearm or file the signed declaration or written statement as described in this subsection (9)(i)(I):

(A) The failure constitutes a violation of the protection order pursuant to section 18-6-803.5(1)(c); and

(B) The court shall issue a warrant for the defendant’s arrest.

(II) In any subsequent prosecution for a violation of a protection order described in this subsection (9)(i), the court shall take judicial notice of the defendant’s failure to transfer or sell a firearm, or file the signed declaration or written statement, which constitutes prima facie evidence of a violation of the protection order pursuant to section 18-6-803.5(1)(c), and testimony of the clerk of the court or the clerk of the court’s deputy is not required.

(j) Nothing in this subsection (9) limits a defendant’s right to petition the court for dismissal of a protection order.

(k) A defendant subject to a mandatory protection order issued pursuant to this subsection (9) who possesses or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm or ammunition while the protection order is in effect violates the order pursuant to section 18-6-803.5(1)(c).

(l)(I) A law enforcement agency that elects in good faith to not store a firearm or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to subsection (9)(g) of this section is not criminally or civilly liable for such inaction.

(II) A law enforcement agency that returns possession of a firearm or ammunition to a defendant in good faith as permitted by subsection (9)(g) of this section is not criminally or civilly liable for such action.

(m) Immunity. A federally licensed firearms dealer, law enforcement agency, storage facility, or private party that elects to store a firearm pursuant to this subsection (9) is not civilly liable for any resulting damages to the firearm, as long as such damage did not result from the willful and wrongful act or gross negligence of the federally licensed firearms dealer, law enforcement agency, storage facility, or private party.

(10) The issuance of a protection order pursuant to this section does not preclude a court from issuing a protective order in a civil proceeding.

Article 1.3 Sentencing in Criminal Cases

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 2. Probation

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-1.3-204. Conditions of probation--interstate compact probation transfer cash fund--creation

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) The conditions of probation shall be such as the court in its discretion deems reasonably necessary to ensure that the defendant will lead a law-abiding life and to assist the defendant in doing so. The court shall provide as explicit conditions of every sentence to probation that the defendant not commit another offense during the period for which the sentence remains subject to revocation, that the defendant make restitution pursuant to part 6 of this article and article 18.5 of title 16, C.R.S., that the defendant comply with any court orders regarding substance abuse testing and treatment issued pursuant to sections 18-1.3-209 and 18-1.3-211 and article 11.5 of title 16, C.R.S., and that the defendant comply with any court orders regarding the treatment of sex offenders issued pursuant to article 11.7 of title 16, C.R.S. The court shall provide as an explicit condition of every sentence to probation that the defendant not harass, molest, intimidate, retaliate against, or tamper with the victim of or any prosecution witnesses to the crime, unless the court makes written findings that such condition is not necessary.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1)(a) of this section, unless the defendant is sentenced to probation for a conviction of a crime under article 10 of title 44, the possession or use of medical marijuana, as authorized pursuant to section 14 of article XVIII of the state constitution, shall not be considered another offense such that its use constitutes a violation of the terms of probation.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1)(a) of this section, the possession or use of natural medicine or natural medicine product, as authorized pursuant to section 18-18-434, article 170 of title 12, or article 50 of title 44, must not be considered another offense such that its use constitutes a violation of the terms of probation.

(1.5) If the defendant is being sentenced to probation as a result of a conviction of a felony offense or a qualifying misdemeanor offense pursuant to the “Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision”, part 28 of article 60 of title 24, C.R.S., a condition of probation shall be that the court shall require the defendant to execute or subscribe a written prior waiver of extradition stating that the defendant consents to extradition to this state and waives all formal proceedings in the event that he or she is arrested in another state while at liberty on such bail bond and acknowledging that he or she shall not be admitted to bail in any other state pending extradition to this state. If the offender is returned to the state pursuant to the “Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision”, part 28 of article 60 of title 24, C.R.S., a court may not impose the cost of the offender’s return on the offender.

(2)(a) When granting probation, the court may, as a condition of probation, require that the defendant:

(I) Work faithfully at a suitable employment or faithfully pursue a course of study or of vocational training that will equip the defendant for suitable employment;

(II) Undergo available medical or psychiatric treatment and remain in a specified institution if required for that purpose. In any case where inpatient psychiatric treatment is indicated, the court shall proceed in accordance with article 65 of title 27 and require the defendant to comply with the recommendation of the professional person in charge of the evaluation required pursuant to section 27-65-106.

(III) Attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction, recreation, or residence of persons on probation;

(III.5) Participate in restorative justice practices, as defined in section 18-1-901(3)(o.5), if available in the jurisdiction, and the defendant is determined suitable by a designated restorative justice practices facilitator. If a defendant wants to participate in restorative justice practices, the defendant must make the request to the district attorney or the law enforcement agency administering the program and may not make the request to the victim. If requested by the defendant, district attorney, or law enforcement agency, a victim-offender conference may only be conducted after the victim is consulted by the district attorney and offered the opportunity to participate or submit a victim impact statement. If a victim elects not to attend, a victim offender conference may be held with a suitable victim surrogate or victim advocate, and the victim may submit a victim-impact statement. To be eligible for restorative justice practices, the defendant shall not have been convicted of unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102(9), C.R.S., a crime in which the underlying factual basis involves domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), stalking as defined in section 18-3-602, or violation of a protection order as defined in section 18-6-803.5. Any statements made during a restorative justice conference shall be confidential and shall not be used as a basis for charging or prosecuting the defendant unless the defendant commits a chargeable offense during the conference. Failure to complete the requirements arising from a restorative justice conference may be considered a violation of probation. Nothing in this subparagraph (III.5) shall be construed to require a victim to participate in restorative justice practices or a restorative justice victim-offender conference.

(IV) Support the defendant’s dependents and meet other family responsibilities, including arranging and fulfilling a payment plan for current child support, child support arrearages, and child support debt due under a court or administrative order through any delegate child support enforcement unit that may have a child support case with the defendant;

(V) Pay reasonable costs of the court proceedings or costs of supervision of probation, or both. The probation supervision fee shall be fifty dollars per month for the length of ordered probation. Notwithstanding the amount specified in this subparagraph (V), the court may lower the costs of supervision of probation to an amount the defendant will be able to pay. The court shall fix the manner of performance for payment of the fee. If the defendant receives probation services from a private provider, the court shall order the defendant to pay the probation supervision fee directly to the provider. The fee shall be imposed for the length of ordered probation.

(VI) Pay any fines or fees imposed by the court;

(VI.5) Repay all or part of any reward paid by a crime stopper organization that led to the defendant’s arrest and conviction in accordance with article 15.7 of title 16, C.R.S.;

(VII) Refrain from possessing a firearm, destructive device, or other dangerous weapon unless granted written permission by the court or probation officer;

(VIII) Refrain from excessive use of alcohol or any unlawful use of controlled substances, as defined in section 18-18-102 (5), or of any other dangerous or abusable drug without a prescription; except that the court shall not, as a condition of probation, prohibit the possession or use of natural medicine or natural medicine product, as authorized pursuant to section 18-18-434, article 170 of title 12, or article 50 of title 44. Furthermore, the court shall not, as a condition of probation, prohibit the possession or use of medical marijuana, as authorized pursuant to section 14 of article XVIII of the state constitution, unless:

(A) The defendant is sentenced to probation for conviction of a crime under article 10 of title 44; or

(B) The court determines, based on any material evidence, that a prohibition against the possession or use of medical marijuana is necessary and appropriate to accomplish the goals of sentencing as stated in section 18-1-102.5;

(IX) Report to a probation officer at reasonable times as directed by the court or the probation officer;

(X) Permit the probation officer to visit the defendant at reasonable times at the defendant’s home and elsewhere;

(XI) Remain within the jurisdiction of the court, unless granted permission to leave by the court or the probation officer;

(XII) Answer all reasonable inquiries by the probation officer and promptly notify the probation officer of any change in address or employment;

(XIII) Be subject to home detention as defined in section 18-1.3-106(1.1);

(XIV) Be restrained from contact with the victim or the victim’s family members in cases in which the defendant was convicted of a crime, the underlying factual basis of which included an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1);

(XIV.5) Be subject to electronic or global position monitoring;

(XV) Satisfy any other conditions reasonably related to the defendant’s rehabilitation and the purposes of probation.

(b) When granting probation, in addition to the consideration of the provisions set forth in paragraph (a) of this subsection (2), the court shall order as a condition of probation in cases in which the defendant was convicted of a crime, the underlying factual basis of which included an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), that the defendant:

(I) Comply with existing court orders regarding family support;

(II) Comply with any existing court orders concerning a proceeding to determine paternity, custody, the allocation of decision-making responsibility, parenting time, or support;

(III) Comply with the terms of any protection order in effect against the defendant during the probation period;

(IV) Refrain from possessing a firearm, destructive device, or other dangerous weapon, unless granted written permission by the court or probation officer which shall not be granted in such domestic violence cases unless:

(A) It is required by the defendant’s employment; and

(B) The court finds that the defendant’s possession of the weapon does not endanger the victim or the victim’s children; and

(C) The weapon is stored away from the home and the yard surrounding the home.

(c) If the court orders counseling or treatment as a condition of probation, unless the court makes a specific finding that treatment in another facility or with another person is warranted, the court shall order that the treatment or counseling be at a facility or with a person:

(I) Approved by the behavioral health administration in the department of human services if the treatment is for alcohol or drug abuse;

(II) Certified or approved by the sex offender management board, established in section 16-11.7-103, C.R.S., if the offender is a sex offender;

(III) Certified or approved by the domestic violence offender management board created in section 16-11.8-103, C.R.S., if the offender was convicted of or the underlying factual basis of the offense included an act of domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3; or

(IV) Licensed or certified by the division of adult parole in the department of corrections, the department of regulatory agencies, the behavioral health administration in the department of human services, the state board of nursing, or the Colorado medical board, whichever is appropriate for the required treatment or counseling.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c) of this subsection (2), if the court orders counseling or treatment as a condition of probation for an offender convicted of an offense involving unlawful sexual behavior, as defined in section 16-22-102(9), C.R.S., the court shall order such treatment or counseling be at a facility or with a person listed in paragraph (c) of this subsection (2), and the court may not make a specific finding that treatment in another facility or with another person is warranted.

(e) If the defendant is convicted of an offense that subjects the defendant to genetic testing pursuant to section 16-11-102.4, C.R.S., the court shall assess to the defendant the cost of collecting and testing a biological substance sample from the defendant as required in section 16-11-102.4, C.R.S.

(2.2) When granting probation, the court may include as a condition of probation a requirement that the defendant participate in drug treatment. If the defendant’s assessed treatment need is for residential treatment, the court may make residential drug treatment a condition of probation and may place the offender in a community corrections program that can provide the appropriate level of treatment subject to the provision of section 18-1.3-301(4).

(2.3)(a) When granting probation, the court may, as a condition of probation, require any defendant who is less than eighteen years of age at the time of sentencing to attend school or an educational program or to work toward the attainment of a high school diploma or the successful completion of a high school equivalency examination, as that term is defined in section 22-33-102(8.5), C.R.S.; except that the court shall not require any such juvenile to attend a school from which he or she has been expelled without the prior approval of that school’s local board of education.

(b) Following specification of the terms and conditions of probation for a defendant who is less than eighteen years of age at the time of sentencing, where the conditions of probation include the requirement that the defendant attend school, the court shall notify the school district in which the defendant will be enrolled of such requirement.

(2.5) The order of priority for any payments required of a defendant pursuant to subparagraph (IV), (V), (VI), or (VI.5) of paragraph (a) of subsection (2) of this section shall be as follows:

(a) Payment of a current child support order;

(b) Payment of child support arrearage;

(c) Payment of child support debt order;

(d) Payment of spousal maintenance;

(e) Payment of costs for the crime victim compensation fund, pursuant to section 24-4.1-119, C.R.S.;

(f) Payment of surcharges for the victims and witnesses assistance and law enforcement fund, pursuant to section 24-4.2-104, C.R.S.;

(g) Payment of restitution;

(h) Payment of a time payment fee;

(i) Payment of late fees;

(i.2) Payment of probation supervision fees;

(i.4) Payment of a drug offender surcharge pursuant to article 19 of this title;

(i.6) Payment of a sex offender surcharge pursuant to article 21 of this title;

(i.7) Payment of a surcharge for a crime against an at-risk person pursuant to section 18-6.5-107;

(i.8) Payment of collection and chemical testing of a biological substance to determine the genetic markers thereof;

(i.9) Payment of a surcharge related to the address confidentiality program pursuant to section 24-30-2114, C.R.S.;

(j) Payment of any other fines, fees, or surcharges; and

(k) Repayment of all or part of any reward paid by a crime stopper organization that led to the defendant’s arrest and conviction.

(3) When a defendant is granted probation, he or she shall be given a written statement explicitly setting forth the conditions on which he or she is being released.

(4)(a) For good cause shown and after notice to the defendant, the district attorney, and the probation officer, and after a hearing if the defendant or the district attorney requests it, the judge may reduce or increase the term of probation or alter the conditions or impose new conditions.

(b)(I) If an offender applies to transfer his or her probation to another state, the offender shall pay a filing fee of one hundred dollars, unless the offender is indigent.

(II)(A) The clerk of the court shall transmit all moneys collected pursuant to this paragraph (b) to the state treasurer, who shall credit the same to the interstate compact probation transfer cash fund, which fund is hereby created and referred to in this paragraph (b) as the “fund”. Beginning January 1, 2013, the moneys in the fund are subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly to the judicial department for the direct and indirect costs associated with returning probationers to Colorado. The state treasurer may invest any moneys in the fund not expended for the purpose of this paragraph (b) as provided by law. The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the investment and deposit of moneys in the fund to the fund. Any unexpended and unencumbered moneys remaining in the fund at the end of a fiscal year remain in the fund and shall not be credited or transferred to the general fund or another fund.

(B) On or after January 1, 2013, a law enforcement agency may submit to the state court administrator a request to be reimbursed for the costs of returning a probationer pursuant to the “Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision”, part 28 of article 60 of title 24, C.R.S., incurred on or after January 1, 2013. The state court administrator shall, to the extent that funds are available, reimburse reasonable costs incurred by a law enforcement agency for the return of the probationer.

Part 4. Sentences to Imprisonment

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-1.3-401. Felonies classified--presumptive penalties

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023
(1)(a)(I) As to any person sentenced for a felony committed after July 1, 1979, and before July 1, 1984, felonies are divided into five classes which are distinguished from one another by the following presumptive ranges of penalties which are authorized upon conviction:
Class
Presumptive Range
1
Life imprisonment or death
2
Eight to twelve years plus one year of parole
3
Four to eight years plus one year of parole
4
Two to four years plus one year of parole
5
One to two years plus one year of parole
(II) As to any person sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 1984, and before July 1, 1985, felonies are divided into five classes which are distinguished from one another by the following presumptive ranges of penalties which are authorized upon conviction:
Class
Presumptive Range
1
Life imprisonment or death
2
Eight to twelve years
3
Four to eight years
4
Two to four years
5
One to two years
(III)(A) As to any person sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 1985, except as otherwise provided in subsection (1)(a)(III)(E) or (1)(a)(III)(F) of this section, in addition to, or in lieu of, any sentence to imprisonment, probation, community corrections, or work release, a fine within the following presumptive ranges may be imposed for the specified classes of felonies:
Class
Minimum Sentence
Maximum Sentence
1
No fine
No fine
2
Five thousand dollars
One million dollars
3
Three thousand dollars
Seven hundred fifty

thousand dollars

4
Two thousand dollars
Five hundred thousand

dollars

5
One thousand dollars
One hundred thousand

dollars

6
One thousand dollars
One hundred thousand

dollars

(A.5) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, any person who attempts to commit, conspires to commit, or commits against an elderly person any felony set forth in part 4 of article 4 of this title, part 1, 2, 3, or 5 of article 5 of this title, article 5.5 of this title, or section 11-51-603, C.R.S., shall be required to pay a mandatory and substantial fine within the limits permitted by law. However, all moneys collected from the offender shall be applied in the following order: Costs for crime victim compensation fund pursuant to section 24-4.1-119, C.R.S.; surcharges for victims and witnesses assistance and law enforcement fund pursuant to section 24-4.2-104, C.R.S.; restitution; time payment fee; late fees; and any other fines, fees, or surcharges. For purposes of this sub-subparagraph (A.5), an “elderly person” or “elderly victim” means a person sixty years of age or older.

(B) Failure to pay a fine imposed pursuant to this subparagraph (III) is grounds for revocation of probation or revocation of a sentence to community corrections, assuming the defendant’s ability to pay. If such a revocation occurs, the court may impose the maximum sentence allowable in the given sentencing ranges.

(C) Each judicial district shall have at least one clerk who shall collect and administer the fines imposed under this subparagraph (III) and under section 18-1.3-501 in accordance with the provisions of sub-subparagraph (D) of this subparagraph (III).

(D) All fines collected pursuant to this subparagraph (III) shall be deposited in the fines collection cash fund, which fund is hereby created. The general assembly shall make annual appropriations out of such fund for administrative and personnel costs incurred in the collection and administration of said fines. All unexpended balances shall revert to the general fund at the end of each fiscal year.

(E) Notwithstanding the provisions of sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (III), a person who has been twice convicted of a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the United States prior to the conviction for which he or she is being sentenced shall not be eligible to receive a fine in lieu of any sentence to imprisonment, community corrections, or work release but shall be sentenced to at least the minimum sentence specified in subparagraph (V) of this paragraph (a) and may receive a fine in addition to said sentence.

(F) On and after June 6, 2018, if a person is convicted of second degree burglary as described in section 18-4-203(2), in addition to any other sentence, the court may require the person to pay a fine of at least five thousand dollars but not exceeding seven hundred fifty thousand dollars.

(IV) As to any person sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 1985, but prior to July 1, 1993, felonies are divided into six classes which are distinguished from one another by the following presumptive ranges of penalties which are authorized upon conviction:

Class
Minimum Sentence
Maximum Sentence
1
Life imprisonment
Death
2
Eight years imprisonment
Twenty-four years imprisonment
3
Four years imprisonment
Sixteen years imprisonment
4
Two years imprisonment
Eight years imprisonment
5
One year imprisonment
Four years imprisonment
6
One year imprisonment
Two years imprisonment
(V)(A) Except as otherwise provided in section 18-1.3-401.5 for offenses contained in article 18 of this title 18 committed on or after October 1, 2013, as to any person sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 1993, and before July 1, 2018, felonies are divided into six classes that are distinguished from one another by the following presumptive ranges of penalties that are authorized upon conviction:
Class
Minimum
Maximum
Mandatory
Sentence
Sentence
Period of Parole
1
Life imprisonment
Death
None
2
Eight years

imprisonment

Twenty-four years

imprisonment

Five years
3
Four years

imprisonment

Twelve years

imprisonment

Five years
4
Two years

imprisonment

Six years

imprisonment

Three years
5
One year

imprisonment

Three years

imprisonment

Two years
6
One year

imprisonment

Eighteen months

imprisonment

One year
(A.1) Subject to the provisions of subsection (1)(a)(V)(F) of this section, as to any person sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 2018, and prior to July 1, 2020, felonies are divided into six classes that are distinguished from one another by the following presumptive ranges of penalties that are authorized upon conviction:
Class
Minimum Sentence
Maximum Sentence
Mandatory Period of Parole
1
Life imprisonment
Death
None
2
Eight years

imprisonment

Twenty-four years

imprisonment

Five years if the offense is a crime of violence as described in section 18-1.3-406(2)
Three years if the offense is not a crime of violence as described in section 18-1.3-406(2)
3
Four years

imprisonment

Twelve years

imprisonment

Three years
4
Two years

imprisonment

Six years

imprisonment

Three years
5
One year

imprisonment

Three years

imprisonment

Two years
6
One year

imprisonment

Eighteen months

imprisonment

One year

(B) Any person who is paroled pursuant to section 17-22.5-403, or any person who is not paroled and is discharged pursuant to law, shall be subject to the mandatory period of parole established pursuant to subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or subsection (1)(a)(V)(A.1) of this section. Such mandatory period of parole may not be waived by the offender or waived or suspended by the court and shall be subject to the provisions of section 17-22.5-403(6), which permits the state board of parole to discharge the offender at any time during the term of parole upon a determination that the offender has been sufficiently rehabilitated and reintegrated into society and can no longer benefit from parole supervision.

(C) Notwithstanding subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or (1)(a)(V)(A.1) of this section, the mandatory period of parole for a person convicted of a felony offense committed prior to July 1, 1996, pursuant to part 4 of article 3 of this title 18, or part 3 of article 6 of this title 18, shall be five years. Notwithstanding subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or (1)(a)(V)(A.1) of this section, and except as otherwise provided in subsection (1)(a)(V)(C.5) of this section, the period of parole for a person convicted of a felony offense committed on or after July 1, 1996, but prior to July 1, 2002, pursuant to part 4 of article 3 of this title, or part 3 of article 6 of this title, shall be set by the state board of parole pursuant to section 17-2-201(5)(a.5), but in no event shall the term of parole exceed the maximum sentence imposed upon the inmate by the court.

(C.3) Deleted by Laws 2002, Ch. 48, § 1, eff. March 26, 2002.

(C.5) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or subsection (1)(a)(V)(A.1) of this section, any person sentenced for a sex offense, as defined in section 18-1.3-1003(5), committed on or after November 1, 1998, shall be sentenced pursuant to the provisions of part 10 of this article 1.3.

(C.7) Any person sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 2002, involving unlawful sexual behavior, as defined in section 16-22-102(9), or for a felony, committed on or after July 1, 2002, the underlying factual basis of which involved unlawful sexual behavior, and who is not subject to the provisions of part 10 of this article 1.3, shall be subject to the mandatory period of parole specified in subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or (1)(a)(V)(A.1) of this section.

(D) The mandatory period of parole imposed pursuant to subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or (1)(a)(V)(A.1) of this section shall commence immediately upon the discharge of an offender from imprisonment in the custody of the department of corrections. If the offender has been granted release to parole supervision by the state board of parole, the offender shall be deemed to have discharged the offender’s sentence to imprisonment provided for in subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or (1)(a)(V)(A.1) of this section in the same manner as if such sentence were discharged pursuant to law; except that the sentence to imprisonment for any person sentenced as a sex offender pursuant to part 10 of this article 1.3 shall not be deemed discharged on release of said person on parole. When an offender is released by the state board of parole or released because the offender’s sentence was discharged pursuant to law, the mandatory period of parole shall be served by such offender. An offender sentenced for nonviolent felony offenses, as defined in section 17-22.5-405(5), may receive earned time pursuant to section 17-22.5-405, while serving a mandatory parole period in accordance with this section, but not while such offender is reincarcerated after a revocation of the mandatory period of parole. An offender who is sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 1993, and paroled on or after January 1, 2009, shall be eligible to receive any earned time while on parole or after reparole following a parole revocation. The offender shall not be eligible for earned time while the offender is reincarcerated after revocation of the mandatory period of parole pursuant to this subsection (1)(a)(V).

(E) If an offender is sentenced consecutively for the commission of two or more felony offenses pursuant to subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) or (1)(a)(V(A.1) of this section, the mandatory period of parole for such offender shall be the mandatory period of parole established for the highest class felony of which such offender has been convicted.

(F) Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, the maximum sentence for a class 1 felony that is charged after July 1, 2020, is life imprisonment.

(V.5)(A) As to any person sentenced for a felony for an offense committed on or after July 1, 2020, felonies are divided into six classes that are distinguished from one another by the following presumptive ranges of penalties that are authorized upon conviction:

Class
Minimum Sentence
Maximum Sentence
Mandatory Period of Parole
1
Life imprisonment
None
2
Eight years

imprisonment

Twenty-four years

imprisonment

Five years if offense is a crime of violence as described in section 18-1.3-406(2)
Three years if the offense is not a crime of violence as described in section 18-1.3-406(2)
3
Four years

imprisonment

Twelve years

imprisonment

Three years
4
Two years

imprisonment

Six years

imprisonment

Three years
5
One year

imprisonment

Three years

imprisonment

Two years
6
One year

imprisonment

Eighteen months

imprisonment

One year

(B) Any person who is paroled pursuant to section 17-22.5-403, or any person who is not paroled and is discharged pursuant to law, shall be subject to the mandatory period of parole established pursuant to subsection (1)(a)(V.5)(A) of this section. Such mandatory period of parole may not be waived by the offender or waived or suspended by the court and shall be subject to the provisions of section 17-22.5-403(8), which permits the state board of parole to discharge the offender at any time during the term of parole upon a determination that the offender has been sufficiently rehabilitated and reintegrated into society and can no longer benefit from parole supervision.

(C) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1)(a)(V.5)(A) of this section, any person sentenced for a sex offense, as defined in section 18-1.3-1003(5), committed on or after July 1, 2020, shall be sentenced pursuant to the provisions of part 10 of this article 1.3.

(D) Any person sentenced for a felony conviction entered on or after July 1, 2020, involving unlawful sexual behavior, as defined in section 16-22-102(9), or for a felony committed on or after July 1, 2020, the underlying factual basis of which involved unlawful sexual behavior, and who is not subject to the provisions of part 10 of this article 1.3, shall be subject to the mandatory period of parole specified in subsection (1)(a)(V.5)(A) of this section.

(E) The mandatory period of parole imposed pursuant to subsection (1)(a)(V.5)(A) of this section shall commence immediately upon the discharge of an offender from imprisonment in the custody of the department of corrections. If the offender has been granted release to parole supervision by the state board of parole, the offender shall be deemed to have discharged the offender’s sentence to imprisonment provided for in subsection (1)(a)(V.5)(A) of this section in the same manner as if such sentence were discharged pursuant to law; except that the sentence to imprisonment for any person sentenced as a sex offender pursuant to part 10 of this article 1.3 shall not be deemed discharged on release of said person on parole. When an offender is released by the state board of parole or released because the offender’s sentence was discharged pursuant to law, the mandatory period of parole shall be served by such offender. An offender sentenced for a nonviolent felony offense, as defined in section 17-22.5-405(5), may receive earned time pursuant to section 17-22.5-405 while serving a mandatory parole period in accordance with this section, but not while such offender is reincarcerated after a revocation of the mandatory period of parole. An offender shall be eligible to receive earned time while on parole or after reparole following a parole revocation. The offender shall not be eligible for earned time while the offender is reincarcerated after revocation of the mandatory period of parole pursuant to this subsection (1)(a)(V.5).

(F) If an offender is sentenced consecutively for the commission of two or more felony offenses pursuant to subsection (1)(a)(V.5)(A) of this section, the mandatory period of parole for such offender shall be the mandatory period of parole established for the highest class felony of which such offender has been convicted.

(VI) Any person sentenced for a class 2, 3, 4, or 5 felony, or a class 6 felony that is the offender’s second or subsequent felony offense, committed on or after July 1, 1998, regardless of the length of the person’s sentence to incarceration and the mandatory period of parole, shall not be deemed to have fully discharged his or her sentence until said person has either completed or been discharged by the state board of parole from the mandatory period of parole imposed pursuant to subparagraph (V) of this paragraph (a).

(b)(I) Except as provided in subsection (6) and subsection (8) of this section and in section 18-1.3-804, a person who has been convicted of a class 2, class 3, class 4, class 5, or class 6 felony shall be punished by the imposition of a definite sentence which is within the presumptive ranges set forth in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1). In imposing the sentence within the presumptive range, the court shall consider the nature and elements of the offense, the character and record of the offender, and all aggravating or mitigating circumstances surrounding the offense and the offender. The prediction of the potential for future criminality by a particular defendant, unless based on prior criminal conduct, shall not be considered in determining the length of sentence to be imposed.

(II) As to any person sentenced for a felony committed on or after July 1, 1985, a person may be sentenced to imprisonment as described in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b) or to pay a fine that is within the presumptive ranges set forth in subparagraph (III) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) or to both such fine and imprisonment; except that any person who has been twice convicted of a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the United States prior to the conviction for which he or she is being sentenced shall not be eligible to receive a fine in lieu of any sentence to imprisonment as described in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b) but shall be sentenced to at least the minimum sentence specified in subparagraph (V) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) and may receive a fine in addition to said sentence.

(II.5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, any person sentenced for a sex offense, as defined in section 18-1.3-1003(5), committed on or after November 1, 1998, may be sentenced to pay a fine in addition to, but not instead of, a sentence for imprisonment or probation pursuant to section 18-1.3-1004.

(III) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, as to any person sentenced for a crime of violence, as defined in section 18-1.3-406, committed on or after July 1, 1985, a person may be sentenced to pay a fine in addition to, but not instead of, a sentence for imprisonment.

(IV) If a person is convicted of assault in the first degree pursuant to section 18-3-202 or assault in the second degree pursuant to section 18-3-203(1)(c.5), and the victim is a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider engaged in the performance of his or her duties, as defined in section 18-1.3-501(1.5)(b), notwithstanding the provisions of subparagraph (III) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) and subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b), the court shall sentence the person to the department of corrections. In addition to a term of imprisonment, the court may impose a fine on the person pursuant to subparagraph (III) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1).

(c) Except as otherwise provided by statute, felonies are punishable by imprisonment in any correctional facility under the supervision of the executive director of the department of corrections. Nothing in this section shall limit the authority granted in part 8 of this article to increase sentences for habitual criminals. Nothing in this section shall limit the authority granted in parts 9 and 10 of this article to sentence sex offenders to the department of corrections or to sentence sex offenders to probation for an indeterminate term. Nothing in this section shall limit the authority granted in section 18-1.3-804 for increased sentences for habitual burglary offenders.

(2)(a) A corporation which has been found guilty of a class 2 or class 3 felony shall be subject to imposition of a fine of not less than five thousand dollars nor more than fifty thousand dollars. A corporation which has been found guilty of a class 4, class 5, or class 6 felony shall be subject to imposition of a fine of not less than one thousand dollars nor more than thirty thousand dollars.

(b) A corporation which has been found guilty of a class 2, class 3, class 4, class 5, or class 6 felony, for an act committed on or after July 1, 1985, shall be subject to imposition of a fine which is within the presumptive ranges set forth in subparagraph (III) of paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of this section.

(3) Every person convicted of a felony, whether defined as such within or outside this code, shall be disqualified from holding any office of honor, trust, or profit under the laws of this state or from practicing as an attorney in any of the courts of this state during the actual time of confinement or commitment to imprisonment or release from actual confinement on conditions of probation. Upon his or her discharge after completion of service of his or her sentence or after service under probation, the right to hold any office of honor, trust, or profit shall be restored, except as provided in section 4 of article XII of the state constitution.

(4)(a)(I) A person who has been convicted of a class 1 felony shall be punished by life imprisonment in the department of corrections unless the offense was charged prior to July 1, 2020, and a proceeding held to determine sentence according to the procedure set forth in section 18-1.3-1201, 18-1.3-1302, or 18-1.4-102 results in a verdict that requires imposition of the death penalty, in which event such person shall be sentenced to death.

(II) A person who has been convicted of a class 1 felony shall be punished by life imprisonment in the department of corrections if the offense was committed during a period of time when Colorado’s death penalty was unconstitutional.

(III) As to any person sentenced for a class 1 felony, for an act committed on or after July 1, 1985, and before July 1, 1990, life imprisonment shall mean imprisonment without the possibility of parole for forty calendar years. As to any person sentenced for a class 1 felony, for an act committed on or after July 1, 1990, life imprisonment shall mean imprisonment without the possibility of parole.

(b)(I) Notwithstanding subsection (1)(a)(V)(A) of this section and notwithstanding subsection (4)(a) of this section, as to a person who is convicted as an adult of a class 1 felony following direct filing of an information or indictment in the district court pursuant to section 19-2.5-801 or transfer of proceedings to the district court pursuant to section 19-2.5-802, the district court judge shall sentence the person to a term of life imprisonment with the possibility of parole after serving a period of forty years, less any earned time granted pursuant to section 17-22.5-405. Regardless of whether the state board of parole releases the person on parole, the person shall remain in the legal custody of the department of corrections for the remainder of the person’s life and shall not be discharged.

(II) The provisions of this paragraph (b) shall apply to persons sentenced for offenses committed on or after July 1, 2006.

(c)(I) Notwithstanding subsections (1)(a)(V)(A), (4)(a), and (4)(b) of this section, as to a person who is convicted as an adult of a class 1 felony following a direct filing of an information or indictment in the district court pursuant to section 19-2.5-801, or transfer of proceedings to the district court pursuant to section 19-2.5-802, or pursuant to either of these sections as they existed prior to their repeal and reenactment, with amendments, by House Bill 96-1005, which felony was committed on or after July 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2006, and who received a sentence to life imprisonment without the possibility of parole:

(A) If the felony for which the person was convicted is murder in the first degree, as described in section 18-3-102(1)(b), as it existed prior to September 15, 2021, then the district court, after holding a hearing, may sentence the person to a determinate sentence within the range of thirty to fifty years in prison, less any earned time granted pursuant to section 17-22.5-405, if, after considering the factors described in subsection (4)(c)(II) of this section, the district court finds extraordinary mitigating circumstances. Alternatively, the court may sentence the person to a term of life imprisonment with the possibility of parole after serving forty years, less any earned time granted pursuant to section 17-22.5-405.

(B) If the felony for which the person was convicted is not murder in the first degree, as described in section 18-3-102(1)(b), as it existed prior to September 15, 2021, then the district court shall sentence the person to a term of life imprisonment with the possibility of parole after serving forty years, less any earned time granted pursuant to section 17-22.5-405.

(II) In determining whether extraordinary mitigating circumstances exist, the court shall conduct a sentencing hearing, make factual findings to support its decision, and consider relevant evidence presented by either party regarding the following factors:

(A) The diminished culpability and heightened capacity for change associated with youth;

(B) The offender’s developmental maturity and chronological age at the time of the offense and the hallmark features of such age, including but not limited to immaturity, impetuosity, and inability to appreciate risks and consequences;

(C) The offender’s capacity for change and potential for rehabilitation, including any evidence of the offender’s efforts toward, or amenability to, rehabilitation;

(D) The impact of the offense upon any victim or victim’s immediate family; and

(E) Any other factors that the court deems relevant to its decision, so long as the court identifies such factors on the record.

(III) If a person is sentenced to a determinate range of thirty to fifty years in prison pursuant to this paragraph (c), the court shall impose a mandatory period of ten years parole.

(IV) If a person is sentenced to a term of life imprisonment with the possibility of parole after serving forty years, less any earned time granted pursuant to section 17-22.5-405, C.R.S., regardless of whether the state board of parole releases the person on parole, the person shall remain in the legal custody of the department of corrections for the remainder of his or her life and shall not be discharged.

(5) In the event the death penalty as provided for in this section is held to be unconstitutional by the Colorado supreme court or the United States supreme court, a person convicted of a crime punishable by death under the laws of this state shall be punished by life imprisonment. In such circumstance, the court which previously sentenced a person to death shall cause such person to be brought before the court, and the court shall sentence such person to life imprisonment.

(6) In imposing a sentence to incarceration, the court shall impose a definite sentence which is within the presumptive ranges set forth in subsection (1) of this section unless it concludes that extraordinary mitigating or aggravating circumstances are present, are based on evidence in the record of the sentencing hearing and the presentence report, and support a different sentence which better serves the purposes of this code with respect to sentencing, as set forth in section 18-1-102.5. If the court finds such extraordinary mitigating or aggravating circumstances, it may impose a sentence which is lesser or greater than the presumptive range; except that in no case shall the term of sentence be greater than twice the maximum nor less than one-half the minimum term authorized in the presumptive range for the punishment of the offense.

(7) In all cases, except as provided in subsection (8) of this section, in which a sentence which is not within the presumptive range is imposed, the court shall make specific findings on the record of the case, detailing the specific extraordinary circumstances which constitute the reasons for varying from the presumptive sentence.

(8)(a) The presence of any one or more of the following extraordinary aggravating circumstances shall require the court, if it sentences the defendant to incarceration, to sentence the defendant to a term of at least the midpoint in the presumptive range but not more than twice the maximum term authorized in the presumptive range for the punishment of a felony:

(I) The defendant is convicted of a crime of violence under section 18-1.3-406;

(II) The defendant was on parole for another felony at the time of commission of the felony;

(III) The defendant was on probation or was on bond while awaiting sentencing following revocation of probation for another felony at the time of the commission of the felony;

(IV) The defendant was under confinement, in prison, or in any correctional institution as a convicted felon, or an escapee from any correctional institution for another felony at the time of the commission of a felony;

(V) At the time of the commission of the felony, the defendant was on appeal bond following his or her conviction for a previous felony;

(VI) At the time of the commission of a felony, the defendant was on probation for or on bond while awaiting sentencing following revocation of probation for a delinquent act that would have constituted a felony if committed by an adult.

(b) In any case in which one or more of the extraordinary aggravating circumstances provided for in paragraph (a) of this subsection (8) exist, the provisions of subsection (7) of this section shall not apply.

(c) Nothing in this subsection (8) shall preclude the court from considering aggravating circumstances other than those stated in paragraph (a) of this subsection (8) as the basis for sentencing the defendant to a term greater than the presumptive range for the felony.

(d)(I) If the defendant is convicted of the class 2 or the class 3 felony of child abuse under section 18-6-401(7)(a)(I) or (7)(a)(III), the court shall be required to sentence the defendant to the department of corrections for a term of at least the midpoint in the presumptive range but not more than twice the maximum term authorized in the presumptive range for the punishment of that class felony.

(II) In no case shall any defendant sentenced pursuant to subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (d) be eligible for suspension of sentence or for probation or deferred prosecution.

(e)(I) If the defendant is convicted of the class 2 felony of sexual assault in the first degree under section 18-3-402(3), commission of which offense occurs prior to November 1, 1998, the court shall be required to sentence the defendant to a term of at least the midpoint in the presumptive range but not more than twice the maximum term authorized in the presumptive range for the punishment of that class of felony.

(II) In no case shall any defendant sentenced pursuant to subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (e) be eligible for suspension of sentence or probation.

(III) As a condition of parole under section 17-2-201(5)(e), C.R.S., a defendant sentenced pursuant to this paragraph (e) shall be required to participate in a program of mental health counseling or receive appropriate treatment to the extent that the state board of parole deems appropriate to effectuate the successful reintegration of the defendant into the community while recognizing the need for public safety.

(e.5) If the defendant is convicted of the class 2 felony of sexual assault under section 18-3-402(5) or the class 2 felony of sexual assault in the first degree under section 18-3-402(3) as it existed prior to July 1, 2000, commission of which offense occurs on or after November 1, 1998, the court shall be required to sentence the defendant to the department of corrections for an indeterminate sentence of at least the midpoint in the presumptive range for the punishment of that class of felony up to the defendant’s natural life.

(f) The court may consider aggravating circumstances such as serious bodily injury caused to the victim or the use of a weapon in the commission of a crime, notwithstanding the fact that such factors constitute elements of the offense.

(g) If the defendant is convicted of class 4 or class 3 felony vehicular homicide under section 18-3-106(1)(a) or (1)(b), and while committing vehicular homicide the defendant was in immediate flight from the commission of another felony, the court shall be required to sentence the defendant to the department of corrections for a term of at least the midpoint in the presumptive range but not more than twice the maximum term authorized in the presumptive range for the punishment of the class of felony vehicular homicide of which the defendant is convicted.

(9) The presence of any one or more of the following sentence-enhancing circumstances shall require the court, if it sentences the defendant to incarceration, to sentence the defendant to a term of at least the minimum in the presumptive range but not more than twice the maximum term authorized in the presumptive range for the punishment of a felony:

(a) At the time of the commission of the felony, the defendant was charged with or was on bond for a felony in a previous case and the defendant was convicted of any felony in the previous case;

(a.5) At the time of the commission of the felony, the defendant was charged with or was on bond for a delinquent act that would have constituted a felony if committed by an adult;

(b) At the time of the commission of the felony, the defendant was on bond for having pled guilty to a lesser offense when the original offense charged was a felony;

(c) The defendant was under a deferred judgment and sentence for another felony at the time of the commission of the felony;

(c.5) At the time of the commission of the felony, the defendant was on bond in a juvenile prosecution under title 19, C.R.S., for having pled guilty to a lesser delinquent act when the original delinquent act charged would have constituted a felony if committed by an adult;

(c.7) At the time of the commission of the felony, the defendant was under a deferred judgment and sentence for a delinquent act that would have constituted a felony if committed by an adult;

(d) At the time of the commission of the felony, the defendant was on parole for having been adjudicated a delinquent child for an offense which would constitute a felony if committed by an adult.

(10)(a) The general assembly hereby finds that certain crimes that are listed in subsection (10)(b) of this section present an extraordinary risk of harm to society and therefore, in the interest of public safety, for such crimes that constitute class 3 felonies, the maximum sentence in the presumptive range is increased by four years; for such crimes that constitute class 4 felonies, the maximum sentence in the presumptive range is increased by two years; for such crimes that constitute class 5 felonies, the maximum sentence in the presumptive range is increased by one year; for such crimes that constitute class 6 felonies, the maximum sentence in the presumptive range is increased by six months.

(b) Crimes that present an extraordinary risk of harm to society include the following:

(I) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(II) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(III) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(IV) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(V) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(VI) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(VII) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(VIII) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(IX) Aggravated robbery, as defined in section 18-4-302;

(X) Child abuse, as defined in section 18-6-401;

(XI) Unlawful distribution, manufacturing, dispensing, sale, or possession of a controlled substance with the intent to sell, distribute, manufacture, or dispense, as defined in section 18-18-405;

(XII) Any crime of violence, as defined in section 18-1.3-406;

(XIII) Stalking, as described in section 18-9-111(4), as it existed prior to August 11, 2010, or section 18-3-602;

(XIV) Sale or distribution of materials to manufacture controlled substances, as described in section 18-18-412.7;

(XV) Felony invasion of privacy for sexual gratification, as described in section 18-3-405.6;

(XVI) A class 3 felony offense of human trafficking for involuntary servitude, as described in section 18-3-503;

(XVII) A class 3 felony offense of human trafficking for sexual servitude, as described in section 18-3-504;

(XVIII) Assault in the second degree, as described in section 18-3-203 (1)(i); and

(XIX) Sexual exploitation of a child, as described in section 18-6-403 (5.5).

(c) Repealed by Laws 2004, Ch. 200, § 1, eff. Aug. 4, 2004.

(11) When it shall appear to the satisfaction of the court that the ends of justice and the best interest of the public, as well as the defendant, will be best served thereby, the court shall have the power to suspend the imposition or execution of sentence for such period and upon such terms and conditions as it may deem best; except that in no instance shall the court have the power to suspend a sentence to a term of incarceration when the defendant is sentenced pursuant to a sentencing provision that requires incarceration or imprisonment in the department of corrections, community corrections, or jail. In no instance shall a sentence be suspended if the defendant is ineligible for probation pursuant to section 18-1.3-201, except upon an express waiver being made by the sentencing court regarding a particular defendant upon recommendation of the district attorney and approval of such recommendation by an order of the sentencing court pursuant to section 18-1.3-201(4).

(12) Every sentence entered under this section shall include consideration of restitution as required by part 6 of this article and by article 18.5 of title 16, C.R.S.

(13)(a) The court, if it sentences a defendant who is convicted of any one or more of the offenses specified in paragraph (b) of this subsection (13) to incarceration, shall sentence the defendant to a term of at least the midpoint, but not more than twice the maximum, of the presumptive range authorized for the punishment of the offense of which the defendant is convicted if the court makes the following findings on the record:

(I) The victim of the offense was pregnant at the time of commission of the offense; and

(II) The defendant knew or reasonably should have known that the victim of the offense was pregnant.

(III) Deleted by Laws 2003, Ch. 340, § 3, eff. July 1, 2003.

(b) The provisions of this subsection (13) shall apply to the following offenses:

(I) Murder in the second degree, as described in section 18-3-103;

(II) Manslaughter, as described in section 18-3-104;

(III) Criminally negligent homicide, as described in section 18-3-105;

(IV) Vehicular homicide, as described in section 18-3-106;

(V) Assault in the first degree, as described in section 18-3-202;

(VI) Assault in the second degree, as described in section 18-3-203;

(VII) Vehicular assault, as described in section 18-3-205.

(c) Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (13) to the contrary, for any of the offenses specified in paragraph (b) of this subsection (13) that constitute crimes of violence, the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of section 18-1.3-406.

(14) The court may sentence a defendant to the youthful offender system created in section 18-1.3-407 if the defendant is an eligible young adult offender pursuant to section 18-1.3-407.5.

Part 5. Misdemeanor and Petty Offense Sentencing

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-1.3-501. Misdemeanors classified--drug misdemeanors and drug petty offenses classified--penalties--legislative intent--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (1)(d) of this section, for offenses committed prior to March 1, 2022, misdemeanors are divided into three classes that are distinguished from one another by the following penalties that are authorized upon conviction except as provided in subsection (1.5) of this section:

Class

Minimum Sentence

Maximum Sentence

     

1

Six months imprisonment, or five hundred dollars fine, or both

Eighteen months imprisonment, or five thousand dollars fine, or both

2

Three months imprisonment, or two hundred fifty dollars fine, or both

Three hundred sixty-four days imprisonment, or one thousand dollars fine, or both

3

Fifty dollars fine

Six months imprisonment, or seven hundred fifty dollars fine, or both

(b) A term of imprisonment for conviction of a misdemeanor shall not be served in a state correctional facility unless served concurrently with a term for conviction of a felony.

(c) A term of imprisonment in a county jail for a conviction of a misdemeanor, petty, or traffic misdemeanor offense shall not be ordered to be served consecutively to a sentence to be served in a state correctional facility; except that if, at the time of sentencing, the court determines, after consideration of all the relevant facts and circumstances, that a concurrent sentence is not warranted, the court may order that the misdemeanor sentence be served prior to the sentence to be served in the state correctional facility and prior to the time the defendant is transported to the state correctional facility to serve all or the remainder of the defendant’s state correctional facility sentence.

(c.5) The maximum consecutive sentence to the county jail for misdemeanor crimes charged in a single case is twenty-four months.

(d) Except as provided in subsection (1)(d.5) of this section, for purposes of sentencing a person convicted of a misdemeanor drug offense described in article 18 of this title 18, committed on or after October 1, 2013, drug misdemeanors are divided into two levels that are distinguished from one another by the following penalties that are authorized upon conviction:

Level

Minimum Sentence

Maximum Sentence

DM1

Six months imprisonment, five hundred dollar fine, or both

Eighteen months imprisonment, five thousand dollar fine, or both

DM2

No imprisonment, fifty dollar fine

Twelve months imprisonment, seven hundred fifty dollar fine, or both

(d.5)(I)(A) It is the intention of the general assembly to classify most drug possession on and after March 1, 2020, as a misdemeanor offense with different sentencing options and limited incarceration penalties. The purpose of this sentencing scheme is to provide offenders who are assessed to be in need of treatment or other intervention with probation supervision in conjunction with effective medical and behavioral intervention and treatment. For those drug possessors who are not in need of treatment, sentencing by the courts system should be limited. This sentencing scheme recognizes that drug use and possession is primarily a health concern and should be treated as such by Colorado courts.

(B) Furthermore, it is the intent of the general assembly that sentencing for crimes that involve fentanyl, carfentanil, benzimidazole opiate, or an analog thereof as described in section 18-18-204(2)(g), even in small quantities, reflect the high risk of addiction and death associated with fentanyl, carfentanil, benzimidazole opiate, or any analog thereof. Therefore, the education and treatment procedures provided in section 18-1.3-510 must be implemented to address this substantial health risk.

(II) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1)(d) of this section, for the purpose of sentencing a person convicted of a level 1 drug misdemeanor committed on or after March 1, 2020, in violation of section 18-18-403.5 or 18-18-406(4)(b), a court may sentence an offender to probation for up to two years, with the possibility of a total of one hundred eighty days in county jail or, for a third or subsequent offense, a total of up to three hundred sixty-four days in county jail, which may be imposed in whole or in part during the time period of probation as a condition of probation or as a sanction for a violation of probation; or the court may sentence an offender to up to one hundred eighty days in the county jail; except that, for a third or subsequent offense, the court may sentence an offender to up to three hundred sixty-four days in the county jail. In addition to the sentence to probation or to the county jail, the offender may be punished by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars.

(III) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1)(d) of this section, for the purpose of sentencing a person convicted of a level 2 drug misdemeanor committed on or after March 1, 2020, in violation of section 18-18-404, 18-18-406(4)(c), 18-18-406.1, or 18-18-412, a court may sentence an offender to probation for up to one year, with the possibility of a total of one hundred twenty days in county jail or, for a third or subsequent offense, a total of up to one hundred eighty days in county jail, which may be imposed in whole or in part during the time period of probation as a condition of probation or as a sanction for a violation of probation; or the court may sentence an offender to up to one hundred twenty days in the county jail; except that, for a third or subsequent offense, the court may sentence an offender to up to one hundred eighty days in the county jail. In addition to the sentence to probation or to the county jail, the offender may be punished by a fine of not more than five hundred dollars.

(IV) Nothing in this subsection (1)(d.5) infringes upon the authority and discretion vested with a district attorney to file misdemeanor charges in either district court or county court, which courts, pursuant to section 13-6-106, have concurrent original jurisdiction over violations of state law that constitute misdemeanors. District attorneys are encouraged to file misdemeanor or drug charges in the court where, if there is a conviction, treatment and supervision can most effectively be matched to the defendant’s assessed risk and treatment need levels.

(e) For each drug petty offense, the sentencing range is stated in the offense statute.

(1.5)(a) If a defendant is convicted of assault in the third degree under section 18-3-204 and the victim is a peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties, notwithstanding subsection (1) of this section, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment greater than the maximum sentence but no more than twice the maximum sentence authorized for the same crime when the victim is not a peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties. In addition to the term of imprisonment, the court may impose a fine on the defendant under subsection (1) of this section. At any time after sentencing and before the discharge of the defendant’s sentence, the victim may request that the defendant participate in restorative justice practices with the victim. If the defendant accepts responsibility for and expresses remorse for his or her actions and is willing to repair the harm caused by his or her actions, an individual responsible for the defendant’s supervision shall make the necessary arrangements for the restorative justice practices requested by the victim.

(b) As used in this section, “peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties” means a peace officer as described in section 16-2.5-101, C.R.S., emergency medical service provider as defined in part 1 of article 3.5 of title 25, C.R.S., emergency medical care provider as defined by section 18-3-201(1), or a firefighter as defined in section 18-3-201(1.5), who is engaged or acting in or who is present to engage or act in the performance of a duty, service, or function imposed, authorized, required, or permitted by law to be performed by a peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter, whether or not the peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter is within the territorial limits of his or her jurisdiction, if the peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter is in uniform or the person committing an assault upon or offense against or otherwise acting toward the peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter or if the peace officer, emergency medical service provider, emergency medical care provider, or firefighter is intentionally assaulted in retaliation for the performance of his or her official duties.

(1.7)(a) If a defendant is convicted of assault in the third degree pursuant to section 18-3-204 or reckless endangerment pursuant to section 18-3-208 and the victim is a mental health professional employed by or under contract with the department of human services engaged in the performance of his or her duties, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1) of this section, the court may sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment greater than the maximum sentence but not more than twice the maximum sentence authorized for the crime when the victim is not a mental health professional employed by or under contract with the department of human services engaged in the performance of his or her duties. In addition to a term of imprisonment, the court may impose a fine on the defendant pursuant to subsection (1) of this section.

(b) “Mental health professional” means a mental health professional licensed to practice medicine pursuant to article 240 of title 12 or a person licensed as a mental health professional pursuant to article 245 of title 12, a person licensed as a nurse pursuant to article 255 of title 12, a nurse aide certified pursuant to article 255 of title 12, and a psychiatric technician licensed pursuant to article 295 of title 12.

(2) The defendant may be sentenced to perform a certain number of hours of community or useful public service in addition to any other sentence provided by subsection (1) of this section, subject to the conditions and restrictions of section 18-1.3-507. An inmate in county jail acting as a trustee shall not be given concurrent credit for community or useful public service when such service is performed in his or her capacity as trustee. For the purposes of this subsection (2), “community or useful public service” means any work which is beneficial to the public, any public entity, or any bona fide nonprofit private or public organization, which work involves a minimum of direct supervision or other public cost and which work would not, with the exercise of reasonable care, endanger the health or safety of the person required to work.

(3)(a) The general assembly hereby finds that certain misdemeanors committed prior to March 1, 2022, which are listed in subsection (3)(b) of this section, present an extraordinary risk of harm to society and therefore, in the interest of public safety, the maximum sentence for such misdemeanors shall be increased by six months.

(b) Misdemeanors that present an extraordinary risk of harm to society shall include the following:

(I) Assault in the third degree, as defined in section 18-3-204;

(I.5)(A) Sexual assault, as defined in section 18-3-402; or

(B) Sexual assault in the second degree, as defined in section 18-3-403, as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(II)(A) Unlawful sexual contact, as defined in section 18-3-404; or

(B) Sexual assault in the third degree, as defined in section 18-3-404, as it existed prior to July 1, 2000;

(III) Child abuse, as defined in section 18-6-401(7)(a)(V);

(IV) Second and all subsequent violations of a protection order as defined in section 18-6-803.5(1.5)(a.5);

(V) Misdemeanor failure to register as a sex offender, as described in section 18-3-412.5;

(VI) Misdemeanor invasion of privacy for sexual gratification, as described in section 18-3-405.6; and

(VII) False reporting of an emergency, as described in section 18-8-111.

(4) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, any person who attempts to commit, conspires to commit, or commits against an elderly person any misdemeanor set forth in part 4 of article 4 of this title, part 1, 2, 3, or 5 of article 5 of this title, or article 5.5 of this title shall be required to pay a mandatory and substantial fine within the limits permitted by law. However, all moneys collected from the offender shall be applied in the following order: Costs for crime victim compensation fund pursuant to section 24-4.1-119, C.R.S.; surcharges for victims and witnesses assistance and law enforcement fund pursuant to section 24-4.2-104, C.R.S.; restitution; time payment fee; late fees; and any other fines, fees, or surcharges. For purposes of this subsection (4), an “elderly person” or “elderly victim” means a person sixty years of age or older.

(5) Every sentence entered under this section shall include consideration of restitution as required by part 6 of this article and by article 18.5 of title 16, C.R.S.

(6) For a defendant who is convicted of assault in the third degree, as described in section 18-3-204, the court, in addition to any fine the court may impose, shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment of at least six months, but not longer than the maximum sentence authorized for the offense, as specified in this section, which sentence shall not be suspended in whole or in part, if the court makes the following findings on the record:

(a) The victim of the offense was pregnant at the time of commission of the offense; and

(b) The defendant knew or should have known that the victim of the offense was pregnant.

(c) Deleted by Laws 2003, Ch. 340, § 4, eff. July 1, 2003.

Article 3. Offenses Against the Person

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 2. Assaults

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-3-202. Assault in the first degree

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of assault in the first degree if:

(a) With intent to cause serious bodily injury to another person, he causes serious bodily injury to any person by means of a deadly weapon; or

(b) With intent to disfigure another person seriously and permanently, or to destroy, amputate, or disable permanently a member or organ of his body, he causes such an injury to any person; or

(c) Under circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life, he knowingly engages in conduct which creates a grave risk of death to another person, and thereby causes serious bodily injury to any person; or

(d) Repealed by Laws 1995, H.B.95-1070, § 6, eff. July 1, 1995.

(e) With intent to cause serious bodily injury upon the person of a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider, he or she threatens with a deadly weapon a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider engaged in the performance of his or her duties, and the offender knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider acting in the performance of his or her duties; or

(e.5) With intent to cause serious bodily injury upon the person of a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction or an officer of said court, he threatens with a deadly weapon a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction or an officer of said court, and the offender knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction or an officer of said court; or

(f) While lawfully confined or in custody as a result of being charged with or convicted of a crime or as a result of being charged as a delinquent child or adjudicated as a delinquent child and with intent to cause serious bodily injury to a person employed by or under contract with a detention facility, as defined in section 18-8-203(3), or to a person employed by the division in the department of human services responsible for youth services and who is a youth services counselor or is in the youth services worker classification series, he or she threatens with a deadly weapon such a person engaged in the performance of his or her duties and the offender knows or reasonably should know that the victim is such a person engaged in the performance of his or her duties while employed by or under contract with a detention facility or while employed by the division in the department of human services responsible for youth services. A sentence imposed pursuant to this paragraph (f) shall be served in the department of corrections and shall run consecutively with any sentences being served by the offender. A person who participates in a work release program, a furlough, or any other similar authorized supervised or unsupervised absence from a detention facility, as defined in section 18-8-203(3), and who is required to report back to the detention facility at a specified time shall be deemed to be in custody.

(g) With the intent to cause serious bodily injury, he or she applies sufficient pressure to impede or restrict the breathing or circulation of the blood of another person by applying such pressure to the neck or by blocking the nose or mouth of the other person and thereby causes serious bodily injury.

(2)(a) If assault in the first degree is committed under circumstances where the act causing the injury is performed upon a sudden heat of passion, caused by a serious and highly provoking act of the intended victim, affecting the person causing the injury sufficiently to excite an irresistible passion in a reasonable person, and without an interval between the provocation and the injury sufficient for the voice of reason and humanity to be heard, it is a class 5 felony.

(b) If assault in the first degree is committed without the circumstances provided in paragraph (a) of this subsection (2), it is a class 3 felony.

(c) If a defendant is convicted of assault in the first degree pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of section 18-1.3-406.

(d) Repealed by Laws 1995, H.B.95-1070, § 6, eff. July 1, 1995.

(e) For purposes of determining sudden heat of passion pursuant to subsection (2)(a) of this section, a defendant’s act does not constitute an act performed upon a sudden heat of passion if it results solely from the discovery of, knowledge about, or potential disclosure of the victim’s actual or perceived gender, gender identity, gender expression, or sexual orientation, including but not limited to under circumstances in which the victim made an unwanted nonforcible romantic or sexual advance toward the defendant.

(3) Repealed by Laws 2016, Ch. 304, § 3, eff. July 1, 2016.

§ 18-3-203. Assault in the second degree

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of assault in the second degree if:

(a) Repealed by Laws 1994, H.B.94-1126, § 8, eff. July 1, 1994.

(b) With intent to cause bodily injury to another person, he or she causes such injury to any person by means of a deadly weapon; or

(c) With intent to prevent one whom he or she knows, or should know, to be a peace officer, firefighter, emergency medical care provider, or emergency medical service provider from performing a lawful duty, he or she intentionally causes bodily injury to any person; or

(c.5) With intent to prevent one whom he or she knows, or should know, to be a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider from performing a lawful duty, he or she intentionally causes serious bodily injury to any person; or

(d) He recklessly causes serious bodily injury to another person by means of a deadly weapon; or

(e) For a purpose other than lawful medical or therapeutic treatment, he intentionally causes stupor, unconsciousness, or other physical or mental impairment or injury to another person by administering to him, without his consent, a drug, substance, or preparation capable of producing the intended harm; or

(f) While lawfully confined or in custody, he or she knowingly and violently applies physical force against the person of a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider engaged in the performance of his or her duties, or a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction, or an officer of said court, or, while lawfully confined or in custody as a result of being charged with or convicted of a crime or as a result of being charged as a delinquent child or adjudicated as a delinquent child, he or she knowingly and violently applies physical force against a person engaged in the performance of his or her duties while employed by or under contract with a detention facility, as defined in section 18-8-203(3), or while employed by the division in the department of human services responsible for youth services and who is a youth services counselor or is in the youth services worker classification series, and the person committing the offense knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider engaged in the performance of his or her duties, or a judge of a court of competent jurisdiction, or an officer of said court, or a person engaged in the performance of his or her duties while employed by or under contract with a detention facility or while employed by the division in the department of human services responsible for youth services. A sentence imposed pursuant to this paragraph (f) shall be served in the department of corrections and shall run consecutively with any sentences being served by the offender; except that, if the offense is committed against a person employed by the division in the department of human services responsible for youth services, the court may grant probation or a suspended sentence in whole or in part, and the sentence may run concurrently or consecutively with any sentences being served. A person who participates in a work release program, a furlough, or any other similar authorized supervised or unsupervised absence from a detention facility, as defined in section 18-8-203(3), and who is required to report back to the detention facility at a specified time is deemed to be in custody.

(f.5)(I) While lawfully confined in a detention facility within this state, an actor with intent to infect, injure, or harm a person in a detention facility whom the actor knows or reasonably should know to be an employee of a detention facility, causes such employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, feces, saliva, mucus, vomit, or any toxic, caustic, or hazardous material by any means, including, but not limited to, throwing, tossing, or expelling such fluid or material.

(II) Repealed by Laws 2015, Ch. 109, § 1, eff. July 1, 2015.

(III)(A) As used in this paragraph (f.5), “detention facility” means any building, structure, enclosure, vehicle, institution, or place, whether permanent or temporary, fixed or mobile, where persons are or may be lawfully held in custody or confinement under the authority of the state of Colorado or any political subdivision of the state of Colorado.

(B) As used in this paragraph (f.5), “employee of a detention facility” includes employees of the department of corrections, employees of any agency or person operating a detention facility, law enforcement personnel, and any other persons who are present in or in the vicinity of a detention facility and are performing services for a detention facility. “Employee of a detention facility” does not include a person lawfully confined in a detention facility.

(g) With intent to cause bodily injury to another person, he or she causes serious bodily injury to that person or another; or

(h) With intent to infect, injure, or harm another person whom the actor knows or reasonably should know to be engaged in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer, a firefighter, an emergency medical care provider, or an emergency medical service provider, he or she causes such person to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, feces, saliva, mucus, vomit, or any toxic, caustic, or hazardous material by any means, including by throwing, tossing, or expelling such fluid or material; or

(i) With the intent to cause bodily injury, he or she applies sufficient pressure to impede or restrict the breathing or circulation of the blood of another person by applying such pressure to the neck or by blocking the nose or mouth of the other person and thereby causes bodily injury.

(2)(a) If assault in the second degree is committed under circumstances where the act causing the injury is performed upon a sudden heat of passion, caused by a serious and highly provoking act of the intended victim, affecting the person causing the injury sufficiently to excite an irresistible passion in a reasonable person, and without an interval between the provocation and the injury sufficient for the voice of reason and humanity to be heard, it is a class 6 felony.

(b) If assault in the second degree is committed without the circumstances provided in paragraph (a) of this subsection (2), it is a class 4 felony.

(b.5) Assault in the second degree by any person under subsection (1) of this section without the circumstances provided in paragraph (a) of this subsection (2) is a class 3 felony if the person who is assaulted, other than a participant in the crime, suffered serious bodily injury during the commission or attempted commission of or flight from the commission or attempted commission of murder, robbery, arson, burglary, escape, kidnapping in the first degree, sexual assault, sexual assault in the first or second degree as such offenses existed prior to July 1, 2000, or class 3 felony sexual assault on a child.

(c)(I) If a defendant is convicted of assault in the second degree pursuant to subsection (2)(b.5) of this section, except with respect to sexual assault or sexual assault in the first degree as it existed prior to July 1, 2000, the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of section 18-1.3-406. A defendant convicted of assault in the second degree pursuant to paragraph (b.5) of this subsection (2) with respect to sexual assault or sexual assault in the first degree as it existed prior to July 1, 2000, shall be sentenced in accordance with section 18-1.3-401(8)(e) or (8)(e.5).

(II) If a defendant is convicted of assault in the second degree pursuant to subsection (1)(b), (1)(c.5), (1)(d), or (1)(g) of this section, the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with section 18-1.3-406; except that, notwithstanding the provisions of section 18-1.3-406, the court is not required to sentence the defendant to the department of corrections for a mandatory term of incarceration.

(d) For purposes of determining sudden heat of passion pursuant to subsection (2)(a) of this section, a defendant’s act does not constitute an act performed upon a sudden heat of passion if it results solely from the discovery of, knowledge about, or potential disclosure of the victim’s actual or perceived gender, gender identity, gender expression, or sexual orientation, including but not limited to under circumstances in which the victim made an unwanted nonforcible romantic or sexual advance toward the defendant.

(3) Repealed by Laws 2016, Ch. 304, § 4, eff. July 1, 2016.

§ 18-3-204. Assault in the third degree

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of assault in the third degree if:

(a) The person knowingly or recklessly causes bodily injury to another person or with criminal negligence the person causes bodily injury to another person by means of a deadly weapon; or

(b) The person, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another person whom the actor knows or reasonably should know to be a peace officer, a firefighter, an emergency medical care provider, or an emergency medical service provider, causes the other person to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, feces, saliva, mucus, vomit, or toxic, caustic, or hazardous material by any means, including throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material.

(2) Repealed by Laws 2016, Ch. 304, § 5, eff. July 1, 2016.

(3) Assault in the third degree is a class 1 misdemeanor.

(4) Repealed by Laws 2015, Ch. 109, § 2, eff. July 1, 2015; and Laws 2015, Ch. 337, § 3, eff. Sept. 1, 2015.

§ 18-3-206. Menacing

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of menacing if, by any threat or physical action, he or she knowingly places or attempts to place another person in fear of imminent serious bodily injury. Menacing is a class 1 misdemeanor, but it is a class 5 felony if committed by the use of a firearm, knife, or bludgeon or a simulated firearm, knife, or bludgeon.

§ 18-3-207. Criminal extortion--aggravated extortion

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits criminal extortion if:

(a) The person, without legal authority and with the intent to induce another person against that other person’s will to perform an act or to refrain from performing a lawful act, makes a substantial threat to confine or restrain, cause economic hardship or bodily injury to, or damage the property or reputation of, the threatened person or another person; and

(b) The person threatens to cause the results described in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) by:

(I) Performing or causing an unlawful act to be performed; or

(II) Invoking action by a third party, including, but not limited to, the state or any of its political subdivisions, whose interests are not substantially related to the interests pursued by the person making the threat.

(1.5) A person commits criminal extortion if the person, with the intent to induce another person against that other person’s will to give the person money or another item of value, or with the intent to induce another person against that other person’s will to perform an act or to refrain from performing a lawful act, threatens to report to law enforcement officials the immigration status of the threatened person or another person.

(2) A person commits aggravated criminal extortion if, in addition to the acts described in subsection (1) of this section, the person threatens to cause the results described in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of this section by means of chemical, biological, or harmful radioactive agents, weapons, or poison.

(3) For the purposes of this section, “substantial threat” means a threat that is reasonably likely to induce a belief that the threat will be carried out and is one that threatens that significant confinement, restraint, injury, or damage will occur.

(4) Criminal extortion, as described in subsections (1) and (1.5) of this section, is a class 4 felony. Aggravated criminal extortion, as described in subsection (2) of this section, is a class 3 felony.

Part 3. Kidnapping

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-3-301. First degree kidnapping

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who does any of the following acts with the intent thereby to force the victim or any other person to make any concession or give up anything of value in order to secure a release of a person under the offender’s actual or apparent control commits first degree kidnapping:

(a) Forcibly seizes and carries any person from one place to another; or

(b) Entices or persuades any person to go from one place to another; or

(c) Imprisons or forcibly secretes any person.

(2) Whoever commits first degree kidnapping is guilty of a class 1 felony if the person kidnapped shall have suffered bodily injury; but no person convicted of first degree kidnapping shall suffer the death penalty if the person kidnapped was liberated alive prior to the conviction of the kidnapper.

(3) Whoever commits first degree kidnapping commits a class 2 felony if, prior to his conviction, the person kidnapped was liberated unharmed.

§ 18-3-302. Second degree kidnapping

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person who knowingly seizes and carries a person from one place to another, without the person’s consent and without lawful justification, and such movement increases the risk of harm to the person, commits second degree kidnapping.

(2) Any person who takes, entices, or decoys away any child not his own under the age of eighteen years with intent to keep or conceal the child from his parent or guardian or with intent to sell, trade, or barter such child for consideration commits second degree kidnapping.

(3) Second degree kidnapping is a class 2 felony if any of the following circumstances exist:

(a) The person kidnapped is a victim of a sexual offense pursuant to part 4 of this article 3;

(b) The person kidnapped is a victim of a robbery; or

(c) The kidnapping was a violation of subsection (2) of this section.

(4)(a) Unless it is a class 2 felony under subsection (3) of this section, second degree kidnapping is a class 3 felony if any of the following circumstances exist:

(I) The kidnapping is accomplished with intent to sell, trade, or barter the victim for consideration; or

(II) The kidnapping is accomplished by the use of a deadly weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to cause a person to reasonably believe that the article is a deadly weapon; or

(III) The kidnapping is accomplished by the perpetrator representing verbally or otherwise that he or she is armed with a deadly weapon.

(b) A defendant convicted of second degree kidnapping committed under any of the circumstances set forth in this subsection (4) shall be sentenced by the court in accordance with the provisions of section 18-1.3-406.

(5) Second degree kidnapping is a class 4 felony, except as provided in subsections (3) and (4) of this section.

§ 18-3-303. False imprisonment

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who knowingly confines or detains another without the other’s consent and without proper legal authority commits false imprisonment. This section does not apply to a peace officer acting in good faith within the scope of his or her duties.

(2) False imprisonment is a class 2 misdemeanor; except that false imprisonment is a class 5 felony if:

(a)(I) The person uses force or threat of force to confine or detain the other person; and

(II) The person confines or detains the other person for twelve hours or longer; or

(b)(I) The person confines or detains another person less than eighteen years of age in a locked or barricaded room under circumstances that cause bodily injury or serious emotional distress; and

(II) Such confinement or detention was part of a continued pattern of cruel punishment or unreasonable isolation or confinement of the child; or

(c) The person confines or detains another person less than eighteen years of age by means of tying, caging, chaining, or otherwise using similar physical restraints to restrict that person’s freedom of movement under circumstances that cause bodily injury or serious emotional distress.

(3) Notwithstanding section 13-90-107 or any other provision of law, the statutory privilege between a patient and a physician or between an individual and his or her spouse is not available for the purpose of excluding or refusing testimony in any prosecution for a violation of this section where the conditions described in subsection (2)(b) or (2)(c) of this section are alleged.

(4) Nothing in this section limits the ability of a person to assert the affirmative defense described in section 18-1-703.

§ 18-3-304. Violation of custody order or order relating to parental responsibilities

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (2.5) of this section, any person, including a natural or foster parent, who, knowing that he or she has no privilege to do so or heedless in that regard, takes or entices any child under the age of eighteen years from the custody or care of the child’s parents, guardian, or other lawful custodian or person with parental responsibilities with respect to the child commits a class 5 felony.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (2.5) of this section, any parent or other person who violates an order of any district or juvenile court of this state, granting the custody of a child or parental responsibilities with respect to a child under the age of eighteen years to any person, agency, or institution, with the intent to deprive the lawful custodian or person with parental responsibilities of the custody or care of a child under the age of eighteen years, commits a class 5 felony.

(2.5) Any person who, in the course of committing the offenses described in subsections (1) and (2) of this section, removes a child under the age of eighteen years from this country commits a class 4 felony.

(3) It shall be an affirmative defense either that the offender reasonably believed that his conduct was necessary to preserve the child from danger to his welfare, or that the child, being at the time more than fourteen years old, was taken away at his own instigation without enticement and without purpose to commit a criminal offense with or against the child.

(4) Any criminal action charged pursuant to this section may be tried in either the county where the act is committed or in which the court issuing the orders granting custody or allocating parental responsibilities is located, if such court is within this state.

(5) Repealed by Laws 1986, H.B.1225, § 1.

§ 18-3-305. Enticement of a child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of enticement of a child if he or she invites or persuades, or attempts to invite or persuade, a child under the age of fifteen years to enter any vehicle, building, room, or secluded place with the intent to commit sexual assault or unlawful sexual contact upon said child. It is not necessary to a prosecution for attempt under this subsection (1) that the child have perceived the defendant’s act of enticement.

(2) Enticement of a child is a class 4 felony. It is a class 3 felony if the defendant has a previous conviction for enticement of a child or sexual assault on a child or for conspiracy to commit or the attempted commission of either offense, or if the enticement of a child results in bodily injury to that child.

(3) When a person is convicted, pleads nolo contendere, or receives a deferred sentence for a violation of the provisions of this section and the court knows the person is a current or former employee of a school district in this state or holds a license or authorization pursuant to the provisions of article 60.5 of title 22, C.R.S., the court shall report such fact to the department of education.

§ 18-3-306. Internet luring of a child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) An actor commits internet luring of a child if the actor knowingly communicates over a computer or computer network, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message to a person who the actor knows or believes to be under fifteen years of age and, in that communication or in any subsequent communication by computer, computer network, telephone network, data network, text message, or instant message, describes explicit sexual conduct as defined in section 18-6-403(2)(e), and, in connection with that description, makes a statement persuading or inviting the person to meet the actor for any purpose, and the actor is more than four years older than the person or than the age the actor believes the person to be.

(2) It shall not be a defense to this section that a meeting did not occur.

(a) Deleted by Laws 2007, Ch. 383, § 8, eff. July 1, 2007.

(b) Deleted by Laws 2007, Ch. 383, § 8, eff. July 1, 2007.

(3) Internet luring of a child is a class 5 felony; except that luring of a child is a class 4 felony if committed with the intent to meet for the purpose of engaging in sexual exploitation as defined in section 18-6-403 or sexual contact as defined in section 18-3-401.

(4) For purposes of this section, “in connection with” means communications that further, advance, promote, or have a continuity of purpose and may occur before, during, or after the invitation to meet.

Part 4. Unlawful Sexual Behavior

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-3-401. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this part 4, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Actor” means the person accused of a sexual offense pursuant to this part 4.

(1.5) “Consent” means cooperation in act or attitude pursuant to an exercise of free will and with knowledge of the nature of the act. A current or previous relationship shall not be sufficient to constitute consent under the provisions of this part 4. Submission under the influence of fear shall not constitute consent. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to affect the admissibility of evidence or the burden of proof in regard to the issue of consent under this part 4.

(1.7) “Diagnostic test” means a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) screening test followed by a supplemental HIV test for confirmation in those instances when the HIV screening test is repeatedly reactive.

(2) “Intimate parts” means the external genitalia or the perineum or the anus or the buttocks or the pubes or the breast of any person.

(2.4) “Medical-reporting victim” means a victim who seeks medical treatment services following a sexual assault but who elects not to participate in the criminal justice system at the time the victim receives medical services.

(2.5) “Pattern of sexual abuse” means the commission of two or more incidents of sexual contact involving a child when such offenses are committed by an actor upon the same victim.

(3) “Physically helpless” means unconscious, asleep, or otherwise unable to indicate willingness to act.

(3.5) One in a “position of trust” includes, but is not limited to, any person who is a parent or acting in the place of a parent and charged with any of a parent’s rights, duties, or responsibilities concerning a child, including a guardian or someone otherwise responsible for the general supervision of a child’s welfare, or a person who is charged with any duty or responsibility for the health, education, welfare, or supervision of a child, including foster care, child care, family care, or institutional care, either independently or through another, no matter how brief, at the time of an unlawful act.

(4) “Sexual contact” means:

(a) The knowing touching of the victim’s intimate parts by the actor, or of the actor’s intimate parts by the victim, or the knowing touching of the clothing covering the immediate area of the victim’s or actor’s intimate parts if that sexual contact is for the purposes of sexual arousal, gratification, or abuse;

(b) The knowing emission or ejaculation of seminal fluid onto any body part of the victim or the clothing covering any body part of the victim; or

(c) Knowingly causing semen, blood, urine, feces, or a bodily substance to contact any body part of the victim or the clothing covering any body part of the victim if that contact with semen, blood, urine, feces, or a bodily substance is for the purpose of sexual arousal, gratification, or abuse.

(5) “Sexual intrusion” means any intrusion, however slight, by any object or any part of a person’s body, except the mouth, tongue, or penis, into the genital or anal opening of another person’s body if that sexual intrusion can reasonably be construed as being for the purposes of sexual arousal, gratification, or abuse.

(6) “Sexual penetration” means sexual intercourse, cunnilingus, fellatio, anilingus, or anal intercourse. Emission need not be proved as an element of any sexual penetration. Any penetration, however slight, is sufficient to complete the crime.

(7) “Victim” means the person alleging to have been subjected to a criminal sexual assault.

§ 18-3-402. Sexual assault

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any actor who knowingly inflicts sexual intrusion or sexual penetration on a victim commits sexual assault if:

(a) The actor causes sexual intrusion or sexual penetration knowing the victim does not consent; or

(b) The actor knows that the victim is incapable of appraising the nature of the victim’s conduct; or

(c) The actor knows that the victim submits erroneously, believing the actor to be the victim’s spouse; or

(d) At the time of the commission of the act, the victim is less than fifteen years of age and the actor is at least four years older than the victim and is not the spouse of the victim; or

(e) At the time of the commission of the act, the victim is at least fifteen years of age but less than seventeen years of age and the actor is at least ten years older than the victim and is not the spouse of the victim; or

(f) The victim is in custody of law or detained in a hospital or other institution and the actor has supervisory or disciplinary authority over the victim and uses this position of authority to coerce the victim to submit, unless the act is incident to a lawful search; or

(g) The actor, while purporting to offer a medical service, engages in treatment or examination of a victim for other than a bona fide medical purpose or in a manner substantially inconsistent with reasonable medical practices; or

(h) The victim is physically helpless and the actor knows the victim is physically helpless and the victim has not consented.

(2) Sexual assault is a class 4 felony, except as provided in subsections (3), (3.5), (4), and (5) of this section.

(3) If committed under the circumstances of subsection (1)(e) of this section, sexual assault is a class 6 felony. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person convicted of subsection (1)(e) of this section is eligible to petition for removal from the registry in accordance with section 16-22-113(1)(b).

(3.5) Sexual assault is a class 3 felony if committed under the circumstances described in paragraph (h) of subsection (1) of this section.

(4) Sexual assault is a class 3 felony if it is attended by any one or more of the following circumstances:

(a) The actor causes submission of the victim through the actual application of physical force or physical violence; or

(b) The actor causes submission of the victim by threat of imminent death, serious bodily injury, extreme pain, or kidnapping, to be inflicted on anyone, and the victim believes that the actor has the present ability to execute these threats; or

(c) The actor causes submission of the victim by threatening to retaliate in the future against the victim, or any other person, and the victim reasonably believes that the actor will execute this threat. As used in this paragraph (c), “to retaliate” includes threats of kidnapping, death, serious bodily injury, or extreme pain.

(d) The actor has substantially impaired the victim’s power to appraise or control the victim’s conduct by employing, without the victim’s consent, any drug, intoxicant, or other means for the purpose of causing submission.

(e) Deleted by Laws 2002, Ch. 322, § 2, eff. July 1, 2002.

(5)(a) Sexual assault is a class 2 felony if any one or more of the following circumstances exist:

(I) In the commission of the sexual assault, the actor is physically aided or abetted by one or more other persons; or

(II) The victim suffers serious bodily injury; or

(III) The actor is armed with a deadly weapon or an article used or fashioned in a manner to cause a person to reasonably believe that the article is a deadly weapon or represents verbally or otherwise that the actor is armed with a deadly weapon and uses the deadly weapon, article, or representation to cause submission of the victim.

(b)(I) If a defendant is convicted of sexual assault pursuant to this subsection (5), the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with section 18-1.3-401(8)(e). A person convicted solely of sexual assault pursuant to this subsection (5) shall not be sentenced under the crime of violence provisions of section 18-1.3-406(2). Any sentence for a conviction under this subsection (5) shall be consecutive to any sentence for a conviction for a crime of violence under section 18-1.3-406.

(II) The provisions of this paragraph (b) shall apply to offenses committed prior to November 1, 1998.

(6) Any person convicted of felony sexual assault committed on or after November 1, 1998, under any of the circumstances described in this section shall be sentenced in accordance with the provisions of part 10 of article 1.3 of this title.

(7) A person who is convicted on or after July 1, 2013, of a sexual assault under this section, upon conviction, shall be advised by the court that the person has no right:

(a) To notification of the termination of parental rights and no standing to object to the termination of parental rights for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(b) To allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibilities for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(c) Of inheritance from a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense; and

(d) To notification of or the right to object to the adoption of a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense.

§ 18-3-404. Unlawful Sexual Contact

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any actor who knowingly subjects a victim to any sexual contact commits unlawful sexual contact if:

(a) The actor knows that the victim does not consent; or

(b) The actor knows that the victim is incapable of appraising the nature of the victim’s conduct; or

(c) The victim is physically helpless and the actor knows that the victim is physically helpless and the victim has not consented; or

(d) The actor has substantially impaired the victim’s power to appraise or control the victim’s conduct by employing, without the victim’s consent, any drug, intoxicant, or other means for the purpose of causing submission; or

(e) Repealed by Laws 1990, H.B.90-1133, § 25, eff. July 1, 1990.

(f) The victim is in custody of law or detained in a hospital or other institution and the actor has supervisory or disciplinary authority over the victim and uses this position of authority, unless incident to a lawful search, to coerce the victim to submit; or

(g) The actor engages in treatment or examination of a victim for other than bona fide medical purposes or in a manner substantially inconsistent with reasonable medical practices.

(1.5) Any person who knowingly, with or without sexual contact, induces or coerces a child by any of the means set forth in section 18-3-402 to expose intimate parts or to engage in any sexual contact, intrusion, or penetration with another person, for the purpose of the actor’s own sexual gratification, commits unlawful sexual contact. For the purposes of this subsection (1.5), the term “child” means any person under the age of eighteen years.

(1.7) Repealed by Laws 2010, Ch. 415, § 1, eff. July 1, 2012.

(2)(a) Unlawful sexual contact is a class 1 misdemeanor and is an extraordinary risk crime that is subject to the modified sentencing range specified in section 18-1.3-501(3).

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (2), unlawful sexual contact is a class 4 felony if the actor compels the victim to submit by use of such force, intimidation, or threat as specified in section 18-3-402(4)(a), (4)(b), or (4)(c) or if the actor engages in the conduct described in paragraph (g) of subsection (1) of this section or subsection (1.5) of this section.

(3) If a defendant is convicted of the class 4 felony of unlawful sexual contact pursuant to paragraph (b) of subsection (2) of this section, the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of section 18-1.3-406; except that this subsection (3) shall not apply if the actor engages in the conduct described in paragraph (g) of subsection (1) of this section.

(4) A person who is convicted on or after July 1, 2013, of unlawful sexual contact under this section, upon conviction, shall be advised by the court that the person has no right:

(a) To notification of the termination of parental rights and no standing to object to the termination of parental rights for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(b) To allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibilities for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(c) Of inheritance from a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense; and

(d) To notification of or the right to object to the adoption of a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense.

§ 18-3-405. Sexual assault on a child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any actor who knowingly subjects another not his or her spouse to any sexual contact commits sexual assault on a child if the victim is less than fifteen years of age and the actor is at least four years older than the victim.

(2) Sexual assault on a child is a class 4 felony, but it is a class 3 felony if:

(a) The actor applies force against the victim in order to accomplish or facilitate sexual contact; or

(b) The actor, in order to accomplish or facilitate sexual contact, threatens imminent death, serious bodily injury, extreme pain, or kidnapping against the victim or another person, and the victim believes that the actor has the present ability to execute the threat; or

(c) The actor, in order to accomplish or facilitate sexual contact, threatens retaliation by causing in the future the death or serious bodily injury, extreme pain, or kidnapping against the victim or another person, and the victim believes that the actor will execute the threat; or

(d) The actor commits the offense as a part of a pattern of sexual abuse as described in subsection (1) of this section. No specific date or time must be alleged for the pattern of sexual abuse; except that the acts constituting the pattern of sexual abuse, whether charged in the information or indictment or committed prior to or at any time after the offense charged in the information or indictment, shall be subject to the provisions of section 16-5-401(1)(a), concerning sex offenses against children. The offense charged in the information or indictment shall constitute one of the incidents of sexual contact involving a child necessary to form a pattern of sexual abuse as defined in section 18-3-401(2.5). Prosecution for any incident of sexual contact constituting the offense or any incident of sexual contact constituting the pattern of sexual abuse may be commenced and charged in an information or indictment in a county where at least one of the incidents occurred or in a county where an act in furtherance of the offense was committed.

(3) If a defendant is convicted of the class 3 felony of sexual assault on a child pursuant to paragraphs (a) to (d) of subsection (2) of this section, the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of section 18-1.3-406.

(4) A person who is convicted on or after July 1, 2013, of sexual assault on a child under this section, upon conviction, shall be advised by the court that the person has no right:

(a) To notification of the termination of parental rights and no standing to object to the termination of parental rights for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(b) To allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibilities for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(c) Of inheritance from a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense; and

(d) To notification of or the right to object to the adoption of a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense.

§ 18-3-409. Marital defense

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Any marital relationship, whether established statutorily, putatively, or by common law, between an actor and a victim shall not be a defense to any offense under this part 4 unless such defense is specifically set forth in the applicable statutory section by having the elements of the offense specifically exclude a spouse.

§ 18-3-405.3. Sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any actor who knowingly subjects another not his or her spouse to any sexual contact commits sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust if the victim is a child less than eighteen years of age and the actor committing the offense is one in a position of trust with respect to the victim.

(2) Sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust is a class 3 felony if:

(a) The victim is less than fifteen years of age; or

(b) The actor commits the offense as a part of a pattern of sexual abuse as described in subsection (1) of this section. No specific date or time need be alleged for the pattern of sexual abuse; except that the acts constituting the pattern of sexual abuse whether charged in the information or indictment or committed prior to or at any time after the offense charged in the information or indictment, shall be subject to the provisions of section 16-5-401(1)(a), concerning sex offenses against children. The offense charged in the information or indictment shall constitute one of the incidents of sexual contact involving a child necessary to form a pattern of sexual abuse as defined in section 18-3-401(2.5). Prosecution for any incident of sexual contact constituting the offense or any incident of sexual contact constituting the pattern of sexual abuse may be commenced and the offenses charged in an information or indictment in a county where at least one of the incidents occurred or in a county where an act in furtherance of the offense was committed.

(3) Sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust is a class 4 felony if the victim is fifteen years of age or older but less than eighteen years of age and the offense is not committed as part of a pattern of sexual abuse, as described in paragraph (b) of subsection (2) of this section.

(4) If a defendant is convicted of the class 3 felony of sexual assault on a child pursuant to paragraph (b) of subsection (2) of this section, the court shall sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of section 18-1.3-406.

(5) A person who is convicted on or after July 1, 2013, of sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust under this section, upon conviction, shall be advised by the court that the person has no right:

(a) To notification of the termination of parental rights and no standing to object to the termination of parental rights for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(b) To allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibilities for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(c) Of inheritance from a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense; and

(d) To notification of or the right to object to the adoption of a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense.

§ 18-3-405.4. Internet sexual exploitation of a child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) An actor commits internet sexual exploitation of a child if the actor knowingly importunes, invites, or entices through communication via a computer network or system, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message, a person whom the actor knows or believes to be under fifteen years of age and at least four years younger than the actor, to:

(a) Expose or touch the person’s own or another person’s intimate parts while communicating with the actor via a computer network or system, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message; or

(b) Observe the actor’s intimate parts via a computer network or system, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message.

(2) Deleted by Laws 2009, Ch. 343, § 1, eff. July 1, 2009.

(3) Internet sexual exploitation of a child is a class 4 felony.

§ 18-3-405.5. Sexual assault on a client by a psychotherapist--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) Any actor who knowingly inflicts sexual penetration or sexual intrusion on a victim commits aggravated sexual assault on a client if:

(I) The actor is a psychotherapist and the victim is a client of the psychotherapist; or

(II) The actor is a psychotherapist and the victim is a client and the sexual penetration or intrusion occurred by means of therapeutic deception.

(b) Aggravated sexual assault on a client is a class 4 felony.

(2)(a) Any actor who knowingly subjects a victim to any sexual contact commits sexual assault on a client if:

(I) The actor is a psychotherapist and the victim is a client of the psychotherapist; or

(II) The actor is a psychotherapist and the victim is a client and the sexual contact occurred by means of therapeutic deception.

(b) Sexual assault on a client is a class 1 misdemeanor.

(3) Consent by the client to the sexual penetration, intrusion, or contact shall not constitute a defense to such offense.

(4) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Client” means a person who seeks or receives psychotherapy from a psychotherapist.

(b) “Psychotherapist” means any person who performs or purports to perform psychotherapy, whether the person is licensed or registered by the state pursuant to title 12, C.R.S., or certified by the state pursuant to part 5 of article 1 of title 25, C.R.S.

(c) “Psychotherapy” means the treatment, diagnosis, or counseling in a professional relationship to assist individuals or groups to alleviate behavioral or mental health disorders, understand unconscious or conscious motivation, resolve emotional, relationship, or attitudinal conflicts, or modify behaviors that interfere with effective emotional, social, or intellectual functioning.

(d) “Therapeutic deception” means a representation by a psychotherapist that sexual contact, penetration, or intrusion by the psychotherapist is consistent with or part of the client’s treatment.

(5) A person who is convicted on or after July 1, 2013, of sexual assault on a client by a psychotherapist under this section, upon conviction, shall be advised by the court that the person has no right:

(a) To notification of the termination of parental rights and no standing to object to the termination of parental rights for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(b) To allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibilities for a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense;

(c) Of inheritance from a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense; and

(d) To notification of or the right to object to the adoption of a child conceived as a result of the commission of that offense.

§ 18-3-405.6. Invasion of privacy for sexual gratification

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person who knowingly observes or takes a photograph of another person’s intimate parts without that person’s consent, in a situation where the person observed or photographed has a reasonable expectation of privacy, for the purpose of the observer’s own sexual gratification, commits unlawful invasion of privacy for sexual gratification.

(2)(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection (2), invasion of privacy for sexual gratification is a class 1 misdemeanor and is an extraordinary risk crime subject to the modified sentencing range specified in section 18-1.3-501(3).

(b) Invasion of privacy for sexual gratification is a class 6 felony and is an extraordinary risk crime subject to the modified sentencing range specified in section 18-1.3-401(10) if either of the following circumstances exist:

(I) The offense is committed subsequent to a prior conviction, as defined in section 16-22-102(3), C.R.S., for unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102(9), C.R.S.; or

(II) The person observes or takes a photograph of the intimate parts of a person under fifteen years of age. This subparagraph (II) shall not apply if the defendant is less than four years older than the person observed or photographed.

(3) For purposes of this section, “photograph” includes a photograph, motion picture, videotape, live feed, print, negative, slide, or other mechanically, electronically, or chemically produced or reproduced visual material.

§ 18-3-405.7. Unlawful sexual conduct by a peace officer--definition

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A peace officer commits unlawful sexual conduct by a peace officer by knowingly engaging in sexual contact, sexual intrusion, or sexual penetration under any of the following circumstances:

(a) In the same encounter, the peace officer contacts the victim for the purpose of law enforcement or contacts the victim in the exercise of the officer’s employment activities or duties;

(b) The peace officer knows that the victim is, or causes the victim to believe that he or she is, the subject of an active investigation, and the peace officer uses that knowledge to further the sexual contact, intrusion, or penetration; or

(c) In furtherance of sexual contact, intrusion, or penetration, the peace officer makes any show of real or apparent authority.

(2)(a) Unlawful sexual conduct by a peace officer under circumstances when the victim is subject to sexual contact is a class 4 felony.

(b) Unlawful sexual conduct by a peace officer under circumstances in which sexual intrusion or penetration is inflicted on the victim is a class 3 felony.

(3) For the purposes of this section, unless the context otherwise requires, “peace officer” means any person described in article 2.5 of title 16.

(4) It is not a defense to this section that the victim consented to the sexual contact, intrusion, or penetration.

(5) This section does not apply to sexual contact or intrusion that occurs incident to a lawful search.

§ 18-3-418. Unlawful electronic sexual communication--person in a position of trust--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) An actor commits unlawful electronic sexual communication if the actor knowingly importunes, invites, or entices through communication via a computer network or system, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message a person whom the actor knows or believes to be fifteen years of age or older but less than eighteen years of age and at least four years younger than the actor, and the actor committing the offense is one in a position of trust with respect to that person, to:

(a) Expose or touch the person’s own or another person’s intimate parts while communicating with the actor via a computer network or system, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message; or

(b) Observe the actor’s intimate parts via a computer network or system, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message.

(2) An actor commits unlawful electronic sexual communication if the actor knowingly communicates over a computer or computer network, telephone network, or data network or by a text message or instant message to a person the actor knows or believes to be fifteen years of age or older but less than eighteen years of age and at least four years younger than the actor and, in that communication or in any subsequent communication by computer or computer network, telephone network, or data network or by text message or instant message, describes explicit sexual conduct as defined in section 18-6-403(2)(e) and, in connection with that description, makes a statement persuading or inviting the person to meet the actor for any purpose, and the actor committing the offense is one in a position of trust with respect to that person.

(3) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Explicit sexual conduct” has the same meaning as section 18-6-403(2)(e).

(b) “In connection with” means communications that further, advance, promote, or have a continuity of purpose and may occur before, during, or after the invitation to meet.

(c) “Position of trust” has the same meaning as section 18-3-401(3.5).

(4)(a) Unlawful electronic sexual communication in violation of subsection (1) of this section is a class 6 felony.(b) Unlawful electronic sexual communication in violation of subsection (2) of this section is a class 6 felony; except that unlawful electronic sexual communication is a class 5 felony if committed with the intent to meet for the purpose of engaging in sexual exploitation as defined in section 18-6-403 or sexual contact as defined in section 18-3-401.

Part 5. Human Trafficking and Slavery

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-3-504. Human trafficking for sexual servitude--human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) A person commits human trafficking for sexual servitude if the person knowingly sells, recruits, harbors, transports, transfers, isolates, entices, provides, receives, or obtains by any means another person for the purpose of coercing the person to engage in commercial sexual activity.

(b) Human trafficking for sexual servitude is a class 3 felony.

(2)(a) A person commits human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude if the person:

(I) Knowingly sells, recruits, harbors, transports, transfers, isolates, entices, provides, receives, obtains by any means, maintains, or makes available a minor for the purpose of commercial sexual activity; or

(II) Knowingly advertises, offers to sell, or sells travel services that facilitate an activity prohibited pursuant to subsection (2)(a)(I) of this section.

(b) Human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude is a class 2 felony. The court shall sentence a person convicted of such a class 2 felony to the department of corrections for a term of at least the minimum of the presumptive range for a class 2 felony, as set forth in section 18-1.3-401.

(c) In any prosecution under this subsection (2), it is not a defense that:

(I) The minor consented to being sold, recruited, harbored, transported, transferred, isolated, enticed, provided, received, obtained, or maintained by the defendant for the purpose of engaging in commercial sexual activity;

(II) The minor consented to participating in commercial sexual activity;

(III) The defendant did not know the minor’s age or reasonably believed the minor to be eighteen years of age or older; or

(IV) The minor or another person represented the minor to be eighteen years of age or older.

(2.5) It is an affirmative defense to a charge pursuant to subsection (2) of this section if the person being charged can demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that, at the time of the offense, he or she was a victim of human trafficking for sexual servitude who was forced or coerced into engaging in the human trafficking of minors for sexual servitude pursuant to subsection (2) of this section.

(3) A person does not need to receive any of the proceeds of any commercial sexual activity to commit an offense described in this section.

(4) Conviction for an offense described in this section does not preclude conviction for an offense described in article 6 or 7 of this title based in whole or in part on the same or related conduct, and the court shall not require the prosecution to elect at trial between such offenses.

Part 6. Stalking

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-3-601. Legislative declaration

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(a) Stalking is a serious problem in this state and nationwide;

(b) Although stalking often involves persons who have had an intimate relationship with one another, it can also involve persons who have little or no past relationship;

(c) A stalker will often maintain strong, unshakable, and irrational emotional feelings for his or her victim and may likewise believe that the victim either returns these feelings of affection or will do so if the stalker is persistent enough. Further, the stalker often maintains this belief, despite a trivial or nonexistent basis for it and despite rejection, lack of reciprocation, efforts to restrict or avoid the stalker, and other facts that conflict with this belief.

(d) A stalker may also develop jealousy and animosity for persons who are in relationships with the victim, including family members, employers and co-workers, and friends, perceiving them as obstacles or as threats to the stalker’s own “relationship” with the victim;

(e) Because stalking involves highly inappropriate intensity, persistence, and possessiveness, it entails great unpredictability and creates great stress and fear for the victim;

(f) Stalking involves severe intrusions on the victim’s personal privacy and autonomy, with an immediate and long-lasting impact on quality of life as well as risks to security and safety of the victim and persons close to the victim, even in the absence of express threats of physical harm.

(2) The general assembly hereby recognizes the seriousness posed by stalking and adopts the provisions of this part 6 with the goal of encouraging and authorizing effective intervention before stalking can escalate into behavior that has even more serious consequences.

§ 18-3-602. Stalking--penalty--definitions--Vonnie's law

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits stalking if directly, or indirectly through another person, the person knowingly:

(a) Makes a credible threat to another person and, in connection with the threat, repeatedly follows, approaches, contacts, or places under surveillance that person, a member of that person’s immediate family, or someone with whom that person has or has had a continuing relationship; or

(b) Makes a credible threat to another person and, in connection with the threat, repeatedly makes any form of communication with that person, a member of that person’s immediate family, or someone with whom that person has or has had a continuing relationship, regardless of whether a conversation ensues; or

(c) Repeatedly follows, approaches, contacts, places under surveillance, or makes any form of communication with another person, a member of that person’s immediate family, or someone with whom that person has or has had a continuing relationship in a manner that would cause a reasonable person to suffer serious emotional distress and does cause that person, a member of that person’s immediate family, or someone with whom that person has or has had a continuing relationship to suffer serious emotional distress. For purposes of this paragraph (c), a victim need not show that he or she received professional treatment or counseling to show that he or she suffered serious emotional distress.

(2) For the purposes of this part 6:

(a) Conduct “in connection with” a credible threat means acts that further, advance, promote, or have a continuity of purpose, and may occur before, during, or after the credible threat.

(b) “Credible threat” means a threat, physical action, or repeated conduct that would cause a reasonable person to be in fear for the person’s safety or the safety of his or her immediate family or of someone with whom the person has or has had a continuing relationship. The threat need not be directly expressed if the totality of the conduct would cause a reasonable person such fear.

(c) “Immediate family” includes the person’s spouse and the person’s parent, grandparent, sibling, or child.

(d) “Repeated” or “repeatedly” means on more than one occasion.

(3) A person who commits stalking:

(a) Commits a class 5 felony for a first offense except as otherwise provided in subsection (5) of this section; or

(b) Commits a class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense, if the offense occurs within seven years after the date of a prior offense for which the person was convicted.

(4) Stalking is an extraordinary risk crime that is subject to the modified presumptive sentencing range specified in section 18-1.3-401(10).

(5) If, at the time of the offense, there was a temporary or permanent protection order, injunction, or condition of bond, probation, or parole or any other court order in effect against the person, prohibiting the behavior described in this section, the person commits a class 4 felony.

(6) Nothing in this section shall be construed to alter or diminish the inherent authority of the court to enforce its orders through civil or criminal contempt proceedings; however, before a criminal contempt proceeding is heard before the court, notice of the proceedings shall be provided to the district attorney for the judicial district of the court where the proceedings are to be heard and the district attorney for the judicial district in which the alleged act of criminal contempt occurred. The district attorney for either district shall be allowed to appear and argue for the imposition of contempt sanctions.

(7) A peace officer shall have a duty to respond as soon as reasonably possible to a report of stalking and to cooperate with the alleged victim in investigating the report.

(8)(a) When a person is arrested for an alleged violation of this section, the fixing of bail for the crime of stalking shall be done in accordance with section 16-4-105(4), C.R.S., and a protection order shall issue in accordance with section 18-1-1001(5).

(b) This subsection (8) shall be known and may be cited as “Vonnie’s law”.

(9) When a violation under this section is committed in connection with a violation of a court order, including but not limited to any protection order or any order that sets forth the conditions of a bond, any sentences imposed pursuant to this section and pursuant to section 18-6-803.5 or any sentence imposed in a contempt proceeding for violation of the court order shall be served consecutively and not concurrently.

Article 4. Offenses Against Property

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 5. Trespass, Tampering, and Criminal Mischief

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-4-502. First degree criminal trespass

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of first degree criminal trespass if such person:

(a) Knowingly and unlawfully enters or remains in a dwelling of another; or

(b) Enters any motor vehicle with intent to commit a crime therein.

(2)(a) First degree criminal trespass committed pursuant to subsection (1)(a) of this section is a class 1 misdemeanor, but it is a class 6 felony if the dwelling is inhabited or occupied.

(b) First degree criminal trespass committed pursuant to subsection (1)(b) of this section is a class 1 misdemeanor.

§ 18-4-503. Second degree criminal trespass

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of second degree criminal trespass if such person:

(a) Unlawfully enters or remains in or upon the premises of another which are enclosed in a manner designed to exclude intruders or are fenced; or

(b) Knowingly and unlawfully enters or remains in or upon the common areas of a hotel, motel, condominium, or apartment building; or

(c) Knowingly and unlawfully enters or remains in a motor vehicle of another.

(2)(a) Second degree criminal trespass in violation of subsection (1)(a) or (1)(b) of this section is a petty offense, but it is a class 5 felony if the person trespasses on premises so classified as agricultural land with the intent to commit a felony thereon.

(b) Second degree criminal trespass in violation of subsection (1)(c) of this section is a class 2 misdemeanor.

(3) Repealed by Laws 2021, Ch. 460 (H.B. 21-1314), § 10, eff. Jan. 1, 2022.

§ 18-4-504. Third degree criminal trespass

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of third degree criminal trespass if such person unlawfully enters or remains in or upon premises of another.

(2) Third degree criminal trespass is a petty offense, but:

(a) Repealed by Laws 2021, Ch. 462 (S.B. 21-271), § 213, eff. March 1, 2022.

(b) It is a class 5 felony if the person trespasses on premises classified as agricultural land with the intent to commit a felony thereon; except that it is a class 6 felony if the agricultural land did not have a fence securing the perimeter.

Article 5. Offenses Involving Fraud

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. Forgery, Simulation, Impersonation, and Related Offenses

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-5-113 Criminal impersonation

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits criminal impersonation if he or she knowingly:

(a) Assumes a false or fictitious identity or legal capacity, and in such identity or capacity he or she:

(I) Marries, or pretends to marry, or to sustain the marriage relation toward another without the connivance of the latter;

(II) Becomes bail or surety for a party in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal, before a court or officer authorized to take the bail or surety; or

(III) Confesses a judgment, or subscribes, verifies, publishes, acknowledges, or proves a written instrument which by law may be recorded, with the intent that the same may be delivered as true; or

(b) Assumes a false or fictitious identity or capacity, legal or other, and in such identity or capacity he or she:

(I) Performs an act that, if done by the person falsely impersonated, subjects such person to an action or special proceeding, civil or criminal, or to liability, charge, forfeiture, or penalty;

(II) Performs an act that, if done by the person falsely impersonated, might subject the person to an action or special proceeding, civil or criminal, or to liability, charge, forfeiture, or penalty; or

(III) Performs any other act with intent to unlawfully gain a benefit for himself, herself, or another or to injure or defraud another.

(2)(a) Criminal impersonation in violation of subsection (1)(a)(III) or (1)(b)(I) of this section is a class 6 felony.

(a.5) Criminal impersonation in violation of subsection (1)(a)(I) or (1)(a)(II) of this section is a class 5 felony.

(b) Criminal impersonation in violation of subsection (1)(b)(II) of this section is a class 1 misdemeanor.

(c) Criminal impersonation in violation of subsection (1)(b)(III) of this section is a class 2 misdemeanor.

(3) For the purposes of subsection (1) of this section, using false or fictitious personal identifying information, as defined in section 18-5-901(13), shall constitute the assumption of a false or fictitious identity or capacity.

Part 9. Identity Theft and Related Offenses

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-5-901. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this part 9, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Account holder” means any person or business entity named on or associated with the account or named on the face of a financial device to whom or for whose benefit the financial device is issued by an issuer.

(2) “Extension of credit” means any loan or agreement, express or implied, whereby the repayment or satisfaction of any debt or claim, whether acknowledged or disputed, valid or invalid, and however arising, may or will be deferred.

(3) To “falsely alter” a written instrument or financial device means to change a written instrument or financial device without the authority of anyone entitled to grant such authority, whether it be in complete or incomplete form, by means of erasure, obliteration, deletion, insertion of new matter, transposition of matter, or any other means, so that the written instrument or financial device in its thus altered form falsely appears or purports to be in all respects an authentic creation of or fully authorized by its ostensible maker.

(4) To “falsely complete” a written instrument or financial device means:

(a) To transform an incomplete written instrument or financial device into a complete one by adding, inserting, or changing matter without the authority of anyone entitled to grant that authority, so that the complete written instrument or financial device falsely appears or purports to be in all respects an authentic creation of or fully authorized by its ostensible maker; or

(b) To transform an incomplete written instrument or financial device into a complete one by adding or inserting materially false information or adding or inserting a materially false statement. A materially false statement is a false assertion that affects the action, conduct, or decision of the person who receives or is intended to receive the asserted information in a manner that directly or indirectly benefits the person making the assertion.

(5) To “falsely make” a written instrument or financial device means to make or draw a written instrument or financial device, whether it be in complete or incomplete form, that purports to be an authentic creation of its ostensible maker, but that is not, either because the ostensible maker is fictitious or because, if real, the ostensible maker did not authorize the making or the drawing of the written instrument or financial device.

(6) “Financial device” means any instrument or device that can be used to obtain cash, credit, property, services, or any other thing of value or to make financial payments, including but not limited to:

(a) A credit card, banking card, debit card, electronic fund transfer card, or guaranteed check card;

(b) A check;

(c) A negotiable order of withdrawal;

(d) A share draft; or

(e) A money order.

(7) “Financial identifying information” means any of the following that can be used, alone or in conjunction with any other information, to obtain cash, credit, property, services, or any other thing of value or to make a financial payment:

(a) A personal identification number, credit card number, banking card number, checking account number, debit card number, electronic fund transfer card number, guaranteed check card number, or routing number; or

(b) A number representing a financial account or a number affecting the financial interest, standing, or obligation of or to the account holder.

(8) “Government” means:

(a) The United States and its departments, agencies, or subdivisions;

(b) A state, county, municipality, or other political unit and its departments, agencies, or subdivisions; and

(c) A corporation or other entity established by law to carry out governmental functions.

(9) “Issuer” means a person, a banking, financial, or business institution, or a corporation or other business entity that assigns financial rights by acquiring, distributing, controlling, or cancelling an account or a financial device.

(10) “Number” includes, without limitation, any grouping or combination of letters, numbers, or symbols.

(11) “Of another” means that of a natural person, living or dead, or a business entity as defined in section 16-3-301.1 (11) (b), C.R.S.

(12) “Personal identification number” means a number assigned to an account holder by an issuer to permit authorized use of an account or financial device.

(13) “Personal identifying information” means information that may be used, alone or in conjunction with any other information, to identify a specific individual, including but not limited to a name; a date of birth; a social security number; a password; a pass code; an official, government-issued driver’s license or identification card number; a government passport number; biometric data; or an employer, student, or military identification number.

(14) “Utter” means to transfer, pass, or deliver, or to attempt or cause to be transferred, passed, or delivered, to another person a written instrument or financial device, article, or thing.

(15) “Written instrument” means a paper, document, or other instrument containing written or printed matter or the equivalent thereof, used for purposes of reciting, embodying, conveying, or recording information, and any money, token, stamp, seal, badge, or trademark or any evidence or symbol of value, right, privilege, or identification, that is capable of being used to the advantage or disadvantage of another.

§ 18-5-902. Identity theft

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits identity theft if he or she:

(a) Knowingly uses the personal identifying information, financial identifying information, or financial device of another without permission or lawful authority with the intent to obtain cash, credit, property, services, or any other thing of value or to make a financial payment;

(b) Knowingly possesses the personal identifying information, financial identifying information, or financial device of another without permission or lawful authority, with the intent to use or to aid or permit some other person to use such information or device to obtain cash, credit, property, services, or any other thing of value or to make a financial payment;

(c) With the intent to defraud, falsely makes, completes, alters, or utters a written instrument or financial device containing any personal identifying information or financial identifying information of another;

(d) Knowingly possesses the personal identifying information or financial identifying information of another without permission or lawful authority to use in applying for or completing an application for a financial device or other extension of credit; or

(e) Knowingly uses or possesses the personal identifying information of another without permission or lawful authority with the intent to obtain a government-issued document.

(f) Deleted by Laws 2009, Ch. 326, § 1, eff. July 1, 2009.

(2)(a) Identity theft in violation of subsection (1)(a) or (1)(c) of this section is a class 4 felony.

(b) Identity theft in violation of subsection (1)(b), (1)(d), or (1)(e) of this section is a class 2 misdemeanor; except that it is a class 5 felony if the person possesses three or more financial devices or the personal or financial identifying information of three or more persons.

(3) Repealed by Laws 2023, Ch. 298, § 22, eff. Oct. 1, 2023.

§ 18-5-903. Criminal possession of a financial device

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits criminal possession of a financial device if the person has in his or her possession or under his or her control any financial device that the person knows, or reasonably should know, to be lost, stolen, or delivered under mistake as to the identity or address of the account holder.

(2)(a) Except as provided in subsection (2)(c) of this section, criminal possession of one or more financial devices is a class 2 misdemeanor.

(b) Deleted by Laws 2023, Ch. 298, § 23, eff. Oct. 1, 2023.

(c) Criminal possession of three or more financial devices, of which at least two are issued to different account holders, is a class 5 felony.

§ 18-5-903.5. Criminal possession of an identification document

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits criminal possession of an identification document if the person knowingly has in his or her possession or under his or her control another person’s actual driver’s license, actual government-issued identification card, actual social security card, or actual passport, knowing that he or she does so without permission or lawful authority.

(2)(a) Criminal possession of one or more identification documents issued to the same person is a class 2 misdemeanor.

(b) Criminal possession of two or more identification documents, of which at least two are issued to different persons, is a class 6 felony.

 

§ 18-5-904. Gathering identity information by deception

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits gathering identity information by deception if he or she knowingly makes or conveys a materially false statement, without permission or lawful authority, with the intent to obtain, record, or access the personal identifying information or financial identifying information of another.

(2) Gathering identity information by deception is a class 5 felony.

§ 18-5-905. Possession of identity theft tools

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits possession of identity theft tools if he or she possesses any tools, equipment, computer, computer network, scanner, printer, or other article adapted, designed, or commonly used for committing or facilitating the commission of the offense of identity theft as described in section 18-5-902, and intends to use the thing possessed, or knows that a person intends to use the thing possessed, in the commission of the offense of identity theft.

(2) Possession of identity theft tools is a class 5 felony.

Article 6. Offenses Involving Family Relations

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 3. Incest

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-6-301. Incest

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who knowingly marries, inflicts sexual penetration or sexual intrusion on, or subjects to sexual contact, as defined in section 18-3-401, an ancestor or descendant, including a natural child, child by adoption, or stepchild twenty-one years of age or older, a brother or sister of the whole or half blood, or an uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece of the whole blood commits incest, which is a class 4 felony. For the purpose of this section only, “descendant” includes a child by adoption and a stepchild, but only if the person is not legally married to the child by adoption or the stepchild.

(2) When a person is convicted of, pleads nolo contendere to, or receives a deferred sentence for a violation of the provisions of this section and the victim is a child who is under eighteen years of age and the court knows the person is a current or former employee of a school district or a charter school in this state or holds a license or authorization pursuant to the provisions of article 60.5 of title 22, C.R.S., the court shall report such fact to the department of education.

§ 18-6-302. Aggravated incest

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits aggravated incest when he or she knowingly:

(a) Marries his or her natural child or inflicts sexual penetration or sexual intrusion on or subjects to sexual contact, as defined in section 18-3-401, his or her natural child, stepchild, or child by adoption, but this paragraph (a) shall not apply when the person is legally married to the stepchild or child by adoption. For the purpose of this paragraph (a) only, “child” means a person under twenty-one years of age.

(b) Marries, inflicts sexual penetration or sexual intrusion on, or subjects to sexual contact, as defined in section 18-3-401, a descendant, a brother or sister of the whole or half blood, or an uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece of the whole blood who is under ten years of age.

(2) Aggravated incest is a class 3 felony.

(3) When a person is convicted, pleads nolo contendere, or receives a deferred sentence for a violation of the provisions of this section and the court knows the person is a current or former employee of a school district in this state or holds a license or authorization pursuant to the provisions of article 60.5 of title 22, C.R.S., the court shall report such fact to the department of education.

Part 4. Wrongs to Children

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-6-403. Sexual exploitation of a child--legislative declaration--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly hereby finds and declares: That the sexual exploitation of children constitutes a wrongful invasion of the child’s right of privacy and results in social, developmental, and emotional injury to the child; that a child below the age of eighteen years is incapable of giving informed consent to the use of his or her body for a sexual purpose; and that to protect children from sexual exploitation it is necessary to prohibit the production of material which involves or is derived from such exploitation and to exclude all such material from the channels of trade and commerce.

(1.5) The general assembly further finds and declares that the mere possession or control of any sexually exploitative material results in continuing victimization of our children by the fact that such material is a permanent record of an act or acts of sexual abuse of a child; that each time such material is shown or viewed, the child is harmed; that such material is used to break down the will and resistance of other children to encourage them to participate in similar acts of sexual abuse; that laws banning the production and distribution of such material are insufficient to halt this abuse; that in order to stop the sexual exploitation and abuse of our children, it is necessary for the state to ban the possession of any sexually exploitative materials; and that the state has a compelling interest in outlawing the possession of any sexually exploitative materials in order to protect society as a whole, and particularly the privacy, health, and emotional welfare of its children.

(2) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Child” means a person who is less than eighteen years of age.

(b) Deleted by Laws 2003, Ch. 291, § 1, eff. July 1, 2003.

(b.5) “Defense counsel personnel” means any defense attorney lawfully representing a defendant in a criminal case or a juvenile in a delinquency case that involves sexually exploitative material or another individual employed or retained by the defense attorney who performs or assists in the duties relating to the defense of the accused that may involve sexually exploitative materials.

(c) “Erotic fondling” means touching a person’s clothed or unclothed genitals or pubic area, developing or undeveloped genitals or pubic area (if the person is a child), buttocks, breasts, or developing or undeveloped breast area (if the person is a child), for the purpose of real or simulated overt sexual gratification or stimulation of one or more of the persons involved. “Erotic fondling” shall not be construed to include physical contact, even if affectionate, which is not for the purpose of real or simulated overt sexual gratification or stimulation of one or more of the persons involved.

(d) “Erotic nudity” means the display of the human male or female genitals or pubic area, the undeveloped or developing genitals or pubic area of the human male or female child, the human breasts, or the undeveloped or developing breast area of the human child, for the purpose of real or simulated overt sexual gratification or stimulation of one or more of the persons involved.

(e) “Explicit sexual conduct” means sexual intercourse, erotic fondling, erotic nudity, masturbation, sadomasochism, or sexual excitement.

(e.5) “Law enforcement personnel” means any peace officer, prosecutor, criminal investigator, crime analyst, or other individual who is employed by a law enforcement agency or district attorney’s office and who performs or assists in investigative duties that may involve sexually exploitative materials.

(f) “Masturbation” means the real or simulated touching, rubbing, or otherwise stimulating of a person’s own clothed or unclothed genitals or pubic area, developing or undeveloped genitals or pubic area (if the person is a child), buttocks, breasts, or developing or undeveloped breast area (if the person is a child), by manual manipulation or self-induced or with an artificial instrument, for the purpose of real or simulated overt sexual gratification or arousal of the person.

(g) “Sadomasochism” means:

(I) Real or simulated flagellation or torture for the purpose of real or simulated sexual stimulation or gratification; or

(II) The real or simulated condition of being fettered, bound, or otherwise physically restrained for sexual stimulation or gratification of a person.

(h) “Sexual excitement” means the real or simulated condition of human male or female genitals when in a state of real or simulated overt sexual stimulation or arousal.

(i) “Sexual intercourse” means real or simulated intercourse, whether genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, between persons of the same or opposite sex, or between a human and an animal, or with an artificial genital.

(j) “Sexually exploitative material” means any photograph, motion picture, video, recording or broadcast of moving visual images, print, negative, slide, or other mechanically, electronically, chemically, or digitally reproduced visual material that depicts a child engaged in, participating in, observing, or being used for explicit sexual conduct.

(k) “Video”, “recording or broadcast”, or “motion picture” means any material that depicts a moving image of a child engaged in, participating in, observing, or being used for explicit sexual conduct.

(3) A person commits sexual exploitation of a child if, for any purpose, he or she knowingly:

(a) Causes, induces, entices, or permits a child to engage in, or be used for, any explicit sexual conduct for the making of any sexually exploitative material; or

(b) Prepares, arranges for, publishes, including but not limited to publishing through digital or electronic means, produces, promotes, makes, sells, finances, offers, exhibits, advertises, deals in, or distributes, including but not limited to distributing through digital or electronic means, any sexually exploitative material; or

(b.5) Possesses or controls any sexually exploitative material for any purpose; except that this subsection (3)(b.5) does not apply to law enforcement personnel, defense counsel personnel, or court personnel in the performance of their official duties, nor does it apply to physicians, psychologists, therapists, or social workers, so long as such persons are licensed in the state of Colorado and the persons possess such materials in the course of a bona fide treatment or evaluation program at the treatment or evaluation site; or

(c) Possesses with the intent to deal in, sell, or distribute, including but not limited to distributing through digital or electronic means, any sexually exploitative material; or

(d) Causes, induces, entices, or permits a child to engage in, or be used for, any explicit sexual conduct for the purpose of producing a performance.

(3.5) A juvenile’s conduct that is limited to the elements of the petty offense of possession of a private image by a juvenile, as described in section 18-7-109(2), or limited to the elements of the civil infraction of exchange of a private image by a juvenile, as described in section 18-7-109(3), is not subject to prosecution pursuant to subsection (3)(b) or (3)(b.5) of this section.

(4) Deleted by Laws 2003, Ch. 274, § 1, eff. July 1, 2003.

(5)(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection (5), sexual exploitation of a child is a class 3 felony.

(b) Sexual exploitation of a child by possession of sexually exploitative material pursuant to paragraph (b.5) of subsection (3) of this section is a class 5 felony; except that said offense is a class 4 felony if:

(I) It is a second or subsequent offense; or

(II) The possession is of a video, recording or broadcast of moving visual images, or motion picture or more than twenty different items qualifying as sexually exploitative material.

(6) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are declared to be severable.

(7) A juvenile charged with a violation of section 18-7-109(1) is not subject to prosecution for violation of this section for the same electronic or digital photograph, video, or image arising out of the same criminal episode.

(8) Nothing in this section changes the discovery procedure for sexually exploitative material as described in section 16-9-601.

§ 18-6-404. Procurement of a child for sexual exploitation

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Any person who intentionally gives, transports, provides, or makes available, or who offers to give, transport, provide, or make available, to another person a child for the purpose of sexual exploitation of a child commits procurement of a child for sexual exploitation, which is a class 3 felony.

Part 8. Domestic Violence.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-6-800.3. Definitions.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this part 8, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Domestic violence” means an act or threatened act of violence upon a person with whom the actor is or has been involved in an intimate relationship. “Domestic violence” also includes any other crime against a person, or against property, including an animal, or any municipal ordinance violation against a person, or against property, including an animal, when used as a method of coercion, control, punishment, intimidation, or revenge directed against a person with whom the actor is or has been involved in an intimate relationship.

(2) “Intimate relationship” means a relationship between spouses, former spouses, past or present unmarried couples, or persons who are both the parents of the same child regardless of whether the persons have been married or have lived together at any time.

§ 18-6-801. Domestic violence - sentencing

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) In addition to any sentence that is imposed upon a person for violation of any criminal law under this title 18, any person who is convicted of any crime, the underlying factual basis of which has been found by the court on the record to include an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), or any crime against property, whether or not such crime is a felony, when such crime is used as a method of coercion, control, punishment, intimidation, or revenge directed against a person with whom the actor is or has been involved in an intimate relationship shall be ordered to complete a treatment program and a treatment evaluation that conform with the standards adopted by the domestic violence offender management board as required by section 16-11.8-103(4); except a person granted probation whose supervision is transferred to another state pursuant to the interstate compact for the supervision of adult offenders shall follow the requirements for a treatment evaluation and a treatment program of the state where the person is being supervised. Except for a person granted probation whose supervision is transferred pursuant to the interstate compact for the supervision of adult offenders, if an intake evaluation conducted by an approved treatment program provider discloses that sentencing to a treatment program would be inappropriate, the person shall be referred back to the court for alternative disposition.

(b) The court may order a treatment evaluation to be conducted prior to sentencing if a treatment evaluation would assist the court in determining an appropriate sentence. The person ordered to undergo such evaluation shall be required to pay the cost of the treatment evaluation. If such treatment evaluation recommends treatment, and if the court so finds, the person shall be ordered to complete a treatment program that conforms with the standards adopted by the domestic violence offender management board as required by section 16-11.8-103(4); except a person granted probation whose supervision is transferred to another state pursuant to the interstate compact for the supervision of adult offenders shall follow the requirements for a treatment evaluation and a treatment program of the state where the person is being supervised.

(c) Nothing in this subsection (1) shall preclude the court from ordering domestic violence treatment in any appropriate case.

(2) Subsection (1) of this section shall not apply to persons sentenced to the department of corrections.

(3) A person charged with the commission of a crime, the underlying factual basis of which includes an act of domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), shall not be entitled to plead guilty or plead nolo contendere to an offense which does not include the domestic violence designation required in section 16-21-103, C.R.S., unless the prosecuting attorney makes a good faith representation on the record that such attorney would not be able to establish a prima facie case that the person and the alleged victim were currently or formerly involved in an intimate relationship if the defendant were brought to trial on the original domestic violence offense and upon such a finding by the court. The prosecuting attorney’s record and the court’s findings shall specify the relationship in the alleged domestic violence case which the prosecuting attorney is not able to prove beyond a reasonable doubt and the reasons therefor. No court shall accept a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to an offense which does not include the domestic violence designation required in section 16-21-103, C.R.S., when the facts of the case indicate that the underlying factual basis includes an act of domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1) unless there is a good faith representation by the prosecuting attorney that he or she would be unable to establish a prima facie case if the defendant were brought to trial on the original offense.

(4) No person accused or convicted of a crime, the underlying factual basis of which has been found by the court on the record to include an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), shall be eligible for home detention in the home of the victim pursuant to section 18-1.3-105 or 18-1.3-106. Nothing in this subsection (4) is intended to prohibit a court from ordering a deferred sentence for a person accused or convicted of a crime, the underlying factual basis of which has been found by the court on the record to include an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1).

(5) Before granting probation, the court shall consider the safety of the victim and the victim’s children if probation is granted.

(6) Nothing in this section shall preclude the ability of a municipality to enact concurrent ordinances.

(7)(a) Any misdemeanor offense that includes an act of domestic violence is a class 5 felony if the defendant at the time of sentencing has been previously convicted of three or more prior offenses that included an act of domestic violence and that were separately brought and tried and arising out of separate criminal episodes.

(b) The prior convictions must be set forth in apt words in the indictment or information. For the purposes of this section, “conviction” includes any federal, state, or municipal conviction for a felony, misdemeanor, or municipal ordinance violation.

(c) Trials in cases alleging that the defendant is an habitual domestic violence offender pursuant to this subsection (7) must be conducted in accordance with the rules of criminal procedure for felonies. The trier of fact shall determine whether an offense charged includes an act of domestic violence.

(d) Following a conviction for an offense which underlying factual basis includes an act of domestic violence:

(I) If any prior conviction included a determination by a jury or was admitted by the defendant that the offense included an act of domestic violence, the court shall proceed to sentencing without further findings as to that prior conviction by the jury or by the court, if no jury trial is had;

(II) For any prior conviction in which the factual basis was found by the court to include an act of domestic violence, but did not include a finding of domestic violence by a jury or that was not admitted by the defendant, the trial court shall proceed to a sentencing stage of the proceedings. The prosecution shall present evidence to the trier of fact that the prior conviction included an act of domestic violence. The prosecution has the burden of proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

(III) At the sentencing stage, the following applies:

(A) A finding of domestic violence made by a court at the time of the prior conviction constitutes prima facie evidence that the crime involved domestic violence;

(B) Evidence of the prior conviction is admissible through the use of certified documents under seal, or the court may take judicial notice of a prior conviction;

(C) Evidence admitted in the guilt stage of the trial, including testimony of the defendant and other acts admitted pursuant to section 18-6-801.5, may be considered by the finder of fact.

(8)(a) Sentencing requirements. In addition to any sentence that is imposed upon a defendant for violation of any criminal law under this title 18, if a defendant is convicted of any crime, the underlying factual basis of which is found by the court on the record to be a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence, as defined in 18 U.S.C. sec. 921(a)(33), or that is punishable by a term of imprisonment exceeding one year and includes an act of domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3(1), the court:

(I) Shall order the defendant to:

(A) Refrain from possessing or purchasing any firearm or ammunition until the defendant’s sentence is satisfied; and

(B) Relinquish any firearm or ammunition in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control; and

(II) May require that before the defendant is released from custody on bond, the defendant relinquish any firearm or ammunition in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control; and

(III) Shall schedule a compliance hearing pursuant to subsection (8)(e) of this section and notify the defendant of the hearing date and that the defendant shall appear at the hearing in person unless the hearing is vacated pursuant to subsection (8)(e)(I) of this section.

(b) Time period to relinquish. The defendant shall relinquish, in accordance with subsection (8)(d) of this section, any firearm or ammunition not more than twenty-four hours, excluding legal holidays and weekends, after sentencing; except that a court may allow a defendant up to an additional twenty-four hours to relinquish a firearm if the defendant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the court that the defendant is unable to comply within the time frame set forth in this subsection (8)(b).

(c) Additional time to comply if defendant is in custody. If a defendant is unable to satisfy the provisions of this subsection (8) because the defendant is incarcerated or otherwise held in the custody of a law enforcement agency, the court shall require the defendant to satisfy the provisions not more than twenty-four hours, excluding legal holidays and weekends, after the defendant’s release from incarceration or custody or be held in contempt of court. Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (8)(c), the court may, in its discretion, require the defendant to relinquish any firearm or ammunition in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control before the end of the defendant’s incarceration. In such a case, a defendant’s failure to relinquish a firearm or ammunition as required constitutes contempt of court.

(d) Relinquishment options. To satisfy the requirement in subsection (8)(b) of this section, the defendant shall either:

(I) Sell or transfer possession of the firearm or ammunition to a federally licensed firearms dealer described in 18 U.S.C. sec. 923, as amended; except that this provision must not be interpreted to require any federally licensed firearms dealer to purchase or accept possession of any firearm or ammunition; or

(II) Arrange for the storage of the firearm or ammunition by a law enforcement agency or by a storage facility with which the law enforcement agency has contracted for the storage of transferred firearms or ammunition, pursuant to subsection (8)(g) of this section; except that this provision must not be interpreted to require any law enforcement agency to provide storage of firearms or ammunition for any person; or

(III) Sell or otherwise transfer the firearm or ammunition to a private party who may legally possess the firearm or ammunition; except that a defendant who sells or transfers a firearm pursuant to this subsection (8)(d)(III) shall satisfy all of the provisions of section 18-12-112 concerning private firearms transfers, including but not limited to the performance of a criminal background check of the transferee.

(e) Compliance hearing and affidavit. (I) The court shall conduct a compliance hearing not less than eight but not more than twelve business days after sentencing to ensure the defendant has complied with subsection (8)(e)(II) of this section. The court may vacate the hearing if the court determines the defendant has completed the affidavit described in subsection (8)(e)(II) of this section. Failure to appear at a hearing described in this subsection (8)(e)(I) constitutes contempt of court.

(II) The defendant shall complete an affidavit, which must be filed in the court record within seven business days after sentencing, stating the number of firearms in the defendant’s immediate possession or control or subject to the defendant’s immediate possession or control, the make and model of each firearm, any reason the defendant is still in immediate possession or control of such firearm, and the location of each firearm. If the defendant does not possess a firearm at the time of sentencing, the defendant shall indicate such nonpossession in the affidavit.

(III) If the defendant possessed a firearm at the time of the qualifying incident giving rise to the duty to relinquish the firearm pursuant to this section but transferred or sold the firearm to a private party prior to sentencing, the defendant shall disclose the sale or transfer of the firearm to the private party in the affidavit described in subsection (8)(e)(II) of this section. The defendant, within seven business days after sentencing, shall acquire a written receipt and signed declaration that complies with subsection (8)(h)(I)(A) of this section, and the defendant shall file the signed declaration at the same time the defendant files the affidavit pursuant to subsection (8)(e)(II) of this section.

(IV) The state court administrator shall develop the affidavit described in subsection (8)(e)(II) of this section and all other forms necessary to implement this subsection (8) no later than January 1, 2022. State courts may use the forms developed by the state court administrator pursuant to this subsection (8)(e) or another form of the court’s choosing, so long as the forms comply with the requirements of this subsection (8)(e).

(V) Upon the sworn statement or testimony of the petitioner or of any law enforcement officer alleging there is probable cause to believe the respondent has failed to comply with the provisions of this section, the court shall determine whether probable cause exists to believe that the respondent has failed to relinquish all firearms or a concealed carry permit in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession. If probable cause exists, the court shall issue a search warrant that states with particularity the places to be searched and the items to be taken into custody.

(f) Relinquishment to a federally licensed firearms dealer. A federally licensed firearms dealer who takes possession of a firearm or ammunition pursuant to this subsection (8) shall issue a written receipt and signed declaration to the defendant at the time of relinquishment. The declaration must memorialize the sale or transfer of the firearm. The federally licensed firearms dealer shall not return the firearm or ammunition to the defendant unless the dealer:

(I) Contacts the Colorado bureau of investigation, referred to in this subsection (8) as the “bureau”, to request that a criminal background check of the defendant be performed; and

(II) Obtains approval of the transfer from the bureau after the performance of the criminal background check.

(g) Storage by a law enforcement agency or storage facility. (I) A local law enforcement agency may elect to store firearms or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (8). The law enforcement agency may enter into an agreement with any other law enforcement agency or storage facility for the storage of transferred firearms or ammunition. If a law enforcement agency elects to store firearms or ammunition for a defendant:

(A) The law enforcement agency may charge a fee for the storage, the amount of which must not exceed the direct and indirect costs incurred by the law enforcement agency in providing the storage;

(B) The law enforcement agency shall establish policies for disposal of abandoned or stolen firearms or ammunition; and

(C) The law enforcement agency shall issue a written receipt and signed declaration to the defendant at the time of relinquishment. The declaration must memorialize the sale or transfer of the firearm.

(II) If a local law enforcement agency elects to store firearms or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (8)(g), the law enforcement agency shall not return the firearm or ammunition to the defendant unless the law enforcement agency:

(A) Contacts the bureau to request that a criminal background check of the defendant be performed; and

(B) Obtains approval of the transfer from the bureau after the performance of the criminal background check.

(III)(A) A law enforcement agency that elects to store a firearm or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (8) may elect to cease storing the firearm or ammunition. A law enforcement agency that elects to cease storing a firearm or ammunition for a defendant shall notify the defendant of the decision and request that the defendant immediately make arrangements for the transfer of the possession of the firearm or ammunition to the defendant or, if the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm, to another person who is legally permitted to possess a firearm.

(B) If a law enforcement agency elects to cease storing a firearm or ammunition for a defendant and notifies the defendant as described in subsection (8)(g)(III)(A) of this section, the law enforcement agency may dispose of the firearm or ammunition if the defendant fails to make arrangements for the transfer of the firearm or ammunition and complete the transfer within ninety days after receiving the notification.

(IV) A law enforcement agency that elects to store a firearm or ammunition shall obtain a search warrant to examine or test the firearm or ammunition or facilitate a criminal investigation if a law enforcement agency has probable cause to believe the firearm or ammunition has been used in the commission of a crime, is stolen, or is contraband. This subsection (8)(g)(IV) does not preclude a law enforcement agency from conducting a routine inspection of the firearm or ammunition prior to accepting the firearm for storage.

(h) Relinquishment to a private party. (I) If a defendant sells or otherwise transfers a firearm or ammunition to a private party who may legally possess the firearm or ammunition, as described in subsection (8)(d)(III) of this section, the defendant shall acquire:

(A) From the federally licensed firearms dealer, a written receipt and signed declaration memorializing the transfer, which receipt must be dated and signed by the defendant, the transferee, and the federally licensed firearms dealer; and

(B) From the federally licensed firearms dealer who requests from the bureau a criminal background check of the transferee, as described in section 18-12-112, a written statement of the results of the criminal background check.

(II) The defendant shall not transfer the firearm to a private party living in the same residence as the defendant at the time of the transfer.

(III) Notwithstanding section 18-12-112, if a private party elects to store a firearm for a defendant pursuant to this subsection (8), the private party shall not return the firearm to the defendant unless the private party acquires from the federally licensed firearms dealer, who requests from the bureau a criminal background check of the defendant, a written statement of the results of the criminal background check authorizing the return of the firearm to the defendant.

(i) Requirement to file signed declaration. (I) The defendant shall file a copy of the signed declaration issued pursuant to subsection (8)(f), (8)(g)(I)(C), or (8)(h)(I)(A) of this section, and, if applicable, the written statement of the results of a criminal background check performed on the defendant, as described in subsection (8)(h)(I)(B) of this section, with the court as proof of the relinquishment at the same time the defendant files the signed affidavit pursuant to subsection (8)(e)(II) of this section. The signed declaration and written statement filed pursuant to this subsection (8)(i) are only available for inspection by the court and the parties to the proceeding. If a defendant fails to timely transfer or sell a firearm or file the signed declaration or written statement as described in this subsection (8)(i)(I):

(A) The failure constitutes a class 2 misdemeanor, and the defendant is punished as provided in section 18-1.3-501; and

(B) The court shall issue a warrant for the defendant’s arrest.

(II) In any subsequent prosecution for a violation of this subsection (8)(i), the court shall take judicial notice of the defendant’s failure to transfer or sell a firearm, or file the signed declaration or written statement, which constitutes prima facie evidence that the defendant has violated this subsection (8), and testimony of the clerk of the court or the clerk of the court’s deputy is not required.

(j)(I) A law enforcement agency that elects in good faith to not store a firearm or ammunition for a defendant pursuant to subsection (8)(g) of this section is not criminally or civilly liable for such inaction.

(II) A law enforcement agency that returns possession of a firearm or ammunition to a defendant in good faith as permitted by subsection (8)(g) of this section is not criminally or civilly liable for such action.

(k) Immunity. A federally licensed firearms dealer, law enforcement agency, storage facility, or private party that elects to store a firearm pursuant to this subsection (8) is not civilly liable for any resulting damages to the firearm, as long as such damage did not result from the willful and wrongful act or gross negligence of the federally licensed firearms dealer, law enforcement agency, storage facility, or third party.

§ 18-6-801.5. Domestic violence - evidence of similar transactions.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly hereby finds that domestic violence is frequently cyclical in nature, involves patterns of abuse, and can consist of harm with escalating levels of seriousness. The general assembly therefore declares that evidence of similar transactions can be helpful and is necessary in some situations in prosecuting crimes involving domestic violence.

(2) In criminal prosecutions involving domestic violence in which the defendant and the victim named in the information have engaged in an intimate relationship as of the time alleged in the information, evidence of any other acts of domestic violence between the defendant and the victim named in the information, and between the defendant and other persons, constitute other acts or transactions for the purposes of this section, and the court may authorize the admission of evidence as provided in subsection (3) of this section.

(3) The proponent of evidence of other acts or transactions under this section shall advise the trial court by offer of proof of such evidence and shall specify whether the evidence is offered to show a common plan, scheme, design, identity, modus operandi, motive, or guilty knowledge or for some other purpose.

(4) Upon the offer of proof under subsection (3) of this section, the trial court shall determine whether the probative value of the evidence of similar acts or transactions is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice to the defendant, confusion of the issues, or misleading of the jury if the evidence is allowed or by considerations of undue delay, waste of time, or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.

(5) Upon admitting evidence of other acts or transactions into evidence pursuant to this section and again in the general charge to the jury, the trial court shall direct the jury as to the limited purpose for which the evidence is admitted and for which the jury may consider it.

§ 18-6-801.6. Domestic violence - summons and complaint.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Any person completing or preparing a summons, complaint, summons and complaint, indictment, information, or application for an arrest warrant shall indicate on the face of such document whether the facts forming the basis of the alleged criminal act, if proven, could constitute domestic violence as defined in section 18-6-800.3 (1).

§ 18-6-802.5. Domestic violence - local board - treatment programs - liability immunity.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Any defendant who is sentenced to a treatment program pursuant to section 18-6-801 or who is ordered to complete an evaluation pursuant to section 18-6-801 (1) shall pay for the evaluation and treatment programs on a sliding fee basis, as provided in the standardized procedures for the treatment evaluation of domestic violence offenders and the guidelines and standards for a system of programs for the treatment of domestic violence offenders adopted by the domestic violence offender management board pursuant to section 16-11.8-103, C.R.S.


§ 18-6-803.5. Crime of violation of a protection order - penalty - peace officers' duties - definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of violation of a protection order if, after the person has been personally served with a protection order that identifies the person as a restrained person or otherwise has acquired from the court or law enforcement personnel actual knowledge of the contents of a protection order that identifies the person as a restrained person, the person:

(a) Contacts, harasses, injures, intimidates, molests, threatens, or touches the protected person or protected property, including an animal, identified in the protection order or enters or remains on premises or comes within a specified distance of the protected person, protected property, including an animal, or premises or violates any other provision of the protection order to protect the protected person from imminent danger to life or health, and such conduct is prohibited by the protection order;

(b) Except as permitted pursuant to section 18-13-126(1)(b), hires, employs, or otherwise contracts with another person to locate or assist in the location of the protected person; or

(c) Violates a civil protection order issued pursuant to section 13-14-105.5 or a mandatory protection order issued pursuant to section 18-1-1001(9) by:

(I) Possessing or attempting to purchase or receive a firearm or ammunition while the protection order is in effect; or

(II) Failing to timely file a signed affidavit or written statement with the court as described in section 13-14-105.5(9), 18-1-1001(9)(i), or 18-6-801(8)(i).

(1.5) As used in this section:

(a) “Protected person” means the person or persons identified in the protection order as the person or persons for whose benefit the protection order was issued. “Protected person” does not include the defendant.

(a.5)(I) “Protection order” means any order that prohibits the restrained person from contacting, harassing, injuring, intimidating, molesting, threatening, or touching any protected person or protected animal, or from entering or remaining on premises, or from coming within a specified distance of a protected person or protected animal or premises or any other provision to protect the protected person or protected animal from imminent danger to life or health, that is issued by a court of this state or a municipal court, and that is issued pursuant to:

(A) Article 14 of title 13, section 18-1-1001, section 19-2.5-607, section 19-4-111, or rule 365 of the Colorado rules of county court civil procedure;

(B) Sections 14-4-101 to 14-4-105, C.R.S., section 14-10-107, C.R.S., section 14-10-108, C.R.S., or section 19-3-316, C.R.S., as those sections existed prior to July 1, 2004;

(C) An order issued as part of the proceedings concerning a criminal municipal ordinance violation; or

(D) Any other order of a court that prohibits a person from contacting, harassing, injuring, intimidating, molesting, threatening, or touching any person, or from entering or remaining on premises, or from coming within a specified distance of a protected person or premises.

(II) For purposes of this section only, “protection order” includes any order that amends, modifies, supplements, or supersedes the initial protection order. “Protection order” also includes any restraining order entered prior to July 1, 2003, and any foreign protection order as defined in section 13-14-110, C.R.S.

(b) “Registry” means the computerized information system created in section 18-6-803.7 or the national crime information center created pursuant to 28 U.S.C. sec. 534.

(c) “Restrained person” means the person identified in the order as the person prohibited from doing the specified act or acts.

(d) Deleted by Laws 2003, Ch. 139, § 6, eff. July 1, 2003.

(2)(a) Violation of a protection order is a class 2 misdemeanor; except that, if the restrained person has previously been convicted of violating this section or a former version of this section or an analogous municipal ordinance, or if the protection order is issued pursuant to section 18-1-1001, or the basis for issuing the protection order included an allegation of stalking or the parties were in an intimate relationship, the violation is a class 1 misdemeanor.

(a.5) Repealed by Laws 2022, Ch. 68 (H.B. 22-1229), § 26, eff. March 1, 2022.

(b) Deleted by Laws 1995, H.B.95-1179, § 3, eff. July 1, 1995.

(c) Nothing in this section shall preclude the ability of a municipality to enact concurrent ordinances. Any sentence imposed for a violation of this section shall run consecutively and not concurrently with any sentence imposed for any crime which gave rise to the issuing of the protection order.

(3)(a) Whenever a protection order is issued, the protected person shall be provided with a copy of such order. A peace officer shall use every reasonable means to enforce a protection order.

(b) A peace officer shall arrest, or, if an arrest would be impractical under the circumstances, seek a warrant for the arrest of a restrained person when the peace officer has information amounting to probable cause that:

(I) The restrained person has violated or attempted to violate any provision of a protection order; and

(II) The restrained person has been properly served with a copy of the protection order or the restrained person has received actual notice of the existence and substance of such order.

(c) In making the probable cause determination described in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3), a peace officer shall assume that the information received from the registry is accurate. A peace officer shall enforce a valid protection order whether or not there is a record of the protection order in the registry.

(d) The arrest and detention of a restrained person is governed by applicable constitutional and applicable state rules of criminal procedure. The arrested person shall be removed from the scene of the arrest and shall be taken to the peace officer’s station for booking, whereupon the arrested person may be held or released in accordance with the adopted bonding schedules for the jurisdiction in which the arrest is made, or the arrested person may be taken to the jail in the county where the protection order was issued. The law enforcement agency or any other locally designated agency shall make all reasonable efforts to contact the protected party upon the arrest of the restrained person. The prosecuting attorney shall present any available arrest affidavits and the criminal history of the restrained person to the court at the time of the first appearance of the restrained person before the court.

(e) The arresting agency arresting the restrained person shall forward to the issuing court a copy of such agency’s report, a list of witnesses to the violation, and, if applicable, a list of any charges filed or requested against the restrained person. The agency shall give a copy of the agency’s report, witness list, and charging list to the protected party. The agency shall delete the address and telephone number of a witness from the list sent to the court upon request of such witness, and such address and telephone number shall not thereafter be made available to any person, except law enforcement officials and the prosecuting agency, without order of the court.

(4) If a restrained person is on bond in connection with a violation or attempted violation of a protection order in this or any other state and is subsequently arrested for violating or attempting to violate a protection order, the arresting agency shall notify the prosecuting attorney who shall file a motion with the court which issued the prior bond for the revocation of the bond and for the issuance of a warrant for the arrest of the restrained person if such court is satisfied that probable cause exists to believe that a violation of the protection order issued by the court has occurred.

(5) A peace officer arresting a person for violating a protection order or otherwise enforcing a protection order shall not be held criminally or civilly liable for such arrest or enforcement unless the peace officer acts in bad faith and with malice or does not act in compliance with rules adopted by the Colorado supreme court.

(6)(a) A peace officer is authorized to use every reasonable means to protect the alleged victim or the alleged victim’s children to prevent further violence. Such peace officer may transport, or obtain transportation for, the alleged victim to shelter. Upon the request of the protected person, the peace officer may also transport the minor child of the protected person, who is not an emancipated minor, to the same shelter if such shelter is willing to accept the child, whether or not there is a custody order or an order allocating parental responsibilities with respect to such child or an order for the care and control of the child and whether or not the other parent objects. A peace officer who transports a minor child over the objection of the other parent shall not be held liable for any damages that may result from interference with the custody, parental responsibilities, care, and control of or access to a minor child in complying with this subsection (6).

(b) For purposes of this subsection (6), “shelter” means a battered women’s shelter, a friend’s or family member’s home, or such other safe haven as may be designated by the protected person and which is within a reasonable distance from the location at which the peace officer found the victim.

(7) The protection order shall contain in capital letters and bold print a notice informing the protected person that such protected person may either initiate contempt proceedings against the restrained person if the order is issued in a civil action or request the prosecuting attorney to initiate contempt proceedings if the order is issued in a criminal action.

(8) A protection order issued in the state of Colorado shall contain a statement that:

(a) The order or injunction shall be accorded full faith and credit and be enforced in every civil or criminal court of the United States, another state, an Indian tribe, or a United States territory pursuant to 18 U.S.C. sec. 2265;

(b) The issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and subject matter; and

(c) The defendant was given reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard.

(9) A criminal action charged pursuant to this section may be tried either in the county where the offense is committed or in the county in which the court that issued the protection order is located, if such court is within this state.

§ 18-6-803.6. Duties of peace officers and prosecuting agencies - preservation of evidence.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) When a peace officer determines that there is probable cause to believe that a crime or offense involving domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3 (1), has been committed, the officer shall, without undue delay, arrest the person suspected of its commission pursuant to the provisions in subsection (2) of this section, if applicable, and charge the person with the appropriate crime or offense. Nothing in this subsection (1) shall be construed to require a peace officer to arrest both parties involved in an alleged act of domestic violence when both claim to have been victims of such domestic violence. Additionally, nothing in this subsection (1) shall be construed to require a peace officer to arrest either party involved in an alleged act of domestic violence when a peace officer determines there is no probable cause to believe that a crime or offense of domestic violence has been committed. The arrested person shall be removed from the scene of the arrest and shall be taken to the peace officer’s station for booking, whereupon the arrested person may be held or released in accordance with the adopted bonding schedules for the jurisdiction in which the arrest is made.

(2) If a peace officer receives complaints of domestic violence from two or more opposing persons, the officer shall evaluate each complaint separately to determine if a crime has been committed by one or more persons. In determining whether a crime has been committed by one or more persons, the officer shall consider the following:

(a) Any prior complaints of domestic violence;

(b) The relative severity of the injuries inflicted on each person;

(c) The likelihood of future injury to each person; and

(d) The possibility that one of the persons acted in self-defense.

(3) (a) A peace officer is authorized to use every reasonable means to protect the alleged victim or the alleged victim’s children to prevent further violence. Such peace officer may transport, or obtain transportation for, the alleged victim to shelter. Upon the request of the protected person, the peace officer may also transport the minor child of the protected person, who is not an emancipated minor, to the same shelter if such shelter is willing to accept the child, whether or not there is a custody order or an order for the care and control of the child or an order allocating parental responsibilities with respect to the child and whether or not the other parent objects. A peace officer who transports a minor child over the objection of the other parent shall not be held liable for any damages that may result from interference with the custody, parental responsibilities, care, and control of or access to a minor child in complying with this subsection (3).

(b) For purposes of this subsection (3), “shelter” means a battered women’s shelter, a friend’s or family member’s home, or such other safe haven as may be designated by the protected person and which is within a reasonable distance from the location at which the peace officer found the victim.

(4) (a) The arresting agency shall make reasonable efforts to collect and preserve any pertinent evidence until the time of final disposition of the matter, including, but not limited to, the following:

(I) Any dispatch tape recording relating to the event;

(II) Any on-scene video or audio tape recordings;

(III) Any medical records of treatment of the alleged victim or the defendant; and

(IV) Any other relevant physical evidence or witness statements.

(b) However, in the absence of bad faith, any failure to collect or preserve any evidence listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection (4) shall not be grounds to dismiss the matter.

(4.5) When a peace officer responds to a call or is otherwise responding to a report about an alleged offense involving domestic violence, as defined in section 18-6-800.3 (1), or other domestic dispute, the officer shall include in his or her written or oral report concerning such incident whether children may have seen or heard the alleged offense; except that, in the absence of bad faith, the failure of a peace officer to note that a child may have seen or heard the alleged offense shall not be grounds to dismiss the matter.

(5) A peace officer shall not be held civilly or criminally liable for acting pursuant to this section if the peace officer acts in good faith and without malice.

§ 18-6-803.7. Central registry of protection orders - creation.

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) As used in this section:

(a) “Bureau” means the Colorado bureau of investigation.

(b) “Protected person” means the person or persons identified in the protection order as the person or persons for whose benefit the protection order was issued.

(b.5)(I) “Protection order” means any order that prohibits the restrained person from contacting, harassing, injuring, intimidating, molesting, threatening, or touching any protected person, or from entering or remaining on premises, or from coming within a specified distance of a protected person or premises, that is issued by a court of this state or an authorized municipal court, and that is issued pursuant to:

(A) Article 14 of title 13, section 18-1-1001, section 19-2.5-607, section 19-4-111, or rule 365 of the Colorado rules of county court civil procedure;

(B) Sections 14-4-101 to 14-4-105, C.R.S., section 14-10-107, C.R.S., section 14-10-108, C.R.S., or section 19-3-316, C.R.S., as those sections existed prior to July 1, 2004; or

(C) An order issued as part of the proceedings concerning a criminal municipal ordinance violation.

(II) “Protection order” also includes any restraining order entered prior to July 1, 2003, and any foreign protection order as described in section 13-14-110, C.R.S.

(c) “Registry” means a computerized information system.

(d) “Restrained person” means the person identified in the order as the person prohibited from doing the specified act or acts.

(e) Deleted by Laws 2003, Ch. 139, § 7, eff. July 1, 2003.

(f) “Subsequent order” means an order which amends, modifies, supplements, or supersedes a protection order.

(2)(a) There is hereby created in the bureau a computerized central registry of protection orders which shall be accessible to any state law enforcement agency or to any local law enforcement agency having a terminal which communicates with the bureau. The central registry computers shall communicate with computers operated by the state judicial department.

(b) The clerk of the court issuing the protection order shall enter protection orders and subsequent orders into the registry; except that orders issued pursuant to sections 18-1-1001 and 19-2.5-607 must be entered into the registry only at the discretion of the court or upon motion of the district attorney. The clerk of the court issuing the protection order is responsible for updating the registry electronically in a timely manner to ensure the notice is as complete and accurate as is reasonably possible with regard to the information specified in subsection (3) of this section.

(c) The restrained person’s attorney, if present at the time the protection order or subsequent order is issued, shall notify the restrained person of the contents of such order if the restrained person was absent when such order was issued.

(d) Protection orders and subsequent orders shall be placed in the registry not later than twenty-four hours after they have been issued; except that, if the court issuing the protection order or subsequent order specifies that it be placed in the registry immediately, such order shall be placed in the registry immediately.

(e) Upon reaching the expiration date of a protection order or subsequent order, if any, the bureau shall note the termination in the registry.

(f) In the event the protection order or subsequent order does not have a termination date, the clerk of the issuing court shall be responsible for noting the termination of the protection order or subsequent order in the registry.

(3)(a) In addition to any information, notice, or warning required by law, a protection order or subsequent order entered into the registry shall contain the following information, if such information is available:

(I) The name, date of birth, sex, and physical description of the restrained person to the extent known;

(II) The date the order was issued and the effective date of the order if such date is different from the date the order was issued;

(III) The names of the protected persons and their dates of birth;

(IV) If the protection order is one prohibiting the restrained person from entering in, remaining upon, or coming within a specified distance of certain premises, the address of the premises and the distance limitation;

(V) The expiration date of the protection order, if any;

(VI) Whether the restrained person has been served with the protection order and, if so, the date and time of service;

(VII) The amount of bail and any conditions of bond which the court has set in the event the restrained person has violated a protection order; and

(VIII) An indication whether the conditions of the protection order are also conditions of a bail bond for a felony charge.(b) If available, the protection order or subsequent order shall contain the fingerprint-based state identification number issued by the bureau to the restrained person.

Article 7. Offenses Relating to Morals

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. Obscenity - Offenses

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-7-107. Posting a private image for harassment--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) An actor who is eighteen years of age or older commits the offense of posting a private image for harassment if he or she posts or distributes through the use of social media or any website any photograph, video, or other image displaying the private intimate parts of an identified or identifiable person eighteen years of age or older or an image displaying sexual acts of an identified or identifiable person:

(I) With the intent to harass, intimidate, or coerce the depicted person;

(II)(A) Without the depicted person’s consent; or

(B) When the actor knew or should have known that the depicted person had a reasonable expectation that the image would remain private; and

(III) The conduct results in serious emotional distress of the depicted person.

(b) Posting a private image for harassment is a class 1 misdemeanor.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 18-1.3-501(1)(a), in addition to any other sentence the court may impose, the court shall fine the defendant up to ten thousand dollars. The fines collected pursuant to this paragraph (c) shall be credited to the crime victim compensation fund created in section 24-4.1-117, C.R.S.

(2) Repealed by Laws 2018, Ch. 192, § 1, eff. July 1, 2018.

(3) Nothing in this section precludes punishment under any section of law providing for greater punishment.

(4)(a) Repealed by Laws 2019, Ch. 88, § 2, eff. Apr. 8, 2019.

(b) An individual whose private intimate parts have been posted or an individual who has had an image displaying sexual acts of the individual posted in accordance with this section shall retain a protectable right of authorship regarding the commercial use of the private image.

(5) Nothing in this section shall be construed to impose liability on the provider of an interactive computer service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 230(f)(2), an information service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 153, or a telecommunications service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 153, for content provided by another person.

(6) For purposes of this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Displaying sexual acts” means any display of sexual acts even if the private intimate parts are not visible in the image.

(b) “Image” means a photograph, film, videotape, recording, digital file, or other reproduction.

(c) “Private intimate parts” means external genitalia or the perineum or the anus or the pubes of any person or the breast of a female.

(d) “Sexual acts” means sexual intrusion or sexual penetration as defined by section 18-3-401.

(e) “Social media” means any electronic medium, including an interactive computer service, telephone network, or data network, that allows users to create, share, and view user-generated content, including but not limited to videos, still photographs, blogs, video blogs, podcasts, instant messages, electronic mail, or internet website profiles.

§ 18-7-108. Posting a private image for pecuniary gain--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) An actor who is eighteen years of age or older commits the offense of posting a private image for pecuniary gain if he or she posts or distributes through social media or any website any photograph, video, or other image displaying the private intimate parts of an identified or identifiable person eighteen years of age or older or an image displaying sexual acts of an identified or identifiable person:

(I) With the intent to obtain a pecuniary benefit from any person as a result of the posting, viewing, or removal of the private image; and

(II)(A) When the actor has not obtained the depicted person’s consent; or

(B) When the actor knew or should have known that the depicted person had a reasonable expectation that the image would remain private.

(b) Posting a private image for pecuniary gain is a class 1 misdemeanor.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 18-1.3-501(1)(a), in addition to any other sentence the court may impose, the court shall fine the defendant up to ten thousand dollars. The fines collected pursuant to this paragraph (c) shall be credited to the crime victim compensation fund created in section 24-4.1-117, C.R.S.

(2) Repealed by Laws 2018, Ch. 192, § 2, eff. July 1, 2018.

(3) Nothing in this section precludes punishment under any section of law providing for greater punishment.

(4)(a) Repealed by Laws 2019, Ch. 88, § 3, eff. Apr. 8, 2019.

(b) An individual whose private intimate parts have been posted or an individual who has had an image displaying sexual acts of the individual posted in accordance with this section shall retain a protectable right of authorship regarding the commercial use of the private image.

(5) Nothing in this section shall be construed to impose liability on the provider of an interactive computer service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 230(f)(2), an information service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 153, or a telecommunications service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 153, for content provided by another person.

(6) For purposes of this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Displaying sexual acts” means any display of sexual acts even if the private intimate parts are not visible in the image.

(b) “Image” means a photograph, film, videotape, recording, digital file, or other reproduction.

(c) “Private intimate parts” means external genitalia or the perineum or the anus or the pubes of any person or the breast of a female.

(d) “Sexual acts” means sexual intrusion or sexual penetration as defined by section 18-3-401.

(e) “Social media” means any electronic medium, including an interactive computer service, telephone network, or data network, that allows users to create, share, and view user-generated content, including but not limited to videos, still photographs, blogs, video blogs, podcasts, instant messages, electronic mail, or internet website profiles.

Part 3. Public Indecency

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-7-302. Indecent exposure

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits indecent exposure:

(a) If he or she knowingly exposes his or her genitals to the view of any person under circumstances in which such conduct is likely to cause affront or alarm to the other person with the intent to arouse or to satisfy the sexual desire of any person;

(b) If he or she knowingly performs an act of masturbation in a manner which exposes the act to the view of any person under circumstances in which such conduct is likely to cause affront or alarm to the other person.

(2)(a) Deleted by Laws 2003, Ch. 199, § 31, eff. July 1, 2003.

(b) Indecent exposure is a class 1 misdemeanor.

(3) Deleted by Laws 2002, Ch. 322, § 21, eff. July 1, 2002.

(4) Indecent exposure is a class 6 felony if the violation is committed subsequent to two prior convictions of a violation of this section or of a violation of a comparable offense in any other state or in the United States, or of a violation of a comparable municipal ordinance.

(5) For purposes of this section, “masturbation” means the real or simulated touching, rubbing, or otherwise stimulating of a person’s own genitals or pubic area for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the person, regardless of whether the genitals or pubic area is exposed or covered.

§ 18-7-301. Public indecency

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who performs any of the following in a public place or where the conduct may reasonably be expected to be viewed by members of the public commits public indecency:

(a) An act of sexual intercourse; or

(b) Deleted by Laws 2010, Ch. 359, § 1, eff. Aug. 11, 2010.

(c) A lewd exposure of an intimate part as defined by section 18-3-401(2) of the body, not including the genitals, done with intent to arouse or to satisfy the sexual desire of any person; or

(d) A lewd fondling or caress of the body of another person; or

(e) A knowing exposure of the person’s genitals to the view of a person under circumstances in which such conduct is likely to cause affront or alarm to the other person.

(2)(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection (2), public indecency is a class 1 petty offense.

(b) Public indecency as described in paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of this section is a class 1 misdemeanor if the violation is committed subsequent to a conviction for a violation of paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of this section or for a violation of a comparable offense in any other state or in the United States, or for a violation of a comparable municipal ordinance.

(3) Deleted by Laws 2010, Ch. 359, § 1, eff. Aug. 11, 2010.

Part 4. Child Prostitution

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-7-402. Soliciting for child prostitution

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits soliciting for child prostitution if he:

(a) Solicits another for the purpose of prostitution of a child or by a child;

(b) Arranges or offers to arrange a meeting of persons for the purpose of prostitution of a child or by a child; or

(c) Directs another to a place knowing such direction is for the purpose of prostitution of a child or by a child.

(2) Soliciting for child prostitution is a class 3 felony.

§ 18-7-403. Pandering of a child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who does any of the following for money or other thing of value commits pandering of a child:

(a) Inducing a child by menacing or criminal intimidation to commit prostitution; or

(b) Knowingly arranging or offering to arrange a situation in which a child may practice prostitution.

(2) Pandering under paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of this section is a class 2 felony. Pandering under paragraph (b) of subsection (1) of this section is a class 3 felony.

§ 18-7-403.5. Procurement of a child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Any person who intentionally gives, transports, provides, or makes available, or who offers to give, transport, provide, or make available, to another person a child for the purpose of prostitution of the child commits procurement of a child, which is a class 3 felony.

§ 18-7-404. Keeping a place of child prostitution

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who has or exercises control over the use of any place which offers seclusion or shelter for the practice of prostitution and who performs any one or more of the following commits keeping a place of child prostitution if he:

(a) Knowingly grants or permits the use of such place for the purpose of prostitution of a child or by a child; or

(b) Permits the continued use of such place for the purpose of prostitution of a child or by a child after becoming aware of facts or circumstances from which he should reasonably know that the place is being used for purposes of such prostitution.

(2) Keeping a place of child prostitution is a class 3 felony.

§ 18-7-405. Pimping of a child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Any person who knowingly lives on or is supported or maintained in whole or in part by money or other thing of value earned, received, procured, or realized by a child through prostitution commits pimping of a child, which is a class 3 felony.

§ 18-7-405.5. Inducement of child prostitution

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who by word or action, other than conduct specified in section 18-7-403(1)(a), induces a child to engage in an act which is prostitution by a child, as defined in section 18-7-401(6), commits inducement of child prostitution.

(2) Inducement of child prostitution is a class 3 felony.

§ 18-7-406. Patronizing a prostituted child

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who performs any of the following with a child not his spouse commits patronizing a prostituted child:

(a) Engages in an act which is prostitution of a child or by a child, as defined in section 18-7-401(6) or (7); or

(b) Enters or remains in a place of prostitution with intent to engage in an act which is prostitution of a child or by a child, as defined in section 18-7-401(6) or (7).

(2) Patronizing a prostituted child is a class 3 felony.

Part 8. Criminal invasion of privacy

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-7-801. Criminal invasion of privacy

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person who knowingly observes or takes a photograph of another person’s intimate parts, as defined in section 18-3-401(2), without that person’s consent, in a situation where the person observed or photographed has a reasonable expectation of privacy, commits criminal invasion of privacy.

(2) Criminal invasion of privacy is a class 2 misdemeanor.

(3) For the purposes of this section, “photograph” includes a photograph, motion picture, videotape, live feed, print, negative, slide, or other mechanically, electronically, digitally, or chemically reproduced visual material.

Article 9. Offenses Against Public Peace, Order, and Decency

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. Public Peace and Order

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-9-111. Harassment--Kiana Arellano's law

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits harassment if, with intent to harass, annoy, or alarm another person, he or she:

(a) Strikes, shoves, kicks, or otherwise touches a person or subjects him to physical contact; or

(b) In a public place directs obscene language or makes an obscene gesture to or at another person; or

(c) Follows a person in or about a public place; or

(d) Repealed by Laws 1990, H.B.90-1118, § 11.

(e) Directly or indirectly initiates communication with a person or directs language toward another person, anonymously or otherwise, by telephone, telephone network, data network, text message, instant message, computer, computer network, computer system, or other interactive electronic medium in a manner intended to harass or threaten bodily injury or property damage, or makes any comment, request, suggestion, or proposal by telephone, computer, computer network, computer system, or other interactive electronic medium that is obscene; or

(f) Makes a telephone call or causes a telephone to ring repeatedly, whether or not a conversation ensues, with no purpose of legitimate conversation; or

(g) Makes repeated communications at inconvenient hours that invade the privacy of another and interfere in the use and enjoyment of another’s home or private residence or other private property; or

(h) Repeatedly insults, taunts, challenges, or makes communications in offensively coarse language to, another in a manner likely to provoke a violent or disorderly response.

(1.5) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires, “obscene” means a patently offensive description of ultimate sexual acts or solicitation to commit ultimate sexual acts, whether or not said ultimate sexual acts are normal or perverted, actual or simulated, including masturbation, cunnilingus, fellatio, anilingus, or excretory functions.

(2)(a) A person who violates subsection (1)(a) or (1)(c) of this section or violates any provision of subsection (1) of this section with the intent to intimidate or harass another person, in whole or in part, because of that person’s actual or perceived race; color; religion; ancestry; national origin; physical or mental disability, as defined in section 18-9-121(5)(a); or sexual orientation, as defined in section 18-9-121(5)(b), commits a class 1 misdemeanor.

(b) A person who violates subsection (1)(e), (1)(f), (1)(g), or (1)(h) of this section commits a class 2 misdemeanor.

(c) A person who violates subsection (1)(b) of this section commits a petty offense.

(3) Any act prohibited by paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of this section may be deemed to have occurred or to have been committed at the place at which the telephone call, electronic mail, or other electronic communication was either made or received.

(4) Repealed by Laws 2010, Ch. 88, § 2, eff. Aug. 11, 2010.

(5) Repealed by Laws 2010, Ch. 88, § 2, eff. Aug. 11, 2010.

(6) Repealed by Laws 2010, Ch. 88, § 2, eff. Aug. 11, 2010.

(7) Paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of this section shall be known and may be cited as “Kiana Arellano’s Law”.(8) This section is not intended to infringe upon any right guaranteed to any person by the first amendment to the United States constitution or to prevent the expression of any religious, political, or philosophical views.

Part 3. Offenses Involving Communications

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-9-303. Wiretapping prohibited - penalty

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person not a sender or intended receiver of a telephone or telegraph communication commits wiretapping if he:

(a) Knowingly overhears, reads, takes, copies, or records a telephone, telegraph, or electronic communication without the consent of either a sender or a receiver thereof or attempts to do so; or

(b) Intentionally overhears, reads, takes, copies, or records a telephone, telegraph, or electronic communication for the purpose of committing or aiding or abetting the commission of an unlawful act; or

(c) Knowingly uses for any purpose or discloses to any person the contents of any such communication, or attempts to do so, while knowing or having reason to know the information was obtained in violation of this section; or

(d) Knowingly taps or makes any connection with any telephone or telegraph line, wire, cable, or instrument belonging to another or with any electronic, mechanical, or other device belonging to another or installs any device whether connected or not which permits the interception of messages; or

(e) Repealed by Laws 2002, Ch. 322, § 23, eff. July 1, 2002.

(f) Knowingly uses any apparatus to unlawfully do, or cause to be done, any act prohibited by this section or aids, authorizes, agrees with, employs, permits, or intentionally conspires with any person to violate the provisions of this section.

(2) Wiretapping is a class 2 misdemeanor.

§ 18-9-304. Eavesdropping prohibited--penalty

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person not visibly present during a conversation or discussion commits eavesdropping if he:

(a) Knowingly overhears or records such conversation or discussion without the consent of at least one of the principal parties thereto, or attempts to do so; or

(b) Intentionally overhears or records such conversation or discussion for the purpose of committing, aiding, or abetting the commission of an unlawful act; or

(c) Knowingly uses for any purpose, discloses, or attempts to use or disclose to any other person the contents of any such conversation or discussion while knowing or having reason to know the information was obtained in violation of this section; or

(d) Knowingly aids, authorizes, agrees with, employs, permits, or intentionally conspires with any person to violate the provisions of this section.

(2) Eavesdropping is a class 2 misdemeanor.

Article 12. Offenses Relating to Firearms and Weapons

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. Firearms and Weapons--General

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-12-108. Possession of weapons by previous offenders

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person commits the crime of possession of a weapon by a previous offender if the person knowingly possesses, uses, or carries upon his or her person a firearm as defined in section 18-1-901(3)(h) or any other weapon that is subject to the provisions of this article 12 subsequent to the person’s conviction for a felony crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302(1) or listed in subsection (7) of this section, or subsequent to the person’s conviction for attempt or conspiracy to commit a crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302(1) that is a felony, pursuant to Colorado or any other state’s law or pursuant to federal law.

(2) A person commits a class 5 felony if the person violates subsection (1) or (3) of this section. A person who violates subsection (1) or (3) of this section and used or threatened the use of the firearm in the commission of another crime is not eligible for probation or any other alternative sentence and shall be sentenced to the department of corrections.

(3)(a) A person commits the crime of possession of a weapon by a previous offender if the person knowingly possesses, uses, or carries upon his or her person a firearm as defined in section 18-1-901(3)(h) or any other weapon that is subject to the provisions of this article 12 subsequent to the person’s adjudication for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302(1) or listed in subsection (7) of this section, or subsequent to the person’s adjudication for attempt or conspiracy to commit a crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302(1) that is a felony, pursuant to Colorado or any other state’s law or pursuant to federal law in the previous ten years from the completion of the person’s sentence for the adjudication of a felony crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302(1).

(b) If a person completes a sentence for the adjudication of a felony crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302(1) or listed in subsection (7) of this section, or subsequent to the person’s adjudication for attempt or conspiracy to commit a crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302(1) or listed in subsection (7) of this section that is a felony pursuant to Colorado or any other state’s law or under federal law, and the person has good cause for possessing, using, or carrying a firearm as defined in section 18-1-901(3)(h) or any other weapon that is subject to this article 12, the person may petition the court for an order determining that subsection (3)(a) of this section does not apply to the person if the person otherwise legally possesses, uses, or carries upon his or her person a firearm as defined in section 18-1-901(3)(h) or any other weapon that is subject to this article 12. A court shall enter an order determining that subsection (3)(a) of this section does not apply to the person if the court finds, upon request of the person and by a preponderance of the evidence, there is good cause for the person to possess, use, or carry a firearm as defined in section 18-1-901(3)(h) or any other weapon that is subject to this article 12.

(4) Deleted by Laws 2021, Ch. 462 (S.B. 21-271), § 346, eff. March 1, 2022.

(5) Deleted by Laws 2021, Ch. 462 (S.B. 21-271), § 346, eff. March 1, 2022.

(6)(a) Upon the discharge of any inmate from the custody of the department of corrections, the department shall provide a written advisement to such inmate of the prohibited acts and penalties specified in this section. The written advisement, at a minimum, shall include the written statement specified in subsection (6)(c) of this section.

(b) Any written stipulation for deferred judgment and sentence entered into by a defendant pursuant to section 18-1.3-102 shall contain a written advisement of the prohibited acts and penalties specified in this section. The written advisement, at a minimum, shall include the written statement specified in subsection (6)(c) of this section.

(c) The written statement shall provide that:

(I)(A) A person commits the crime of possession of a weapon by a previous offender in violation of this section if the person knowingly possesses, uses, or carries upon his or her person a firearm as described in section 18-1-901(3)(h), or any other weapon that is subject to the provisions of this title subsequent to the person’s conviction for a felony, or subsequent to the person’s conviction for attempt or conspiracy to commit a felony, or subsequent to the person’s conviction for a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence as defined in 18 U.S.C. sec. 921(a)(33)(A), or subsequent to the person’s conviction for attempt or conspiracy to commit such misdemeanor crime of domestic violence; and

(B) As used in this subsection (6)(c), “felony” means any felony under Colorado law, federal law, or the laws of any other state; and

(II) A violation of this section may result in a sentence of imprisonment or fine, or both.

(d) The act of providing the written advisement described in this subsection (6) or the failure to provide such advisement may not be used as a defense to any crime charged and may not provide any basis for collateral attack on, or for appellate relief concerning, any conviction.

(7) In addition to a conviction for felony crime as defined in section 24-4.1-302 (1), a felony conviction or adjudication for one of the following felonies prohibits a person from possessing, using, or carrying upon the person a firearm as defined in section 18-1-901(3)(h) or any other weapon that is subject to this article 12 pursuant to subsection (1) or (3) of this section:

(a) An offense subject to sentencing pursuant to section 18-1.3-1004;

(b) First degree murder of a peace officer, firefighter, or emergency medical service provider in violation of section 18-3-107;

(c) Criminal extortion in violation of section 18-3-207;

(d) False imprisonment in violation of section 18-3-303;

(e) Enticement of a child in violation of section 18-3-305;

(f) Internet luring of a child in violation of section 18-3-306;

(g) Internet sexual exploitation of a child in violation of section 18-3-405.4;

(h) Unlawful sexual conduct by a peace officer in violation of section 18-3-405.7;

(i) Unlawful termination of a pregnancy in the first degree in violation of section 18-3.5-103;

(j) Unlawful termination of a pregnancy in the second degree in violation of section 18-3.5-104;

(k) First degree arson in violation of section 18-4-102;

(l) Second degree arson in violation of section 18-4-103;

(m) Third degree arson in violation of section 18-4-104;

(n) Fourth degree arson in violation of section 18-4-105;

(o) Habitual child abuse in violation of section 18-6-401.2;

(p) Contributing to the delinquency of a minor in violation of section 18-6-701;

(q) Pandering in violation of section 18-7-203;

(r) Pimping in violation of section 18-7-206;

(s) Pandering of a child in violation of section 18-7-403;

(t) Procurement of a child in violation of section 18-7-403.5;

(u) Keeping a place of child prostitution in violation of section 18-7-404;

(v) Impersonating a peace officer in violation of section 18-8-112;

(w) Disarming a peace officer in violation of section 18-8-116;

(x) Aiding escape from an institution for the care and treatment of persons with behavioral or mental health disorders in violation of section 18-8-201.1;

(y) Assault during escape in violation of section 18-8-206;

(z) Holding hostages in violation of section 18-8-207;

(aa) Escape in violation of section 18-8-208;

(bb) Attempt to escape in violation of section 18-8-208.1;

(cc) Participation in a riot in detention facilities in violation of section 18-8-211;

(dd) Intimidating a juror in violation of section 18-8-608;

(ee) Inciting a riot in violation of section 18-9-102;

(ff) Arming a rioter in violation of section 18-9-103;

(gg) Engaging in a riot in violation of section 18-9-104;

(hh) Vehicular eluding in violation of section 18-9-116.5;

(ii) Firearms, explosives, or incendiary devices in facilities of public transportation in violation of section 18-9-118;

(jj) Failure or refusal to leave premises or property upon request of a peace officer in violation of section 18-9-119;

(kk) Terrorist training activities in violation of section 18-9-120;

(ll) Aggravated cruelty to animals in violation of section 18-9-202;

(mm) Treason in violation of section 18-11-101;

(nn) Insurrection in violation of section 18-11-102;

(oo) Advocating the overthrow of the government in violation of section 18-11-201;

(pp) Inciting destruction of life or property in violation of section 18-11-202;

(qq) Membership in anarchist and seditious associations in violation of section 18-11-203;

(rr) Possessing a dangerous or illegal weapon in violation of section 18-12-102;

(ss) Unlawfully carrying a weapon in violation of section 18-12-105.5;

(tt) Use of a stun gun in violation of section 18-12-106.5;

(uu) Illegal discharge of a firearm in violation of section 18-12-107.5;

(vv) Possession of a weapon by a previous offender in violation of section 18-12-108 if committed on or after March 1, 2022;

(ww) Possession of a handgun by a juvenile in violation of section 18-12-108.5;

(xx) Unlawfully providing or permitting a juvenile to possess a handgun in violation of section 18-12-108.7;

(yy) Possession, use, or removal of explosives or incendiary devices in violation of section 18-12-109;

(zz) Unlawful purchase of a firearm in violation of section 18-12-111;

(aaa) Possessing a large-capacity magazine during the commission of a crime of violence in violation of section 18-12-302(1)(c);

(bbb) Dueling in violation of section 18-13-104 if committed on or before October 1, 2023;

(ccc) Intentionally setting a wildfire in violation of section 18-13-109.5;

(ddd) Unlawful administration of ketamine in violation of section 18-13-123;

(eee) Repealed by Laws 2023, Ch. 298, § 47, eff. Oct. 1, 2023.

(fff) Organized crime in violation of section 18-17-104;

(ggg) A special offender in violation of section 18-18-407(1)(d)(II);

(hhh) A criminal attempt, complicity, or conspiracy to commit any of the offenses listed in this subsection (7); and

(iii) Unlawful conduct involving an unserialized firearm, frame, or receiver, as described in section 18-12-111.5.

§ 18-12-108.5. Possession of handguns by juveniles--prohibited--exceptions--penalty

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) Except as provided in this section, it is unlawful for any person who has not attained the age of eighteen years knowingly to have any handgun in such person’s possession.

(b) Any person possessing any handgun in violation of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) commits the offense of illegal possession of a handgun by a juvenile.

(c)(I) Illegal possession of a handgun by a juvenile is a class 2 misdemeanor.

(II) For any second or subsequent offense, illegal possession of a handgun by a juvenile is a class 5 felony.

(d) A person under the age of eighteen years who is taken into custody by a law enforcement officer for an offense pursuant to this section must be taken into temporary custody in the manner described in section 19-2.5-305.

(2) This section shall not apply to:

(a) Any person under the age of eighteen years who is:

(I) In attendance at a hunter’s safety course or a firearms safety course; or

(II) Engaging in practice in the use of a firearm or target shooting at an established range authorized by the governing body of the jurisdiction in which such range is located or any other area where the discharge of a firearm is not prohibited; or

(III) Engaging in an organized competition involving the use of a firearm or participating in or practicing for a performance by an organized group under 501(c)(3)1 as determined by the federal internal revenue service which uses firearms as a part of such performance; or

(IV) Hunting or trapping pursuant to a valid license issued to such person pursuant to article 4 of title 33, C.R.S.; or

(V) Traveling with any handgun in such person’s possession being unloaded to or from any activity described in subparagraph (I), (II), (III), or (IV) of this paragraph (a);

(b) Any person under the age of eighteen years who is on real property under the control of such person’s parent, legal guardian, or grandparent and who has the permission of such person’s parent or legal guardian to possess a handgun;

(c) Any person under the age of eighteen years who is at such person’s residence and who, with the permission of such person’s parent or legal guardian, possesses a handgun for the purpose of exercising the rights contained in section 18-1-704 or section 18-1-704.5.

(3) For the purposes of subsection (2) of this section, a handgun is “loaded” if:

(a) There is a cartridge in the chamber of the handgun; or

(b) There is a cartridge in the cylinder of the handgun, if the handgun is a revolver; or

(c) The handgun, and the ammunition for such handgun, is carried on the person of a person under the age of eighteen years or is in such close proximity to such person that such person could readily gain access to the handgun and the ammunition and load the handgun.

(4) Repealed by Laws 1998, Ch. 209, § 15, eff. May 18, 1998.

§ 18-12-111. Unlawful purchase of firearms

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Any person who knowingly purchases or otherwise obtains a firearm on behalf of or for transfer to a person who the transferor knows or reasonably should know is ineligible to possess a firearm pursuant to federal or state law commits a class 4 felony.

(2)(a) Any person who is a licensed dealer, as defined in 18 U.S.C. sec. 921(a)(11), shall post a sign displaying the provisions of subsection (1) of this section in a manner that is easily readable. The person shall post such sign in an area that is visible to the public at each location from which the person sells firearms to the general public.

(2)(b) Any person who violates any provision of this subsection (2) commits a civil infraction.

Part 2. Permits to Carry Concealed Handguns

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 18-12-203. Criteria for obtaining a permit

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Beginning May 17, 2003, except as set forth in this section, a sheriff shall issue a permit to carry a concealed handgun to an applicant who:

(a) Is a legal resident of the state of Colorado. For purposes of this part 2, a person who is a member of the armed forces and is stationed pursuant to permanent duty station orders at a military installation in this state, and a member of the person’s immediate family living in Colorado, shall be deemed to be a legal resident of the state of Colorado.

(b) Is twenty-one years of age or older;

(c) Is not ineligible to possess a firearm pursuant to section 18-12-108 or federal law;

(d) Has not been convicted of perjury under section 18-8-503, in relation to information provided or deliberately omitted on a permit application submitted pursuant to this part 2;

(e)(I) Does not chronically and habitually use alcoholic beverages to the extent that the applicant’s normal faculties are impaired.

(II) The prohibition specified in this subsection (1)(e) shall not apply to an applicant who provides an affidavit, signed by a professional counselor or addiction counselor who is licensed pursuant to article 245 of title 12 and specializes in alcohol addiction, stating that the applicant has been evaluated by the counselor and has been determined to be a recovering alcoholic who has refrained from using alcohol for at least three years.

(f) Is not an unlawful user of or addicted to a controlled substance as defined in section 18-18-102(5). Whether an applicant is an unlawful user of or addicted to a controlled substance shall be determined as provided in federal law and regulations.

(g) Is not subject to:

(I) A protection order issued pursuant to section 18-1-1001 or section 19-2.5-607 that is in effect at the time the application is submitted; or

(II) A permanent protection order issued pursuant to article 14 of title 13;

(III) A temporary protection order issued pursuant to article 14 of title 13 that is in effect at the time the application is submitted; or

(IV) A temporary extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to section 13-14.5-103(3) or an extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to section 13-14.5-105(2);

(h) Demonstrates competence with a handgun by submitting:

(I) Evidence of experience with a firearm through participation in organized shooting competitions or current military service;

(II) Evidence that, at the time the application is submitted, the applicant is a certified instructor;

(III) Proof of honorable discharge from a branch of the United States armed forces within the three years preceding submittal of the application;

(IV) Proof of honorable discharge from a branch of the United States armed forces that reflects pistol qualifications obtained within the ten years preceding submittal of the application;

(V) A certificate showing retirement from a Colorado law enforcement agency that reflects pistol qualifications obtained within the ten years preceding submittal of the application; or

(VI) A training certificate from a handgun training class obtained within the ten years preceding submittal of the application. The applicant shall submit the original training certificate or a photocopy thereof that includes the original signature of the class instructor. To the extent permitted by section 18-12-202(5), in obtaining a training certificate from a handgun training class, the applicant shall have discretion in selecting which handgun training class to complete.

(2) Regardless of whether an applicant meets the criteria specified in subsection (1) of this section, if the sheriff has a reasonable belief that documented previous behavior by the applicant makes it likely the applicant will present a danger to self or others if the applicant receives a permit to carry a concealed handgun, the sheriff may deny the permit.

(3)(a) The sheriff shall deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a permit if an applicant or a permittee fails to meet one of the criteria listed in subsection (1) of this section and may deny, revoke, or refuse to renew a permit on the grounds specified in subsection (2) of this section.

(b) Following issuance of a permit, if the issuing sheriff has a reasonable belief that a permittee no longer meets the criteria specified in subsection (1) of this section or that the permittee presents a danger as described in subsection (2) of this section, the sheriff shall suspend the permit until such time as the matter is resolved and the issuing sheriff determines that the permittee is eligible to possess a permit as provided in this section.

(c) If the sheriff suspends or revokes a permit, the sheriff shall notify the permittee in writing, stating the grounds for suspension or revocation and informing the permittee of the right to seek a second review by the sheriff, to submit additional information for the record, and to seek judicial review pursuant to section 18-12-207.

Title 19. Children's Code

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Article 1. General Provisions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. General Provisions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 19-1-103. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

As used in this title 19 or in the specified portion of this title 19, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)(a) “Abuse” or “child abuse or neglect”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means an act or omission in one of the following categories that threatens the health or welfare of a child:

(I) Any case in which a child exhibits evidence of skin bruising, bleeding, malnutrition, failure to thrive, burns, fracture of any bone, subdural hematoma, soft tissue swelling, or death and either: Such condition or death is not justifiably explained, the history given concerning such condition is at variance with the degree or type of such condition or death, or the circumstances indicate that such condition may not be the product of an accidental occurrence;

(II) Any case in which a child is subjected to unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102(9);

(III) Any case in which a child is in need of services because the child’s parent, legal guardian, or custodian fails to take the same actions to provide adequate food, clothing, shelter, medical care, or supervision that a prudent parent would take. The requirements of this subsection (1)(a)(III) are subject to the provisions of section 19-3-103.

(IV) Any case in which a child is subjected to emotional abuse. As used in this subsection (1)(a)(IV), “emotional abuse” means an identifiable and substantial impairment of the child’s intellectual or psychological functioning or development or a substantial risk of impairment of the child’s intellectual or psychological functioning or development.

(V) Any act or omission described in section 19-3-102(1)(a), (1)(b), or (1)(c);

(VI) Any case in which, in the presence of a child, or on the premises where a child is found, or where a child resides, a controlled substance, as defined in section 18-18-102(5), is manufactured or attempted to be manufactured;

(VII) Any case in which a child is born affected by alcohol or substance exposure, except when taken as prescribed or recommended and monitored by a licensed health-care provider, and the newborn child’s health or welfare is threatened by substance use;

(VIII) Any case in which a child is subjected to human trafficking of a minor for involuntary servitude, as described in section 18-3-503, or human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude, as described in section 18-3-504(2).

(b) In all cases, those investigating reports of child abuse shall take into account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which the child participates, including but not limited to accepted work-related practices of agricultural communities. Nothing in this subsection (1) refers to acts that could be construed to be a reasonable exercise of parental discipline or to acts reasonably necessary to subdue a child being taken into custody pursuant to section 19-2.5-209 that are performed by a peace officer, as described in section 16-2.5-101, acting in the good-faith performance of the officer’s duties.

(2) “Adjudication” has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-2.5-102.

(3) “Adjudicatory hearing” means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition in dependency and neglect are supported by the evidence.

(4) “Adjudicatory trial” means a trial to determine whether the allegations of a petition in delinquency are supported by the evidence.

(5) “Administrative review” means a review conducted by the department of human services that is open to the participation of the parents of the child and conducted by an administrative reviewer who is not responsible for the case management of, or the delivery of services to, either the child or the parents who are the subject of the review.

(6) “Adoptee”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means a person who, as a minor, was adopted pursuant to a final decree of adoption entered by a court.

(7)(a) “Adoption record”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, with the exception of section 19-5-305(2)(b)(I) to (2)(b)(IV), means the following documents and information:

(I) The adoptee’s original birth certificate and amended birth certificate;

(II) The final decree of adoption;

(III) Nonidentifying information, as defined in subsection (103) of this section;

(IV) The final order of relinquishment; and

(V) The order of termination of parental rights.

(b) “Adoption record”, as used in section 19-5-305(2)(b)(I) to (2)(b)(IV), means the following documents and information, without redaction:

(I) The adoptee’s original birth certificate and amended birth certificate;

(II) The final decree of adoption;

(III) Any identifying information, such as the name of the adoptee before placement in adoption; the name and address of each birth parent as they appear in the birth records; the name, address, and contact information of the adult adoptee; and the current name, address, and contact information of each birth parent, if known, or other information that might personally identify a birth parent;

(IV) Any nonidentifying information, as defined in subsection (103) of this section;

(V) The final order of relinquishment; and

(VI) The order of termination of parental rights.

(c) “Adoption record”, as used in either subsection (7)(a) or (7)(b) of this section, must not include pre-relinquishment counseling records, which must remain confidential.

(8) “Adoption triad” means the three parties involved in an adoption: The adoptee, the birth parent, and the adoptive parent.

(9) “Adoptive parent”, as used in parts 3 and 4 of article 5 of this title 19, means an adult who has become a parent of a minor through the legal process of adoption.

(10) “Adult” means a person eighteen years of age or older; except that any person eighteen years of age or older who is under the continuing jurisdiction of the court, who is before the court for an alleged delinquent act committed prior to the person’s eighteenth birthday, or concerning whom a petition has been filed for the person’s adoption other than pursuant to this title 19 must be referred to as a juvenile.

(11) “Adult adoptee”, as used in parts 3 and 4 of article 5 of this title 19, means an individual who is eighteen years of age or older and who, as a minor, was adopted pursuant to a final decree of adoption entered by a court.

(12) “Appropriate treatment plan”, as used in section 19-3-508(1)(e), means a treatment plan approved by the court that is reasonably calculated to render the particular respondent fit to provide adequate parenting to the child within a reasonable time and that relates to the child’s needs.

(13) “Assessment center for children”, as used in part 3 of this article 1, means a multi-disciplinary, community-based center that provides services to children and their families, including, but not limited to, detention, screening, case management, and therapeutic intervention relating to delinquency, abuse or neglect, family conflict, and truancy.

(14) “Basic identification information”, as used in article 2.5 of this title 19, means the name, place and date of birth, last-known address, social security number, occupation and address of employment, last school attended, physical description, photograph, handwritten signature, sex, fingerprints, and any known aliases of any person.

(15) “Biological parent” or “birth parent”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means a parent, by birth, of an adopted person.

(16) “Biological sibling”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means a sibling, by birth, of an adopted person. “Biological sibling”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, for purposes of the definition of sibling group, as defined in subsection (127) of this section, means a brother, sister, or half-sibling of a child who is being placed in foster care or being placed for adoption.

(17) “Birth parents”, as used in part 4 of article 5 of this title 19, means genetic, biological, or natural parents whose rights were voluntarily or involuntarily terminated by a court or otherwise. “Birth parents” includes a man who is the parent of a child as established in accordance with the provisions of the “Uniform Parentage Act”, article 4 of this title 19, prior to the termination of parental rights.

(18) Repealed by Laws 2022, Ch. 123 (H.B. 22-1295), § 34, eff. July 1, 2022.

(19) “Case management purposes” means assessments, evaluations, treatment, education, proper disposition or placement of the child, interagency coordination, and other services that are incidental to the administration of the program and in the best interests of the child.

(20) “Chief justice”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means the chief justice of the Colorado supreme court.

(21) “Child” means a person under eighteen years of age.

(22) Repealed by Laws 2022, Ch. 123 (H.B. 22-1295), § 34, eff. July 1, 2022.

(23) “Child advocacy center”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means a center that provides a comprehensive multidisciplinary team response to allegations of child abuse or neglect in a dedicated, child-friendly setting. The team response to allegations of child abuse or neglect includes but is not limited to technical assistance for forensic interviews, forensic medical examinations, mental health and related support services, consultation, training, and education.

(24) “Child care center” means a child care center licensed and approved pursuant to part 9 of article 6 of title 26 or part 3 of article 5 of title 26.5. If the facility is located in another state, the department of human services or the department of early childhood, as appropriate, shall designate, upon certification, that an appropriate available space does not exist in a child care facility in this state, and the facility must be licensed or approved as required by law in that state.

(25) “Child placement agency” means an agency licensed or approved pursuant to law. If such agency is located in another state, it must be licensed or approved as required by law in that state.

(26) “Child protection team”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means a multidisciplinary team consisting, where possible, of a physician; a representative of the juvenile court or the district court with juvenile jurisdiction; a representative of a local law enforcement agency; a representative of the county department of human or social services; a representative of a mental health clinic; a representative of a county, district, or municipal public health agency; an attorney; a representative of a public school district; and one or more representatives of the lay community, at least one of whom must be a person who serves as a foster parent in the county. Each public agency may have more than one participating member on the team; except that, in voting on procedural or policy matters, each public agency has only one vote. In no event must an attorney member of the child protection team be appointed as guardian ad litem or counsel for youth for the child or youth or as counsel for the parents at any subsequent court proceedings. The child protection team must never be composed of fewer than three persons. When any racial, ethnic, or linguistic minority group constitutes a significant portion of the population of the jurisdiction of the child protection team, a member of each such minority group must serve as an additional lay member of the child protection team. At least one of the preceding members of the team must be chosen on the basis of representing low-income families. The role of the child protection team is advisory only.

(27) Repealed by Laws 2023, Ch. 251, § 15, eff. May 24, 2023.

(28) “Commercial sexual exploitation of a child” means a crime of a sexual nature committed against a child for financial or other economic reasons.

(29) “Commit”, as used in article 2.5 of this title 19, means to transfer legal custody.

(30) “Community placement” means the placement of a child for whom the department of human services or a county department has placement and care responsibility pursuant to article 2.5 or 3 of this title 19 in any licensed or certified twenty-four-hour nonsecure care and treatment facility away from the child’s parent or guardian. “Community placement” includes but is not limited to placement in a foster care home, group home, residential child care facility, or residential treatment facility.

(31) “Complainant”, as used in section 19-3-211, means any person who was the subject of an investigation of a report of child abuse or neglect or any parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child who is the subject of a report of child abuse or neglect and brings a grievance against a county department of human or social services in accordance with the provisions of section 19-3-211.

(32) “Confidential intermediary”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means a person twenty-one years of age or older who has completed a training program for confidential intermediaries that meets the standards set forth by the commission pursuant to section 19-5-303 and who is authorized to inspect confidential relinquishment and adoption records at the request of an adult adoptee, adoptive parent, biological parent, or biological sibling.

(33) “Confirmed”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means any report made pursuant to article 3 of this title 19 that is found by a county department of human or social services, law enforcement agency, or entity authorized to investigate institutional abuse to be supported by a preponderance of the evidence.

(34) “Consent”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means voluntary, informed, written consent. When used in the context of confidential intermediaries, “consent” always must be preceded by an explanation that consent permits the confidential intermediary to arrange a personal contact among biological relatives. “Consent” may also mean the agreement for contact or disclosure of records by any of the parties identified in section 19-5-304(2) as a result of an inquiry by a confidential intermediary pursuant to section 19-5-304.

(35) “Consent form”, as used in section 19-5-305(3), means a verified written statement signed by an adult adoptee or an adult adoptee’s consenting birth parent or an adoptive parent of a minor adoptee, and notarized, and that authorizes the release of adoption records or identifying information, to the extent available, by a licensed child placement agency.

(36) “Contact information” means information supplied voluntarily by a birth parent on a contact preference form, including the name of the birth parent at the time of relinquishment of the adoptee; the alias, if any, used at the time of relinquishment of the adoptee; and the current name, current address, and current telephone number of the birth parent.

(37) “Contact preference form” means a written statement signed by a birth parent indicating whether the birth parent prefers future contact with an adult adoptee, an adult descendant of the adoptee, or a legal representative of the adoptee or the descendant and, if contact is preferred, whether the contact should be through a confidential intermediary or a designated employee of a child placement agency.

(38) “Continuously available”, as used in section 19-3-308(4), means the assignment of a person to be near an operable telephone not necessarily located on the premises ordinarily used for business by the county department of human or social services or to have such arrangements made through agreements with local law enforcement agencies.

(39) “Convicted” or “conviction”, as used in section 19-5-105.5, means a plea of guilty accepted by the court, including a plea of guilty entered pursuant to a deferred sentence pursuant to section 18-1.3-102, a verdict of guilty by a judge or jury, or a plea of no contest accepted by the court, or having received a disposition as a juvenile or having been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent based on the commission of any act that constitutes sexual assault, as defined in subsection (124) of this section.

(40) “Cost of care” means the cost to the department of human services or the county department of human or social services for a child placed out of the home; or the cost to the department of human services or the county department of human or social services charged with the custody of the juvenile for providing room, board, clothing, education, medical care, and other normal living expenses for a child placed out of the home; or the cost to the department of human services or the county department of human or social services for a juvenile sentenced to a placement out of the home as determined by the court. As used in this title 19, “cost of care” also includes any costs associated with maintenance of a juvenile in a home detention program, supervision of probation when the juvenile is granted probation, or supervision of parole when the juvenile is placed on parole.

(41) “Counsel” means an attorney-at-law who acts as a person’s legal advisor or who represents a person in court.

(41.5) “Counsel for youth” means an attorney-at-law who provides specialized client-directed legal representation for a child or youth and who owes the same duties, including undivided loyalty, confidentiality, and competent representation, to the child or youth as is due an adult client. “Counsel for youth” does not mean defense counsel for a juvenile pursuant to article 2.5 of this title 19.

(42) “County attorney” means the office of the county attorney or city attorney representing a county or a city and county and includes the attorneys employed or retained by such county or city and county.

(43)(a) “County department”, as used in this article 1; part 2, part 3, and part 7 of article 3 of this title 19; part 2 of article 5 of this title 19; and part 3 of article 7 of this title 19, means the county or district department of human or social services.

(b) “County department” means a county or a city and county department of human or social services.

(44) “County director”, as used in section 19-3-211 and part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means the county director or district director appointed pursuant to section 26-1-117.

(45) “Court”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means any court of record with jurisdiction over the matter at issue.

(46) “Court-appointed special advocate” or “CASA volunteer” means a volunteer appointed by a court pursuant to part 2 of this article 1 to assist in advocacy for children.

(47) “Court-appointed special advocate program” or “CASA program” means a program established pursuant to part 2 of this article 1.

(48) “Criminal justice agency”, as used in this section, has the same meaning as set forth in section 24-72-302(3).

(49) “Custodial adoption”, as used in part 2 of article 5 of this title 19, means an adoption of a child by any person and the person’s spouse, as required pursuant to section 19-5-202(3), who:

(a) Has been awarded custody or allocated parental responsibilities by a court of law in a dissolution of marriage, custody or allocation of parental responsibilities proceeding, or has been awarded guardianship of the child by a court of law in a probate action, such as pursuant to part 2 of article 14 of title 15; and

(b) Has had physical custody of the child for a period of one year or more.

(50) “Custodian” means a person who has been providing shelter, food, clothing, and other care for a child in the same fashion as a parent would, whether or not by order of court.

(51)(a)(I) “Custodian of records”, as used in sections 19-5-305(2) and 19-5-305.5, means any of the following individuals or entities that have custody of records relating to the relinquishment or adoption of a child:

(A) A court;

(B) A state agency; or

(C) The legal agent or representative of any entity described in subsections (51)(a)(I)(A) and (51)(a)(I)(B) of this section.

(II) “Custodian of records”, as used in sections 19-5-305(2) and 19-5-305.5, does not include a licensed child placement agency.

(b) “Custodian of records”, as used in section 19-5-109, means an entity that has custody of records relating to the relinquishment of a child, including a court, state agency, licensed child placement agency, maternity home, or the legal agent or representative of any such entity.

(52) “Delinquent act”, as used in article 2.5 of this title 19, means a violation of any statute, ordinance, or order enumerated in section 19-2.5-103. If a juvenile is alleged to have committed or is found guilty of a delinquent act, the classification and degree of the offense is determined by the statute, ordinance, or order that the petition alleges was violated. “Delinquent act” does not include truancy or habitual truancy.

(53) “Department” or “state department” means the state department of human services created in section 24-1-120.

(53.5) “Dependent on the court” means a youth is under the juvenile court’s jurisdiction; the youth was at any time adjudicated dependent or neglected, as described in section 19-3-102, or that the court has found sufficient evidence that the youth has been subjected to child abuse or neglect, as defined in subsection (1) of this section; and the youth is in need of oversight and supportive services as determined by the court.

(54) “Designated adoption” means an adoption in which:

(a) The birth parent or parents designate a specific applicant with whom they wish to place their child for purposes of adoption; and

(b) The anonymity requirements of section 19-1-309 are waived.

(55) “Detention” means the temporary care of a child who requires secure custody in physically restricting facilities pending court disposition or an execution of a court order for placement or commitment.

(55.5) “Diminished capacity” means a child or youth who lacks sufficient capacity to communicate or make considered decisions adequately in connection with the child’s or youth’s legal representation. Age or developmental maturity must not be the sole basis for a determination of diminished capacity.

(56) “Director”, as used in article 2.5 of this title 19, is defined in section 19-2.5-102.

(57) “Disability” has the same meaning as set forth in the federal “Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990”, 42 U.S.C. sec. 12101 et seq., and its related amendments and implementing regulations.

(58) “Dispositional hearing” means a hearing to determine what order of disposition should be made concerning a child who is neglected or dependent. The hearing may be part of the proceeding that includes the adjudicatory hearing, or it may be held at a time subsequent to the adjudicatory hearing.

(59) “Diversion” has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-2.5-102.

(60) “Division of youth services” or “division” means the division of youth services, created in section 19-2.5-1501.

(61) “Donor”, as used in article 4 of this title 19, means an individual who produces eggs or sperm used for an assisted reproductive procedure, whether or not for consideration. “Donor” does not include an intended parent pursuant to section 19-4-106(1) or (5) or section 19-4.5-109 or a spouse or civil union partner who provides reproductive tissue to be used for an assisted reproductive procedure by the other spouse or civil union partner.

(62) “Executive director”, as used in article 3.3 of this title 19 and part 3 of article 7 of this title 19, means the executive director of the department of human services.

(63) “Expungement”, as used in section 19-1-306, means the designation of juvenile delinquency records whereby such records are deemed never to have existed.

(64) “Family child care home” means a family child care home licensed and approved pursuant to part 3 of article 5 of title 26.5. If the facility is located in another state, the department of early childhood shall designate, upon certification, that an appropriate available space does not exist in a facility in this state. An out-of-state family child care home must be licensed or approved as required by law in that state.

(64.5) “Family time” means any form of contact or engagement between parents, legal custodians, guardians, siblings, and children or youth for the purposes of preserving and strengthening family ties.

(65) “Fire investigator” means a person who:

(a) Is an officer or member of a fire department, fire protection district, or firefighting agency of the state or any of its political subdivisions;

(b) Is engaged in conducting or is present for the purpose of engaging in the conduct of a fire investigation; and

(c) Is either a volunteer or is compensated for services rendered by the person.

(66) “Foster care” means the placement of a child or youth into the legal custody or legal authority of a county department of human or social services for physical placement of the child or youth in a kinship care placement; supervised independent living placement, as defined in section 19-7-302; or certified or licensed facility, or the physical placement of a juvenile committed to the custody of the state department of human services into a community placement.

(67) “Foster care home” means a foster care home certified pursuant to part 9 of article 6 of title 26.

(68) “Foster care prevention services” means mental health and substance abuse prevention and treatment services, in-home parent skill-based programs, kinship navigator programs, and other programs eligible for reimbursement under the federal “Family First Prevention Services Act” that are trauma-informed, promising, supported or well-supported, and provided to prevent foster care placement.

(69) “Governing body”, as used in section 19-3-211, means the board of county commissioners of a county or the city council of a city and county.

(70)(a) “Grandparent” means a person who is the parent of a child’s father or mother, who is related to the child by blood, in whole or by half, adoption, or marriage.

(b) Repealed by Laws 2023, Ch. 243, § 6, eff. Aug. 7, 2023.

(71) Repealed by Laws 2023, Ch. 243, § 6, eff. Aug. 7, 2023.

(72) “Grievance”, as used in section 19-3-211, means a dispute between a complainant and a county department of human or social services concerning the conduct of county department personnel in performing their duties pursuant to article 3 of this title 19.

(73) “Group care facilities and homes” means places other than foster family care homes providing care for small groups of children. Group care facilities and homes are licensed as provided in part 9 of article 6 of title 26 or meet the requirements of section 25.5-10-214.

(74) “Guardian ad litem” means a person appointed by a court to act in the best interests of a person whom the person appointed is representing in proceedings pursuant to this title 19 and who, if appointed to represent a person in a dependency and neglect proceeding pursuant to article 3 of this title 19, must be an attorney-at-law licensed to practice in Colorado.

(75) “Guardianship of the person” means the duty and authority vested by court action to make major decisions affecting a child, including but not limited to:

(a) The authority to consent to marriage, to enlistment in the armed forces, and to medical or surgical treatment;

(b) The authority to represent a child in legal actions and to make other decisions of substantial legal significance concerning the child;

(c) The authority to consent to the adoption of a child when the parent-child legal relationship has been terminated by judicial decree; and

(d) The rights and responsibilities of legal custody when legal custody has not been vested in another person, agency, or institution.

(76) “Half-sibling” has the same meaning as set forth for “biological sibling” in subsection (16) of this section.

(77) “Human trafficking of a minor for involuntary servitude” means an act as described in section 18-3-503.

(78) “Human trafficking of a minor for sexual servitude” means an act as described in section 18-3-504(2).

(79) “Identifying” means giving, sharing, or obtaining information.

(80) “Identifying information”, as used in section 19-5-305(3), means copies of any adoption records, as that term is defined in subsection (7) of this section, that are in the possession of the child placement agency. “Identifying information” also includes the name of the adoptee before placement in adoption; the name and address of each consenting birth parent as they appear in the birth records; the current name, address, and telephone number of the adult adoptee; and the current name, address, and telephone number of each consenting birth parent to the extent such information is available to the child placement agency.

(81) “Imminent placement out of the home”, as used in section 19-1-116(2), means that without intercession the child will be placed out of the home immediately.

(82) “Independent living” means a form of placement out of the home arranged and supervised by the county department of human or social services where the child is established in a living situation designed to promote and lead to the child’s emancipation. Independent living must only follow some other form of placement out of the home.

(83) “Indian child” means an unmarried person who is younger than eighteen years of age and who is either:

(a) A member of an Indian tribe; or

(b) Eligible for membership in an Indian tribe and who is the biological child of a member of an Indian tribe.

(84) “Indian child’s tribe” means:

(a) The Indian tribe in which an Indian child is a member or eligible for membership; or

(b) In the case of an Indian child who is a member of or eligible for membership in more than one tribe, the Indian tribe with which the Indian child has the most significant contacts.

(85) “Indian tribe” means an Indian tribe, band, nation, or other organized group or community of Indians recognized as eligible for the federal governmental services provided to Indians because of their status as Indians.

(86) “Institutional abuse”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means any case of abuse, as defined in subsection (1) of this section, that occurs in any public or private facility in the state that provides child care out of the home, supervision, or maintenance. “Institutional abuse” includes an act or omission that threatens the life, health, or welfare of a child or a person who is younger than twenty-one years of age who is under the continuing jurisdiction of the court pursuant to this title 19. “Institutional abuse” does not include abuse that occurs in any public, private, or parochial school system, including any preschool operated in connection with said system; except that, to the extent the school system provides extended day services, abuse that occurs while such services are provided is institutional abuse. As used in this subsection (86), “facility” means a residential child care facility, specialized group facility, foster care home, or any other facility licensed pursuant to part 9 of article 6 of title 26; family child care home licensed pursuant to part 3 of article 5 of title 26.5; noncertified kinship care providers that provide care for children with an open child welfare case who are in the legal custody of a county department of human or social services; or a facility or community placement, as described in section 19-2.5-1502, for a juvenile committed to the custody of the department of human services. “Facility” does not include any adult detention or correctional facility.

(87) “Intrafamilial abuse”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means any case of abuse, as defined in subsection (1) of this section, that occurs within a family context by a child’s parent, stepparent, guardian, legal custodian, or relative; by a spousal equivalent, as defined in subsection (130) of this section; or by any other person who resides in the child’s home or who is regularly in the child’s home for the purpose of exercising authority over or care for the child; except that “intrafamilial abuse” does not include abuse by a person who is regularly in the child’s home for the purpose of rendering care for the child if such person is paid for rendering care and is not related to the child.

(88) “Juvenile” means a child as defined in subsection (21) of this section.

(89) “Juvenile court” or “court” means the juvenile court of the city and county of Denver or the juvenile division of the district court outside of the city and county of Denver.

(90) “Juvenile delinquent” has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-2.5-102.

(91) “Kin” may be a relative of the child, a person ascribed by the family as having a family-like relationship with the child, or a person who has a prior significant relationship with the child. These relationships take into account cultural values and continuity of significant relationships with the child.

(92) “Kinship adoption”, as used in part 2 of article 5 of this title 19, means an adoption of a child by a relative of the child and such relative’s spouse, as required pursuant to section 19-5-202(3), who:

(a) Is either a grandparent, brother, sister, half-sibling, aunt, uncle, or first cousin; and

(b) Has had physical custody of the child for a period of one year or more and the child is not the subject of a pending dependency and neglect proceeding pursuant to article 3 of this title 19.

(93) “Law enforcement officer” means a peace officer, as described in section 16-2.5-101.

(94)(a) “Legal custody” means the right to the care, custody, and control of a child and the duty to provide food, clothing, shelter, ordinary medical care, education, and discipline for a child and, in an emergency, to authorize surgery or other extraordinary care. “Legal custody” may be taken from a parent only by court action.

(b) For purposes of determining the residence of a child as provided in section 22-1-102(2)(b), guardianship is in the person to whom legal custody has been granted by the court.

(95)(a) “Legal representative”, as used in sections 19-5-304 and 19-5-305, means the person designated by a court to act on behalf of any person described in section 19-5-304(1)(b)(I) or 19-5-305(2).

(b) For purposes of the term “legal representative”, as used in sections 19-5-304 and 19-5-305 and as defined in subsection (95)(a) of this section, “legal guardian” does not include a governmental entity of any foreign country from which a child has been adopted or any representative of such governmental entity.

(96) “Local law enforcement agency”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means a police department in incorporated municipalities or the office of the county sheriff.

(97) “Locating” means engaging in the process of searching for or seeking out.

(98) “Mental health professional” means a person licensed to practice medicine or psychology in this state or any person on the staff of a facility designated by the executive director of the department of human services for seventy-two-hour treatment and evaluation who is authorized by the facility to do mental or behavioral health hospital placement prescreenings, as defined in section 19-2.5-102, and who is under the supervision of a person licensed to practice medicine or psychology in this state.

(99) “Need to know”, as used in section 19-1-303, means agencies or individuals who need access to certain information for the care, treatment, supervision, or protection of a child.

(100)(a) “Neglect”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means acts that can reasonably be construed to fall under the definition of “child abuse or neglect” as defined in subsection (1) of this section.

(b) A child is not neglected when allowed to participate in independent activities that a reasonable and prudent parent, guardian, or legal custodian would consider safe given the child’s maturity, condition, and abilities, including but not limited to activities such as:

(I) Traveling to and from school, including walking, running, bicycling, or other similar mode of travel;

(II) Traveling to and from nearby commercial or recreational facilities;

(III) Engaging in outdoor play; and

(IV) Remaining in a home or other location that a reasonable and prudent parent, guardian, or legal custodian would consider safe for the child.

(101) “Newborn child” means a child who is less than seventy-two hours old.

(102) “Noncertified kinship care” means a child is being cared for by a relative or kin who has a significant relationship with the child in circumstances when there is a safety concern by a county department of human or social services and where the relative or kin has not met the foster care certification requirements for a kinship foster care home or has chosen not to pursue that certification process.

(103) “Nonidentifying information”, as used in part 4 of article 5 of this title 19, means information that does not disclose the name, address, place of employment, or any other material information that would lead to the identification of the birth parents and that includes but is not limited to the following:

(a) The physical description of the birth parents;

(b) The educational background of the birth parents;

(c) The occupation of the birth parents;

(d) Genetic information about the birth family;

(e) Medical information about the adult adoptee’s birth;

(f) Social information about the birth parents; and

(g) The placement history of the adoptee.

(104) “Nonpublic agency interstate and foreign adoption”, as used in section 19-5-205.5, means an interstate or foreign adoption that is handled by a private, licensed child placement agency.

(105)(a) “Parent” means either a natural parent of a child, as may be established pursuant to article 4 of this title 19, or a parent by adoption.

(b) “Parent”, as used in sections 19-1-114, 19-2.5-501, and 19-2.5-611, includes a natural parent having sole or joint custody, regardless of whether the parent is designated as the primary residential custodian, or a parent allocated parental responsibilities with respect to a child, or an adoptive parent. For the purposes of section 19-1-114, “parent” does not include a person whose parental rights have been terminated pursuant to the provisions of this title 19 or the parent of an emancipated minor.

(106) “Permanency hearing” means a hearing in which the permanency plan for a child in foster care is determined by the court.

(107) “Placement out of the home” means placement for twenty-four-hour residential care in any facility or center operated or licensed by the department of human services, but “placement out of the home” does not include any placement that is paid for totally by private money or any placement in a home for the purposes of adoption in accordance with section 19-5-205. “Placement out of the home” may be voluntary or court ordered. “Placement out of the home” includes independent living.

(108)(a) “Post-adoption record”, as used in part 3 of article 5 of this title 19, means information contained in the files subsequent to the completion of an adoption proceeding.

(b) The post-adoption record may contain information concerning but not limited to:

(I) The written inquiries from persons requesting access to records;

(II) The search efforts of the confidential intermediary;

(III) The response, if any, to those search efforts by the persons sought;

(IV) Any updated medical information gathered pursuant to part 3 of article 5 of this title 19; and

(V) Any personal identifying information concerning any persons subject to part 3 of article 5 of this title 19.

(109) Repealed by Laws 2022, Ch. 123 (H.B. 22-1295), § 34, eff. July 1, 2022.

(110) “Protective supervision” means a legal status created by court order under which the child is permitted to remain in the child’s home or is placed with a relative or other suitable person and supervision and assistance is provided by the court, department of human services, or other agency designated by the court.

(111) “Public adoption”, as used in part 2 of article 5 of this title 19, means an adoption involving a child who is in the legal custody and guardianship of the county department of human or social services that has the right to consent to adoption for that child.

(112) “Qualified individual” means a trained professional or licensed clinician, as defined in the federal “Family First Prevention Services Act”. “Qualified individual” must be approved to serve as a qualified individual according to the state plan. “Qualified individual” must not be an interested party or participant in the juvenile court proceeding and must be free of any personal or business relationship that would cause a conflict of interest in evaluating the child, juvenile, or youth and making recommendations concerning the child’s, juvenile’s, or youth’s placement and therapeutic needs according to the federal Title IV-E state plan or any waiver in accordance with 42 U.S.C. sec. 675a.

(113) “Qualified residential treatment program” means a licensed and accredited program that has a trauma-informed treatment model that is designed to address the needs, including clinical needs, as appropriate, of children and youth with serious emotional or behavioral disorders or disturbances in accordance with the federal “Family First Prevention Services Act”, 42 U.S.C. sec. 672(k)(4), and is able to implement the treatment identified for the child or youth by the assessment of the child required in section 19-1-115(4)(e)(I).

(114) “Reasonable efforts”, as used in articles 1, 2.5, 3, and 7 of this title 19, means the exercise of diligence and care throughout the state of Colorado for children and youth who are in foster care or out-of-home placement or are at imminent risk of foster care or out-of-home placement. In determining whether it is appropriate to provide, purchase, or develop the supportive and rehabilitative services that are required to prevent unnecessary placement of a child or youth outside of a child’s or youth’s home or to foster the safe reunification of a child or youth with a child’s or youth’s family, as described in section 19-3-208, or whether it is appropriate to find and finalize an alternative permanent plan for a child or youth, and in making reasonable efforts, the child’s or youth’s health and safety are the paramount concern. Services provided by a county or city and county in accordance with section 19-3-208 are deemed to meet the reasonable effort standard described in this subsection (114). Nothing in this subsection (114) is construed to conflict with federal law.

(115) Repealed by Laws 2022, Ch. 123 (H.B. 22-1295), § 34, eff. July 1, 2022.

(116) “Record”, as used in section 19-4-106 and section 19-4.5-108, means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

(117) “Register of actions” means those portions of the electronic case management system necessary to carry out a statutory purpose or the duties of a court appointment.

(118) “Repeat juvenile offender” is described in section 19-2.5-1125.

(119) “Residual parental rights and responsibilities” means those rights and responsibilities remaining with the parent after legal custody, guardianship of the person, or both, have been vested in another person, agency, or institution, including but not limited to the responsibility for support, the right to consent to adoption, the right to reasonable parenting time unless restricted by the court, and the right to determine the child’s religious affiliation.

(120) “Responsible person”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means a child’s parent, legal guardian, or custodian or any other person responsible for the child’s health and welfare.

(121) “Restorative justice” has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-2.5-102.

(122) “Reunited parties”, as used in section 19-5-305, means any two persons who qualify as and meet any specified requirements for parties under the list of individuals in section 19-5-304(1)(b)(I).

(123) “School”, as used in sections 19-1-303 and 19-1-304, means a public or parochial or other nonpublic school that provides a basic academic education in compliance with school attendance laws for students in grades one to twelve. “Basic academic education” has the same meaning as set forth in section 22-33-104(2)(b).

(124) “Sexual assault”, as used in sections 19-5-105, 19-5-105.5, and 19-5-105.7, means:

(a) “Sexual assault”, as defined in section 18-3-402;

(b) “Sexual assault on a child”, as defined in section 18-3-405;

(c) “Sexual assault on a child by one in a position of trust”, as defined in section 18-3-405.3;

(d) “Sexual assault on a client by a psychotherapist”, as defined in section 18-3-405.5; or

(e) “Unlawful sexual contact”, as defined in section 18-3-404.

(125) “Sexual conduct”, as used in section 19-3-304(2.5), means any of the following:

(a) Sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex or between humans and animals;

(b) Penetration of the vagina or rectum by any object;

(c) Masturbation; or

(d) Sexual sadomasochistic abuse.

(126) “Shelter” means the temporary care of a child in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of a court order for placement.

(127) “Sibling group”, as used in articles 3 and 5 of this title 19, means biological siblings.

(128) “Special county attorney”, as used in article 3 of this title 19, means an attorney hired by a county attorney or city attorney of a city and county or hired by a county department of human or social services with the concurrence of the county attorney or city attorney of a city and county to prosecute dependency and neglect cases.

(129) “Special respondent”, as used in article 3 of this title 19, means any person who is not a parent, guardian, or legal custodian and who is voluntarily or involuntarily joined in a dependency or neglect proceeding for the limited purposes of protective orders or inclusion in a treatment plan and for the grounds outlined in sections 19-3-502(6) and 19-3-503(4).

(130) “Spousal equivalent” means a person who is in a family-type living arrangement with a parent and who would be a stepparent if married to that parent.

(131) “Standardized behavioral or mental health disorder screening” means the behavioral or mental health disorder screening conducted using the juvenile standardized screening instruments and the procedures adopted pursuant to section 16-11.9-102.

(132) “State board”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means the state board of human services.

(133) “State department”, as used in section 19-3-211, part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, article 3.3 of this title 19, and part 3 of article 7 of this title 19, means the department of human services created in section 24-1-120.

(134) “State registrar” means the state registrar of vital statistics in the department of public health and environment.

(135) “Status offense” has the same meaning as is defined in federal law in 28 CFR 31.304, as amended.

(136) “Stepparent” means a person who is married to a parent of a child but who has not adopted the child.

(137) “Temporary holding facility” means an area used for the temporary holding of a child from the time that the child is taken into temporary custody until a detention hearing is held, if it has been determined that the child requires a staff-secure setting. Such an area must be separated by sight and sound from any area that houses adult offenders.

(138) “Temporary shelter” means the temporary placement of a child, as described in section 19-3-403.5, with kin, as defined in subsection (91) of this section; with an adult with a significant relationship with the child; or in a licensed and certified twenty-four-hour care facility.

(139) “Termination of the parent-child legal relationship”, as used in articles 3 and 5 of this title 19, means the permanent elimination by court order of all parental rights and duties, including residual parental rights and responsibilities, as provided in section 19-3-608.

(140) “Third-party abuse”, as used in part 3 of article 3 of this title 19, means a case in which a child is subjected to abuse, as defined in subsection (1) of this section, by any person who is not a parent; stepparent; guardian; legal custodian; spousal equivalent, as defined in subsection (130) of this section; or any other person not included in the definition of “intrafamilial abuse”, as defined in subsection (87) of this section.

(141) “Trauma-informed” refers to the services to be provided to or on behalf of a child or youth under an organizational structure and treatment framework that involves understanding, recognizing, and responding to the effects of all types of trauma in accordance with recognized principles of a trauma-informed approach and trauma-specific interventions to address trauma’s consequences and facilitate healing.

(142) Repealed by Laws 2022, Ch. 123 (H.B. 22-1295), § 34, eff. July 1, 2022.

(143) “Updated medical history statement” means a written narrative statement dated and signed by a birth parent about the medical history of the birth parent or other biological relatives of the adoptee that can be voluntarily submitted by the birth parent to the state registrar for future disclosure to the birth parent’s adult child who is an adult adoptee or an adult descendant of the adoptee or legal representative of such person in accordance with the provisions of section 19-5-305(1.5).

(144)(a) “Victim”, as used in this title 19 and except as provided in subsection (144)(b) of this section, has the same meaning as set forth in section 19-2.5-102.

(b) “Victim”, as used in section 19-5-105.5, means any natural person against whom a crime of sexual assault or a crime in which the underlying factual basis was sexual assault is perpetrated or is alleged to have been perpetrated.

(145) “Youth” means an individual who is less than twenty-one years of age.

§ 19-1-104. Jurisdiction

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided by law, the juvenile court has exclusive original jurisdiction in proceedings:

(a) Concerning any child committing a delinquent act, as defined in section 19-2.5-102;

(b) Concerning any child who is neglected or dependent, as set forth in section 19-3-102;

(c) To determine the legal custody of any child or to appoint a guardian of the person or legal custodian of any child who comes within the juvenile court’s jurisdiction under provisions of this section, and may also enter findings and orders as described in section 14-10-123(1.5) and section 15-14-204(2.5);

(d) To terminate the legal parent-child relationship;

(e) For the issuance of orders of support under article 6 of this title;

(f) To determine the parentage of a child and to make an order of support in connection therewith;

(g) For the adoption of a person of any age;

(h) For judicial consent to the marriage, employment, or enlistment of a child, when such consent is required by law;

(i) For the treatment or commitment pursuant to article 23 of title 17 and part 2 of article 10 of title 25.5 of a child who has a behavioral or mental health disorder or an intellectual and developmental disability and who comes within the court’s jurisdiction under other provisions of this section;

(j) Under the interstate compact on juveniles, part 7 of article 60 of title 24, C.R.S.;

(k) To make a determination concerning a petition filed pursuant to the “School Attendance Law of 1963”, article 33 of title 22, C.R.S., and to enforce any lawful order of court made thereunder;

(l) To make a determination concerning a petition for review of need for placement in accordance with the provisions of section 19-1-115(8);

(m) To decide the appeal of any child found to be in contempt of a municipal court located within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court, if confinement of the child is ordered by the municipal court;

(n) Concerning any youth who is voluntarily participating in the foster youth in transition program established in section 19-7-303.

(1.5) A juvenile court exercising jurisdiction pursuant to subsection (1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(c), (1)(f), or (1)(g) of this section may enter findings establishing eligibility for classification as a special immigrant juvenile under federal law.

(2) Except as otherwise provided by law, the juvenile court shall have jurisdiction in proceedings concerning any adult who abuses, ill-treats, neglects, or abandons a child who comes within the court’s jurisdiction under other provisions of this section.

(3)(a) Upon hearing after prior notice to the child’s parent, guardian, or legal custodian, the court may issue temporary orders providing for legal custody, protection, support, medical evaluation or medical treatment, surgical treatment, psychological evaluation or psychological treatment, or dental treatment as it deems in the best interest of any child concerning whom a petition has been filed prior to adjudication or disposition of his case.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), the court may, on the basis of a report that a child’s welfare may be endangered, and if the court believes that a medical evaluation or emergency medical or surgical treatment is reasonably necessary, issue ex parte emergency orders. Where the need for a medical evaluation or medical or surgical emergency orders arises and the court is not in regular session, the judge or magistrate may give oral or telephone authorization for the necessary medical evaluation or emergency medical, surgical, or hospital care, which authorization shall have the same force and effect as if written, the same to be followed by a written order to enter on the first regular court day thereafter. Such written order shall make specific findings of fact that such emergency existed. Prior to the entry of any emergency order, reasonable effort shall be made to notify the parents, guardian, or other legal custodian for the purpose of gaining consent for such care; except that, if such consent cannot be secured and the child’s welfare so requires, the court may authorize needed medical evaluation or emergency medical, surgical, or hospital care. Such ex parte emergency orders shall expire twenty-four hours after issuance; except that, at any time during such twenty-four-hour period, the parents, guardian, or other legal custodian may apply for a hearing to set aside the ex parte emergency order.

(4) Nothing in this section shall deprive the district court of jurisdiction to appoint a guardian for a child nor of jurisdiction to determine the legal custody of a child upon writ of habeas corpus or when the question of legal custody is incidental to the determination of a cause in the district court; except that:

(a) If a petition involving the same child is pending in juvenile court or if continuing jurisdiction has been previously acquired by the juvenile court, the district court shall certify the question of legal custody to the juvenile court; and

(b) The district court at any time may request the juvenile court to make recommendations pertaining to guardianship or legal custody.

(5) Where a custody award or an order allocating parental responsibilities with respect to a child has been made in a district court in a dissolution of marriage action or another proceeding and the jurisdiction of the district court in the case is continuing, the juvenile court may take jurisdiction in a case involving the same child if the child comes within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court. The juvenile court shall provide notice in compliance with the Colorado rules of civil procedure; except that service must be effected not less than seven business days prior to the hearing. The notice must be written in clear language stating that the hearing concerns the allocation of parental responsibilities. When creating or modifying an existing order, the juvenile court shall proceed as set forth in subsection (6) of this section for a dependency and neglect proceeding pursuant to article 3 of this title 19, or as set forth in subsection (8) of this section for a juvenile delinquency case pursuant to article 2.5 of this title 19.

(6)(a) When a district court in this state does not have continuing jurisdiction over a child custody proceeding concerning the child, or a juvenile court in this state maintains jurisdiction pursuant to subsection (5) of this section and the “Uniform Child-custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act”, article 13 of title 14, the juvenile court has jurisdiction to enter a permanent order allocating parental responsibilities and addressing parenting time and child support matters upon the petition of a party if:

(I) All parents, legal guardians, and legal custodians have an adjudication pursuant to section 19-3-505(7) or continued adjudication pursuant to section 19-3-505(5) entered by a court; or

(II) At least one parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian has an adjudication pursuant to section 19-3-505(7) or continued adjudication pursuant to section 19-3-505(5) and other parents, legal guardians, or legal custodians who do not have an adjudication or continued adjudication consent to jurisdiction.

(b) The parent or person other than a parent with whom the child resides the majority of the time pursuant to the juvenile court’s order shall file a certified copy of the order in the district court in the county where the child is permanently resident. Such order must be treated in the district court as any other decree issued in a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities.

(7) Upon motion of the city or county attorney, guardian ad litem, counsel for youth, or respondent parent counsel, the district or the juvenile court has jurisdiction to enter a civil protection order pursuant to article 14 of title 13 in actions brought pursuant to article 3 of this title 19 or part 3 of article 7 of this title 19. The court shall use the standardized forms developed by the judicial department pursuant to section 13-1-136 and shall follow the standards and procedures for the issuance of civil protection orders set forth in article 14 of title 13, including but not limited to personal service upon the restrained person. Once issued, the clerk of the issuing court shall enter the civil protection order into the computerized central registry of protection orders created pursuant to section 18-6-803.7. If the person who is the subject of the civil protection order has not been personally served pursuant to section 13-14-107(3), a peace officer responding to a call for assistance shall serve a copy of the civil protection order on the person who is subject to the order. If the civil protection order is made permanent pursuant to the provisions of section 13-14-106, the civil protection order remains in effect upon termination of the juvenile court action. The clerk of the court issuing the order shall file a certified copy of the permanent civil protection order into an existing case in the district court, if applicable, or with the county court in the county where the protected party resides. Civil protection orders issued by the district or the juvenile court pursuant to article 14 of title 13 have the same force and effect as protection orders issued pursuant to article 14 of title 13 by a court with concurrent jurisdiction.

(8)(a) Upon submission of a stipulated agreement of all parties, parents, guardians, and other legal custodians, if the juvenile court finds that it is in the best interests of the juvenile, the juvenile court may enter an order allocating parental responsibilities and addressing parenting time and child support matters when:

(I) The juvenile court has maintained jurisdiction in a case involving an adjudicated juvenile, a juvenile with a deferred adjudication, or a juvenile on a management plan developed pursuant to section 19-2.5-704(3);

(II) A child custody action, a dependency and neglect action, or an action for allocation of parental responsibilities concerning the same juvenile is not pending in a district court of this state, and the court complies, as applicable, with the requirements of the “Uniform Child-custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act”, as set forth in article 13 of title 14; and

(III) All parties, parents, guardians, and other legal custodians involved are in agreement, or after notice is given to all parents, guardians, and other legal custodians and a response or objection is not filed.

(b) The parent or person other than a parent with whom the juvenile resides the majority of the time pursuant to a juvenile court order shall file a certified copy of the order in the district court in the county where the juvenile is a permanent resident. The district court shall treat the order as with any other decree issued in a proceeding concerning the allocation of parental responsibilities.

Article 2. The Colorado Juvenile Justice System

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 7. Preadjudication

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 19-2-707. Mandatory protection order

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1)(a) There is hereby created a mandatory protection order against any juvenile charged with the commission of a delinquent act and the juvenile’s parents or legal guardian, which order shall remain in effect from the time that the juvenile is advised of such juvenile’s rights and informed of such order at such juvenile’s first appearance before the court until final disposition of the action or, in the case of an appeal, until disposition of the appeal. Such order shall restrain the juvenile and the juvenile’s parents or legal guardian from harassing, molesting, intimidating, retaliating against, or tampering with any witness to or victim of the delinquent act charged.

(b) Repealed by Laws 2000, Ch. 229, § 9, eff. July 1, 2000.

(c) The protection order issued pursuant to this section shall be on a standardized form prescribed by the judicial department, and a copy shall be provided to the protected parties.

(2) At the time of the juvenile’s first appearance before the court, the court shall inform the juvenile and the juvenile’s parents or legal guardian of the protection order effective pursuant to this section and shall also inform the juvenile and the juvenile’s parents or legal guardian that a violation of such order is punishable as contempt of court.

(3) Nothing in this section shall preclude the juvenile or the juvenile’s parents or legal guardian from applying to the court at any time for modification or dismissal of the protection order issued pursuant to this section or the district attorney from applying to the court at any time for additional provisions under the protection order, modification of the order, or dismissal of the order. The trial court shall retain jurisdiction to enforce, modify, or dismiss the protection order during the pendency of any appeal that may be brought.

(4) The duties of peace officers enforcing orders issued pursuant to this section shall be in accordance with section 18-6-803.5, C.R.S., and any rules adopted by the Colorado supreme court pursuant to said section.

Article 4. Uniform Parentage Act

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 19-4-105. Presumption of paternity

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A person is presumed to be the natural parent of a child if:

(a) The person and the parent who gave birth to the child are or have been married to each other or are in a civil union pursuant to article 15 of title 14, and the child is born during the marriage or civil union, within three hundred days after the marriage or civil union is terminated by death, annulment, declaration of invalidity of marriage or civil union, dissolution of marriage or civil union, or divorce, or after a decree of legal separation is entered by a court;

(b) Before the child’s birth, the person and the parent who gave birth to the child have attempted to marry each other by a marriage solemnized in apparent compliance with law or attempted to enter into a civil union in apparent compliance with law, although the attempted marriage or civil union is or could be declared invalid, and:

(I) If the attempted marriage or civil union could be declared invalid only by a court, the child is born during the attempted marriage or civil union or within three hundred days after its termination by death, annulment, declaration of invalidity of marriage or civil union, dissolution of marriage or civil union, or divorce; or

(II) If the attempted marriage or civil union is invalid without a court order, the child is born within three hundred days after the termination of cohabitation;

(c) After the child’s birth, the person and the parent who gave birth to the child have married or entered into a civil union, or attempted to marry each other by a marriage solemnized in apparent compliance with law or enter into a civil union in apparent compliance with law, although the attempted marriage or civil union is or could be declared invalid, and:

(I) The person has asserted parentage of the child in writing filed with the court or registrar of vital statistics, if such acknowledgment has not previously become a legal finding pursuant to subsection (2)(a.5) of this section;

(II) With the person’s consent, the person is named as the child’s parent on the child’s birth certificate; or

(III) The person is obligated to support the child under a written voluntary promise or by court order or by an administrative order issued pursuant to section 26-13.5-110;

(d) While the child is under the age of majority, the person receives the child into the person’s home and openly holds out the child as the person’s natural child;

(e) Deleted by Laws 2022, Ch. 210 (H.B. 22-1153), § 4, eff. Aug. 10, 2022.

(f) The genetic tests or other tests of inherited characteristics have been administered pursuant to section 13-25-126, and the results show that the alleged genetic parent is not excluded as the probable genetic parent and that the probability of the person’s genetic parentage is ninety-seven percent or higher. This subsection (3)(f) does not apply to a donor as defined in section 19-1-103.

(2)(a) A presumption of parentage pursuant to subsection (1) of this section may be rebutted in an appropriate action only by clear and convincing evidence. If two or more conflicting presumptions arise, the presumption that, on the facts, is founded on the weightier considerations of policy and logic controls. The presumption is rebutted by a court decree establishing parentage of the child by another person other than the parent who gave birth. In determining which of two or more conflicting presumptions controls, based upon the weightier considerations of policy and logic, the judge or magistrate shall consider all pertinent factors, including but not limited to the following:

(I) The length of time between the proceeding to determine parentage and the time that the presumed parent was placed on notice that the presumed parent might not be the genetic parent, unless the child was conceived through an assisted reproductive procedure;

(II) The length of time during which the presumed parent has assumed the role of the child’s parent;

(III) The facts surrounding the presumed parent’s discovery of the possibility that the presumed parent was not a genetic parent, unless the child was conceived through an assisted reproductive procedure;

(IV) The nature of the existing parent-child relationship;

(V) The child’s age;

(VI) The child’s relationship to any presumed parent or parents;

(VII) The extent to which the passage of time reduces the chances of establishing another person’s parentage and a child support obligation in favor of the child; and

(VIII) Any other factors that may affect the equities arising from the disruption of the parent-child relationship between the child and the presumed parent or parents or the chance of other harm to the child.

(a.5)(I) A person and the parent who gave birth to the child may sign a voluntary acknowledgment of parentage to establish the parentage of the child. A voluntary acknowledgment of parentage may be signed by a parent who gave birth to the child and either:

(A) Another person who is or believes themselves to be a genetic parent; or

(B) Another person who is an intended parent of a child conceived through an assisted reproductive procedure.

(II) A married person or person in a civil union who gives birth to a child may only sign a voluntary acknowledgment of parentage with a person who is not the married person’s spouse or civil union partner if the spouse or civil union partner signs a denial of parentage.

(b) A duly executed voluntary acknowledgment of parentage takes effect upon the filing of the document with the state registrar of vital statistics and may be rescinded within the earlier of:

(I) Sixty days after execution of such acknowledgment; or

(II) On the date of any administrative or judicial proceeding pursuant to this article or any administrative or judicial proceeding concerning the support of a child to which the signatory is a party.

(c) An acknowledgment of parentage may be challenged in court only on the basis of fraud, duress, or mistake of material fact, with the burden of proof upon the challenger. Any legal responsibilities resulting from signing an acknowledgment of parentage, including child support obligations, continue during any challenge to the finding of parentage, except for good cause shown.

(d) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (2)(b) and (2)(c) of this section, a voluntary acknowledgment of parentage that complies with this section and section 25-2-112, and is filed with the state registrar of vital statistics, is equivalent to an adjudication of parentage of the child and confers on the acknowledged parent all rights and duties of a parent. The court shall give full faith and credit to a voluntary acknowledgment of parentage that is effective in another state, including a federally recognized Indian tribe, if the acknowledgment was in a signed record and otherwise complies with the laws of the other state or federally recognized Indian tribe.

Article 5. Relinquishment and Adoption

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. Relinquishment

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 19-5-105.5. Termination of parent-child legal relationship upon a finding that the child was conceived as a result of sexual assault--legislative declaration--definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) The general assembly hereby declares that the purpose of this statute is to protect the victim of a sexual assault and to protect the child conceived as a result of that sexual assault by creating a process to seek termination of the parental rights of the perpetrator of the sexual assault and by issuing protective orders preventing future contact between the parties. The general assembly further declares that this section creates civil remedies and is not created to punish the perpetrator but rather to protect the interests of the child and the victim of a sexual assault.

(2) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Convicted” or “conviction” has the same meaning as defined in section 19-1-103.

(a.5) “Disability” means:

(I) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities; or

(II) A record of a physical or mental impairment that substantially limited a major life activity.

(a.7) “Petitioner” means a victim of sexual assault who files a petition for termination of the parent-child legal relationship of the other parent as provided in this section.

(a.8) “Respondent” means a person against whom a petition for termination of the parent-child legal relationship is filed as provided in this section.

(b) “Sexual assault” has the same meaning as defined in section 19-1-103.

(c) “Victim” has the same meaning as defined in section 19-1-103.

(3) If a child was conceived as a result of an act that led to the parent’s conviction for sexual assault or for a conviction in which the underlying factual basis was sexual assault, the victim of the sexual assault or crime may file a petition in the juvenile court to prevent future contact with the parent who committed the sexual assault and to terminate the parent-child legal relationship of the parent who committed the sexual assault or crime.

(4) The verified petition filed under this section must allege that:

(a) The respondent was convicted on or after July 1, 2013, of an act of sexual assault against the petitioner or convicted of a crime in which the underlying factual basis was sexual assault against the petitioner;

(b) A child was conceived as a result of the act of sexual assault or crime described under paragraph (a) of this subsection (4); and

(c) Termination of the parent-child legal relationship of the respondent with the child is in the best interests of the child.

(4.5) After a petition has been filed pursuant to this section, the court shall issue a summons that recites briefly the substance of the petition and contains a statement that the purpose of the proceeding is whether to terminate the parent-child legal relationship of the respondent. The petitioner shall have the respondent personally served with a copy of the summons or notified through notice by publication consistent with the statutory provisions for notice in section 19-3-503 and pursuant to the Colorado rules of civil procedure, unless the respondent appears voluntarily or waives service. Upon request, the court shall protect the whereabouts of the petitioner and must identify the petitioner and the child in the summons by initials.

(5)(a) After a petition has been filed pursuant to this section, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem, who must be an attorney, to represent the child’s best interests in the proceeding; except that, if at any time the court determines that a guardian ad litem for the child is no longer necessary, the court may discharge the guardian ad litem. The petitioner and the respondent have the right to be represented by legal counsel in proceedings under this section. The petitioner and the respondent each have the right to seek the appointment of legal counsel if he or she is unable financially to secure legal counsel on his or her own. The court shall waive filing fees for an indigent petitioner.

(b) The court will work to ensure that a petitioner or a respondent who has a disability has equal access to participate in the proceeding. If the petitioner or respondent has a disability, he or she has the right to request reasonable accommodations in order to participate in the proceeding; except that the disability of the petitioner, the respondent, or the child must not be the cause for the unnecessary delay of the process. The court shall presume that a petitioner or a respondent with a disability is legally competent and able to understand and participate in the proceeding unless the petitioner or respondent is determined to be an incapacitated person, as defined in section 15-14-102(5), C.R.S.

(6) In any proceeding held under this section, the court may grant protective measures in the courtroom as requested by the petitioner, including but not limited to allowing the petitioner to not appear in the presence of the respondent, so long as these measures do not violate due process. The petitioner’s and the child’s whereabouts must be kept confidential.

(6.5) A respondent may admit parentage or may request genetic testing or other tests of inherited characteristics to confirm paternity. The test results must be admitted into evidence as provided in section 13-25-126, C.R.S. The final costs for genetic tests or other tests of inherited characteristics must be assessed against the nonprevailing party on the parentage issue.

(6.6) If the parties consent, the court has continuing jurisdiction and authority in the same proceeding to enter an order of relinquishment pursuant to part 1 of article 5 of this title without a finding or admission of the elements required by subsection (7) of this section. As part of the agreement, the respondent must agree in writing to waive the right to access the original birth certificate or other relinquishment documents as permitted by law under article 5 of this title or pursuant to the rules of the state department of human services. The waiver must be filed with the court that issues the order of relinquishment and with the state registrar of vital statistics.

(6.7) The court shall hear a petition to terminate the parent-child legal relationship no more than one hundred twenty days after service of the petition or from the first appearance date, whichever is later, unless both parties consent to an extension or the court finds good cause to extend the hearing beyond one hundred twenty days.

(7) The court shall terminate the parent-child legal relationship of the respondent if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence, and states the reasons for its decision, that:

(a) The respondent was convicted on or after July 1, 2013, of an act of sexual assault against the petitioner or was convicted of a crime in which the underlying factual basis was sexual assault against the petitioner;

(b) A child was conceived as a result of that act of sexual assault or crime as evidenced by the respondent admitting parentage or genetic testing establishing the paternity; and

(c) Termination of the parent-child legal relationship is in the best interests of the child. There is a rebuttable presumption that terminating the parental rights of the parent who committed the act of sexual assault or crime is in the best interests of the child. The court shall not presume that having only one remaining parent is contrary to the child’s best interests.

(7.3) If the child is an Indian child, the court shall ensure compliance with the federal “Indian Child Welfare Act”, 25 U.S.C. sec. 1901 et seq., and the provisions of section 19-1-126.

(7.5) If the court denies the petition to terminate the parent-child legal relationship, then the court shall articulate its reasons for the denial of the petition. If the court denies the petition, the court has continuing jurisdiction and authority to enter an order in the same proceeding allocating parental responsibilities between the parties, including but not limited to an order to not allocate parental responsibilities to the respondent. In issuing any order allocating parental responsibilities, including the duty of support, guardianship, and parenting time privileges with the child or any other matter, the court shall determine whether the order is in the best interests of the child based on a preponderance of the evidence.

(8)(a) A respondent whose parental rights are terminated in accordance with this section has:

(I) No right to allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time and decision-making responsibilities for the child;

(II) No right of inheritance from the child; and

(III) No right to notification of, or standing to object to, the adoption of the child.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 19-3-608, termination of parental rights under subsection (7) of this section does not relieve the respondent of any obligation to pay child support or birth-related costs unless waived by the petitioner. In cases in which child support obligations are not waived, the court, as informed by the wishes of the petitioner, shall determine if entering an order to pay child support is in the best interests of the child. If the court orders the respondent to pay child support, the court shall order the payments to be made through the child support registry to avoid the need for any contact between the parties and order that the payments be treated as a nondisclosure of information case. If the petitioner’s parent-child legal relationship to the child is terminated after the entry of a child support order against the respondent, the court shall modify the child support order accordingly.

(9) A respondent whose parent-child legal relationship has been terminated in accordance with this section has no right to make medical treatment decisions or any other decisions on behalf of the child.

(9.5) The court may order a respondent whose parent-child legal relationship has been terminated to provide medical and family information to be shared with the child, as appropriate, and with the petitioner. For terminations entered under this section and section 19-5-105.7, the state court administrator shall establish a uniform process to determine how the information is collected, who can access it, when it can be accessed, and how it is stored. The court may order that a respondent’s failure to comply with the request for information in a timely manner constitutes contempt of court.

(10) The juvenile court has original concurrent jurisdiction to issue a temporary or permanent civil protection order pursuant to section 13-14-104.5 or 13-14-106, C.R.S.

(11) Termination of the parent-child legal relationship pursuant to subsection (7) of this section is an independent basis for termination of parental rights, and the court need not make any of the considerations or findings described in section 19-3-604, 19-5-103.5, or 19-5-105.(12) Nothing in this section prohibits the termination of parental rights by the court using the criteria described in section 19-3-604, 19-5-103.5, or 19-5-105.

Title 26. Human Services Code

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Article 3.1 Protective Services for Adults at Risk of Mistreatment or Self-Neglect

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 1. Protective Services for At-Risk Adults

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 26-3.1-101. Definitions

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Currentness

As used in this article 3.1, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Abuse” means any of the following acts or omissions committed against an at-risk adult:

(a) The nonaccidental infliction of physical pain or injury, as demonstrated by, but not limited to, substantial or multiple skin bruising, bleeding, malnutrition, dehydration, burns, bone fractures, poisoning, subdural hematoma, soft tissue swelling, or suffocation;

(b) Confinement or restraint that is unreasonable under generally accepted caretaking standards; or

(c) Unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102(9).

(1.5) “At-risk adult” means an individual eighteen years of age or older who is susceptible to mistreatment or self-neglect because the individual is unable to perform or obtain services necessary for his or her health, safety, or welfare, or lacks sufficient understanding or capacity to make or communicate responsible decisions concerning his or her person or affairs.

(1.7) “CAPS” means the Colorado adult protective services data system that includes records of reports of mistreatment of at-risk adults.

(1.8) “CAPS check” means a check of the Colorado adult protective services data system pursuant to section 26-3.1-111.

(2) “Caretaker” means a person who:

(a) Is responsible for the care of an at-risk adult as a result of a legal relationship; or

(b) Has assumed responsibility for the care of an at-risk adult; or

(c) Is paid to provide care, services, or oversight of services to an at-risk adult.

(2.3)(a) “Caretaker neglect” means neglect that occurs when adequate food, clothing, shelter, psychological care, physical care, medical care, habilitation, supervision, or other treatment necessary for the health or safety of the at-risk adult is not secured for an at-risk adult or is not provided by a caretaker in a timely manner and with the degree of care that a reasonable person in the same situation would exercise, or a caretaker knowingly uses harassment, undue influence, or intimidation to create a hostile or fearful environment for an at-risk adult.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (2.3), the withholding, withdrawing, or refusing of any medication, any medical procedure or device, or any treatment, including but not limited to resuscitation, cardiac pacing, mechanical ventilation, dialysis, artificial nutrition and hydration, any medication or medical procedure or device, in accordance with any valid medical directive or order, or as described in a palliative plan of care, is not deemed caretaker neglect.

(c) As used in this subsection (2.3), “medical directive or order” includes a medical durable power of attorney, a declaration as to medical treatment executed pursuant to section 15-18-104, C.R.S., a medical order for scope of treatment form executed pursuant to article 18.7 of title 15, C.R.S., and a CPR directive executed pursuant to article 18.6 of title 15, C.R.S.

(2.5) “Clergy member” means a priest; rabbi; duly ordained, commissioned, or licensed minister of a church; member of a religious order; or recognized leader of any religious body.

(3) “County department” means a county or district department of human or social services.

(3.5) “Direct care” means services and supports, including case management services, protective services, physical care, mental health services, or any other service necessary for the at-risk adult’s health, safety, or welfare.

(4) “Exploitation” means an act or omission that:

(a) Uses deception, harassment, intimidation, or undue influence to permanently or temporarily deprive an at-risk adult of the use, benefit, or possession of any thing of value; or

(b) Employs the services of a third party for the profit or advantage of the person or another person to the detriment of the at-risk adult; or

(c) Forces, compels, coerces, or entices an at-risk adult to perform services for the profit or advantage of the person or another person against the will of the at-risk adult; or

(d) Misuses the property of an at-risk adult in a manner that adversely affects the at-risk adult’s ability to receive health care or health care benefits or to pay bills for basic needs or obligations.

(5) “Financial institution” means a state or federal bank, savings bank, savings and loan association or company, building and loan association, trust company, or credit union.

(5.5) “Harmful act” means an act committed against an at-risk adult by a person with a relationship to the at-risk adult when such act is not defined as abuse, caretaker neglect, or exploitation but causes harm to the health, safety, or welfare of an at-risk adult.

(6) “Least restrictive intervention” means acquiring or providing services, including protective services, for the shortest duration and to the minimum extent necessary to remedy or prevent situations of actual mistreatment or self-neglect.

(7) “Mistreatment” means:

(a) Abuse;

(b) Caretaker neglect;

(c) Exploitation; or

(d) A harmful act.

(e) Repealed by Laws 2020, Ch. 265 (H.B. 20-1302), § 1, eff. Sept. 14, 2020.

(8) Repealed by Laws 2020, Ch. 265 (H.B. 20-1302), § 1, eff. Sept. 14, 2020.

(9) “Protective services” means services provided by the state or political subdivisions or agencies thereof in order to prevent the mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult. Such services include, but are not limited to: Providing casework services and arranging for, coordinating, delivering, where appropriate, and monitoring services, including medical care for physical or mental health needs; protection from mistreatment and self-neglect; assistance with application for public benefits; referral to community service providers; and initiation of probate proceedings.

(10) “Self-neglect” means an act or failure to act whereby an at-risk adult substantially endangers his or her health, safety, welfare, or life by not seeking or obtaining services necessary to meet his or her essential human needs. Choice of lifestyle or living arrangements shall not, by itself, be evidence of self-neglect. Refusal of medical treatment, medications, devices, or procedures by an adult or on behalf of an adult by a duly authorized surrogate medical decision maker or in accordance with a valid medical directive or order, or as described in a palliative plan of care, shall not be deemed self-neglect. Refusal of food and water in the context of a life-limiting illness shall not, by itself, be evidence of self-neglect. As used in this subsection (10), “medical directive or order” includes, but is not limited to, a medical durable power of attorney, a declaration as to medical treatment executed pursuant to section 15-18-104, C.R.S., a medical orders for scope of treatment form executed pursuant to article 18.7 of title 15, C.R.S., and a CPR directive executed pursuant to article 18.6 of title 15, C.R.S.

(11) “Undue influence” means the use of influence to take advantage of an at-risk adult’s vulnerable state of mind, neediness, pain, or emotional distress.

Title 38. Property -- Real and Personal

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Article 12. Tenants and Landlords

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

Part 4. Victims of Domestic Violence

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

§ 38-12-402. Protection for victims of unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, or domestic violence

Actualizada: 
13 de octubre de 2023

(1) A landlord shall not include in a residential rental agreement or lease agreement for housing a provision authorizing the landlord to terminate the agreement or to impose a penalty on a residential tenant for calls made by the residential tenant for peace officer assistance or other emergency assistance in response to a situation involving domestic violence, domestic abuse, unlawful sexual behavior, or stalking. A residential tenant may not waive the residential tenant’s right to call for police or other emergency assistance.
(2)(a) If a tenant to a residential rental agreement or lease agreement notifies the landlord in writing that he or she is the victim of unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, domestic violence, or domestic abuse and provides to the landlord evidence of unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, domestic violence, or domestic abuse victimization as described in subsection (2)(a.5) of this section, and the residential tenant seeks to vacate the premises due to fear of imminent danger for self or children because of the unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, domestic violence, or domestic abuse, then the residential tenant may terminate the residential rental agreement or lease agreement and vacate the premises without further obligation except as otherwise provided in subsection (2)(b) of this section.
(a.5) For the purposes of subsection (2)(a) of this section:
(I) To provide evidence that he or she is a victim of unlawful sexual behavior, domestic violence, or domestic abuse, a tenant may provide to his or her landlord a police report written within the prior sixty days, a valid protection order, or a written statement from a medical professional or application assistant who has examined or consulted with the victim, which written statement confirms such fact; and
(II) To provide evidence that he or she is a victim of stalking, a tenant may provide to his or her landlord a police report written within the prior sixty days, a valid protection order, or a written statement from an application assistant who has consulted with the victim, which written statement confirms such fact.
(b) If a tenant to a residential rental agreement or lease agreement terminates the residential rental agreement or lease agreement and vacates the premises pursuant to subsection (2)(a) of this section, then the tenant is responsible for one month’s rent following vacation of the premises, which amount is due and payable to the landlord within ninety days after the tenant vacates the premises. The landlord is not obligated to refund the security deposit to the tenant until the tenant has paid the one month’s rent pursuant to this section. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 38-12-103, the landlord and the tenant to a residential rental agreement or lease agreement may use any amounts owed to the other to offset costs for the one month’s rent or the security deposit. The provisions of this subsection (2)(b) apply only if the landlord has experienced and documented damages equal to at least one month’s rent as a result of the tenant’s early termination of the agreement.
(3) Nothing in this part 4 authorizes the termination of tenancy and eviction of a residential tenant solely because the residential tenant is the victim of unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, domestic violence, or domestic abuse.
(4)(a) If a tenant to a residential rental agreement or lease agreement notifies the landlord that the tenant is a victim of unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, domestic violence, or domestic abuse, the landlord shall not disclose such fact to any person except with the consent of the victim or as the landlord may be required to do so by law.
(b) If a tenant to a residential rental agreement or lease agreement terminates his or her lease pursuant to this section because he or she is a victim of unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, domestic violence, or domestic abuse, and the tenant provides the landlord with a new address, the landlord shall not disclose such address to any person except with the consent of the victim or as the landlord may be required to do so by law.