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Statutes: Kentucky

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Statutes: Kentucky

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Current through the 2023 Regular Session and the Nov. 8, 2022 election. Please check to make sure there have been no changes since this time. You will find these and additional statutes online at the Kentucky Legislature website.

Title III. Executive Branch

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 16. State Police

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Disposition of Property

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

16.220 Public auction of confiscated firearms; disposition of proceeds; Department of Kentucky State Police treatment of transferred firearms

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Subject to the duty to return confiscated firearms to innocent owners pursuant to KRS 500.090, all firearms confiscated by the Department of Kentucky State Police and not retained for official use pursuant to KRS 500.090 shall be sold at public auction to federally licensed firearms dealers holding a license appropriate for the type of firearm sold. Any provision of KRS Chapter 45 or 45A relating to disposition of property to the contrary notwithstanding, the Department of Kentucky State Police shall:

(a) Conduct any auction specified by this section;

(b) Retain for departmental use twenty percent (20%) of the gross proceeds from any auction specified by this section; and

(c) Transfer remaining proceeds of the sale to the account of the Kentucky Office of Homeland Security for use as provided in subsection (4) of this section.

(2) Prior to the sale of any firearm, the Department of Kentucky State Police shall make an attempt to determine if the firearm to be sold has been stolen or otherwise unlawfully obtained from an innocent owner and return the firearm to its lawful innocent owner, unless that person is ineligible to purchase a firearm under federal law.

(3) The Department of Kentucky State Police shall receive firearms and ammunition confiscated by or abandoned to every law enforcement agency in Kentucky. The department shall dispose of the firearms received in the manner specified in subsection (1) of this section. However, firearms which are not retained for official use, returned to an innocent lawful owner, or transferred to another government agency or public museum shall be sold as provided in subsections (1) and (3) of this section.

(4) The proceeds of firearms sales shall be utilized by the Kentucky Office of Homeland Security to provide grants to city, county, charter county, unified local government, urban-county government, and consolidated local government police departments; university safety and security departments organized pursuant to KRS 164.950; school districts that employ special law enforcement officers as defined in KRS 61.900; and sheriff’s departments for the purchase of:

(a) Body armor for sworn peace officers of those departments and service animals, as defined in KRS 525.010, of those departments;

(b) Firearms or ammunition;

(c) Electronic control devices, electronic control weapons, or electro-muscular disruption technology; and

(d) Body-worn cameras.

In awarding grants under this section, the Kentucky Office of Homeland Security shall give first priority to providing and replacing body armor and second priority to providing firearms and ammunition, with residual funds available for the purchase of body-worn cameras, electronic control devices, electronic control weapons, or electro-muscular disruption technology. Body armor purchased by the department receiving grant funds shall meet or exceed the standards issued by the National Institute of Justice for body armor. No police or sheriff’s department shall apply for a grant to replace existing body armor unless that body armor has been in actual use for a period of five (5) years or longer. Any department applying for grant funds for body-worn cameras shall develop a policy for their use and shall submit that policy with its application for the grant funds to the Office of Homeland Security as part of the application process.

(5) The Department of Kentucky State Police may transfer a machine gun, short-barreled shotgun, short-barreled rifle, silencer, pistol with a shoulder stock, any other weapon, or destructive device as defined by the National Firearms Act which is subject to registration under the National Firearms Act and is not properly registered in the national firearms transfer records for those types of weapons, to the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms of the United States Department of Justice, after a reasonable attempt has been made to transfer the firearm to an eligible state or local law enforcement agency or to an eligible museum and no eligible recipient will take the firearm or weapon. National Firearms Act firearms and weapons which are properly registered and not returned to an innocent lawful owner or retained for official use as provided in this section shall be sold to properly licensed dealers under subsection (3) of this section.

Title XIX. Public Safety and Morals

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 237. Firearms and Destructive Devices

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

237.100 Notification of purchase of firearm or attempt to purchase firearm; immunity

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Upon receipt of notice that a person barred from purchasing a firearm under 18 U.S.C. sec. 922(g)(8) has purchased or attempted to purchase a firearm, the Justice and Public Safety Cabinet shall make a reasonable effort to provide notice to the petitioner who obtained the domestic violence order issued under KRS 403.740 that the respondent to the order has attempted to purchase a firearm. The Justice and Public Safety Cabinet may contract with a private entity in order to provide notification.

(2) The notification shall be limited to a petitioner who has:

(a) Received a domestic violence protective order issued or reissued under KRS 403.740 on or after July 15, 2002;

(b) Received a domestic violence protective order that involves a respondent who is prohibited by 18 U.S.C. sec. 922(g)(8) from possessing a firearm; and

(c) Provided the Justice and Public Safety Cabinet or the entity with a request for notification.

(3) Any person carrying out responsibilities under this section shall be immune from civil liability for good faith conduct in carrying out those responsibilities. Nothing in this subsection shall limit liability for negligence.

Carrying Concealed Deadly Weapon

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

237.110 License to carry concealed deadly weapon; criteria; training; application; issuance and denial of licenses; automated listing of license holders; suspension or revocation; renewal; prohibitions; reciprocity; reports; requirements for training classes

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Currentness

(1) The Department of Kentucky State Police is authorized to issue and renew licenses to carry concealed firearms or other deadly weapons, or a combination thereof, to persons qualified as provided in this section.

(2) An original or renewal license issued pursuant to this section shall:

(a) Be valid throughout the Commonwealth and, except as provided in this section or other specific section of the Kentucky Revised Statutes or federal law, permit the holder of the license to carry firearms, ammunition, or other deadly weapons, or a combination thereof, at any location in the Commonwealth;

(b) Unless revoked or suspended as provided by law, be valid for a period of five (5) years from the date of issuance;

(c) Authorize the holder of the license to carry a concealed firearm or other deadly weapon, or a combination thereof, on or about his or her person; and

(d) Authorize the holder of the license to carry ammunition for a firearm on or about his or her person.

(3) Prior to the issuance of an original or renewal license to carry a concealed deadly weapon, the Department of Kentucky State Police, upon receipt of a completed application, applicable fees, and any documentation required by this section or administrative regulation promulgated by the Department of Kentucky State Police, shall conduct a background check to ascertain whether the applicant is eligible under 18 U.S.C. sec. 922(g) and (n), any other applicable federal law, and state law to purchase, receive, or possess a firearm or ammunition, or both. The background check shall include:

(a) A state records check covering the items specified in this subsection, together with any other requirements of this section;

(b) A federal records check, which shall include a National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS) check;

(c) A federal Immigration Alien Query if the person is an alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States by the United States government or an agency thereof; and

(d) In addition to the Immigration Alien Query, if the applicant has not been lawfully admitted to the United States under permanent resident status, the Department of Kentucky State Police shall, if a doubt exists relating to an alien’s eligibility to purchase a firearm, consult with the United States Department of Homeland Security, United States Department of Justice, United States Department of State, or other federal agency to confirm whether the alien is eligible to purchase a firearm in the United States, bring a firearm into the United States, or possess a firearm in the United States under federal law.

(4) The Department of Kentucky State Police shall issue an original or renewal license if the applicant:

(a) Is not prohibited from the purchase, receipt, or possession of firearms, ammunition, or both pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(g), 18 U.S.C. 922(n), or applicable federal or state law;

(b) 1. Is a citizen of the United States who is a resident of this Commonwealth;

2. Is a citizen of the United States who is a member of the Armed Forces of the United States who is on active duty, who is at the time of application assigned to a military posting in Kentucky;

3. Is lawfully admitted to the United States by the United States government or an agency thereof, is permitted by federal law to purchase a firearm, and is a resident of this Commonwealth; or

4. Is lawfully admitted to the United States by the United States government or an agency thereof, is permitted by federal law to purchase a firearm, is, at the time of the application, assigned to a military posting in Kentucky, and has been assigned to a posting in the Commonwealth;

(c) Is twenty-one (21) years of age or older;

(d) Has not been committed to a state or federal facility for the abuse of a controlled substance or been convicted of a misdemeanor violation of KRS Chapter 218A or similar laws of any other state relating to controlled substances, within a three (3) year period immediately preceding the date on which the application is submitted;

(e) Does not chronically and habitually use alcoholic beverages as evidenced by the applicant having two (2) or more convictions for violating KRS 189A.010within the three (3) years immediately preceding the date on which the application is submitted, or having been committed as an alcoholic pursuant to KRS Chapter 222 or similar laws of another state within the three (3) year period immediately preceding the date on which the application is submitted;

(f) Does not owe a child support arrearage which equals or exceeds the cumulative amount which would be owed after one (1) year of nonpayment, if the Department of Kentucky State Police has been notified of the arrearage by the Cabinet for Health and Family Services;

(g) Has complied with any subpoena or warrant relating to child support or paternity proceedings. If the Department of Kentucky State Police has not been notified by the Cabinet for Health and Family Services that the applicant has failed to meet this requirement, the Department of Kentucky State Police shall assume that paternity and child support proceedings are not an issue;

(h) Has not been convicted of a violation of KRS 508.030 or 508.080 within the three (3) years immediately preceding the date on which the application is submitted. The commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police may waive this requirement upon good cause shown and a determination that the applicant is not a danger and that a waiver would not violate federal law;

(i) Demonstrates competence with a firearm by successful completion of a firearms safety or training course that is conducted by a firearms instructor who is certified by a national organization with membership open to residents of any state or territory of the United States, which was created to promote firearms education, safety, and the profession of firearms use and training, and to foster professional behavior in its members. The organization shall require members to adhere to its own code of ethics and conduct a program which certifies firearms instructors and includes the use of written tests, in person instruction, and a component of live-fire training. These national organizations shall include but are not limited to the National Rifle Association, the United States Concealed Carry Association, and the National Shooting Sports Foundation. The training requirement may also be fulfilled through any firearms safety course offered or approved by the Department of Criminal Justice Training. The firearms safety course offered or approved by the Department of Criminal Justice Training shall:

1. Be not more than eight (8) hours in length;

2. Include instruction on handguns, the safe use of handguns, the care and cleaning of handguns, and handgun marksmanship principles;

3. Include actual range firing of a handgun in a safe manner, and the firing of not more than twenty (20) rounds at a full-size silhouette target, during which firing, not less than eleven (11) rounds must hit the silhouette portion of the target; and

4. Include information on and a copy of laws relating to possession and carrying of firearms, as set forth in KRS Chapters 237 and 527, and the laws relating to the use of force, as set forth in KRS Chapter 503; and

(j) Demonstrates knowledge of the law regarding the justifiable use of force by including with the application a copy of the concealed carry deadly weapons legal handout made available by the Department of Criminal Justice Training and a signed statement that indicates that applicant has read and understands the handout.

(5) (a) A legible photocopy or electronic copy of a certificate of completion issued by a firearms instructor certified by a national organization or the Department of Criminal Justice Training shall constitute evidence of qualification under subsection (4)(i) of this section.

(b) Persons qualifying under subsection (6)(d) of this section may submit with their application:

1. At least one (1) of the following paper or electronic forms or their successor forms showing evidence of handgun training or handgun qualifications:

a. Department of Defense Form DD 2586;

b. Department of Defense Form DD 214;

c. Coast Guard Form CG 3029;

d. Department of the Army Form DA 88-R;

e. Department of the Army Form DA 5704-R;

f. Department of the Navy Form OPNAV 3591-1; or

g. Department of the Air Force Form AF 522; or

2. a. Documentary evidence of an honorable discharge; and

b. A notarized affidavit on a form provided by the Department of Kentucky State Police, signed under penalty of perjury, stating the person has met the training requirements of subsection (6)(d) of this section.

(6) (a) Peace officers who are currently certified as peace officers by the Kentucky Law Enforcement Council pursuant to KRS 15.380 to 15.404 and peace officers who are retired and are members of the Kentucky Employees Retirement System, State Police Retirement System, or County Employees Retirement System or other retirement system operated by or for a city, county, or urban-county in Kentucky shall be deemed to have met the training requirement.

(b) Current and retired peace officers of the following federal agencies shall be deemed to have met the training requirement:

1. Any peace officer employed by a federal agency specified in KRS 61.365;

2. Any peace officer employed by a federal civilian law enforcement agency not specified above who has successfully completed the basic law enforcement training course required by that agency;

3. Any military peace officer of the United States Army, Navy, Marine Corps, or Air Force, or a reserve component thereof, or of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard who has successfully completed the military law enforcement training course required by that branch of the military;

4. Any member of the United States Coast Guard serving in a peace officer role who has successfully completed the law enforcement training course specified by the United States Coast Guard.

(c) Corrections officers who are currently employed by a consolidated local government, an urban-county government, or the Department of Corrections who have successfully completed a basic firearms training course required for their employment, and corrections officers who were formerly employed by a consolidated local government, an urban-county government, or the Department of Corrections who are retired, and who successfully completed a basic firearms training course required for their employment, and are members of a state-administered retirement system or other retirement system operated by or for a city, county, or urban-county government in Kentucky shall be deemed to have met the training requirement.

(d) Active or honorably discharged service members in the United States Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, or Coast Guard, or a reserve component thereof, or of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard shall be deemed to have met the training requirement if these persons:

1. Successfully completed handgun training which was conducted by the United States Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, or Coast Guard, or a reserve component thereof, or of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard; or

2. Successfully completed handgun qualification within the United States Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, or Coast Guard, or a reserve component thereof, or of the Army Guard or Air Force National Guard.

(7) (a) 1. A paper application for a license, or renewal of a license, to carry a concealed deadly weapon shall be obtained from and submitted to the office of the sheriff in the county in which the person resides.

2. An applicant, in lieu of a paper application, may submit an electronic application for a license, or renewal of a license, to carry a concealed deadly weapon to the Department of Kentucky State Police.

3. Persons qualifying under subsection (6)(d) of this section shall be supplied the information in subsection (4)(i)4. of this section upon obtaining an application.

(b) 1. The completed paper application and any documentation required by this section plus an application fee or renewal fee, as appropriate, of sixty dollars ($60) shall be presented to the office of the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides.

2. The sheriff shall transmit the paper application and accompanying material to the Department of Kentucky State Police within five (5) working days.

3. Twenty dollars ($20) of the paper application fee shall be retained by the office of the sheriff for official expenses of the office. Twenty dollars ($20) shall be sent to the Department of Kentucky State Police with the application. Ten dollars ($10) shall be transmitted by the sheriff to the Administrative Office of the Courts to fund background checks for youth leaders, and ten dollars ($10) shall be transmitted to the Administrative Office of the Courts to fund background checks for applicants for concealed weapons.

(c) 1. A completed electronic application submitted in lieu of a paper application, any documentation required by this section, and an application fee or renewal fee, as appropriate, of seventy dollars ($70) shall be presented to the Department of Kentucky State Police.

2. If an electronic application is submitted in lieu of a paper application, thirty dollars ($30) of the electronic application fee shall be retained by the Department of Kentucky State Police. Twenty dollars ($20) shall be sent to the office of the sheriff of the applicant’s county of residence for official expenses of the office. Ten dollars ($10) shall be transmitted to the Administrative Office of the Courts to fund background checks for youth leaders, and ten dollars ($10) shall be transmitted to the Administrative Office of the Courts to fund background checks for applicants for concealed weapon carry permits.

(d) A full-time or part-time peace officer who is currently certified as a peace officer by the Kentucky Law Enforcement Council and who is authorized by his or her employer or government authority to carry a concealed deadly weapon at all times and all locations within the Commonwealth pursuant to KRS 527.020, or a retired peace officer who is a member of the Kentucky Employees Retirement System, State Police Retirement System, County Employees Retirement System, or other retirement system operated by or for a city, county, or urban-county government in Kentucky, shall be exempt from paying the paper or electronic application or renewal fees.

(e) The application, whether paper or electronic, shall be completed, under oath, on a form or in a manner promulgated by the Department of Kentucky State Police by administrative regulation which shall include:

1. a. The name, address, place and date of birth, citizenship, gender, Social Security number of the applicant; and

b. If not a citizen of the United States, alien registration number if applicable, passport number, visa number, mother’s maiden name, and other information necessary to determine the immigration status and eligibility to purchase a firearm under federal law of a person who is not a citizen of the United States;

2. A statement that, to the best of his or her knowledge, the applicant is in compliance with criteria contained within subsections (3) and (4) of this section;

3. A statement that the applicant, if qualifying under subsection (6)(c) of this section, has provided:

a. At least one (1) of the forms listed in subsection (5) of this section; or

b. i. Documentary evidence of an honorable discharge; and

ii. A notarized affidavit on a form provided by the Department of Kentucky State Police stating the person has met the training requirements of subsection (6)(c) of this section;

4. A statement that the applicant has been furnished a copy of this section and is knowledgeable about its provisions;

5. A statement that the applicant has been furnished a copy of, has read, and understands KRS Chapter 503 as it pertains to the use of deadly force for self-defense in Kentucky; and

6. A conspicuous warning that the application is executed under oath and that a materially false answer to any question, or the submission of any materially false document by the applicant, subjects the applicant to criminal prosecution under KRS 523.030.

(8) The applicant shall submit to the sheriff of the applicant’s county of residence or county of military posting if submitting a paper application, or to the Department of Kentucky State Police if submitting an electronic application:

(a) A completed application as described in subsection (7) of this section;

(b) A recent color photograph of the applicant, as prescribed by administrative regulation;

(c) A paper or electronic certificate or an affidavit or document as described in subsection (5) of this section;

(d) A paper or electronic document establishing the training exemption as described in subsection (6) of this section; and

(e) For an applicant who is not a citizen of the United States and has been lawfully admitted to the United States by the United States government or an agency thereof, an affidavit as prescribed by administrative regulation concerning his or her immigration status and his or her United States government issued:

1. Permanent Resident Card I-551 or its equivalent successor identification;

2. Other United States government issued evidence of lawful admission to the United States which includes the category of admission, if admission has not been granted as a permanent resident; and

3. Evidence of compliance with the provisions of 18 U.S.C. sec. 922(g)(5), 18 U.S.C. sec. 922(d)(5), or 18 U.S.C. sec. 922(y)(2), and 27 C.F.R. Part 178, including, as appropriate, but not limited to evidence of ninety (90) day residence in the Commonwealth, a valid current Kentucky hunting license if claiming exemption as a hunter, or other evidence of eligibility to purchase a firearm by an alien which is required by federal law or regulation.

If an applicant presents identification specified in this paragraph, the sheriff shall examine the identification, may record information from the identification presented, and shall return the identification to the applicant.

(9) The Department of Kentucky State Police shall, within sixty (60) days after the date of receipt of the items listed in subsection (8) of this section if the applicant submitted a paper application, or within fifteen (15) business days after the date of receipt of the items listed in subsection (8) of this section if the applicant applied electronically, either:

(a) Issue the license; or

(b) Deny the application based solely on the grounds that the applicant fails to qualify under the criteria listed in subsection (3) or (4) of this section. If the Department of Kentucky State Police denies the application, it shall notify the applicant in writing, stating the grounds for denial and informing the applicant of a right to submit, within thirty (30) days, any additional documentation relating to the grounds of denial. Upon receiving any additional documentation, the Department of Kentucky State Police shall reconsider its decision and inform the applicant within twenty (20) days of the result of the reconsideration. The applicant shall further be informed of the right to seek de novo review of the denial in the District Court of his or her place of residence within ninety (90) days from the date of the letter advising the applicant of the denial.

(10) The Department of Kentucky State Police shall maintain an automated listing of license holders and pertinent information, and this information shall be available upon request, at all times to all Kentucky, federal, and other states’ law enforcement agencies. A request for the entire list of licensees, or for all licensees in a geographic area, shall be denied. Only requests relating to a named licensee shall be honored or available to law enforcement agencies. Information on applications for licenses, names and addresses, or other identifying information relating to license holders shall be confidential and shall not be made available except to law enforcement agencies. No request for lists of local or statewide permit holders shall be made to any state or local law enforcement agency, peace officer, or other agency of government other than the Department of Kentucky State Police, and no state or local law enforcement agency, peace officer, or agency of government, other than the Department of Kentucky State Police, shall provide any information to any requester not entitled to it by law.

(11) Within thirty (30) days after the changing of a permanent address, or within thirty (30) days after the loss, theft, or destruction of a license, the licensee shall notify the Department of Kentucky State Police of the loss, theft, or destruction. Failure to notify the Department of Kentucky State Police shall constitute a noncriminal violation with a penalty of twenty-five dollars ($25) payable to the clerk of the District Court. No court costs shall be assessed for a violation of this subsection. When a licensee makes application to change his or her residence address or other information on the license, neither the sheriff nor the Department of Kentucky State Police shall require a surrender of the license until a new license is in the office of the applicable sheriff and available for issuance. Upon the issuance of a new license, the old license shall be destroyed by the sheriff.

(12) If a license is lost, stolen, or destroyed, the license shall be automatically invalid, and the person to whom the same was issued may, upon payment of fifteen dollars ($15) for a paper request, or twenty-five dollars ($25) for an electronic request submitted in lieu of a paper request, to the Department of Kentucky State Police, obtain a duplicate, upon furnishing a notarized statement to the Department of Kentucky State Police that the license has been lost, stolen, or destroyed.

(13) (a) The commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police, or his or her designee in writing, shall revoke the license of any person who becomes permanently ineligible to be issued a license or have a license renewed under the criteria set forth in this section.

(b) The commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police, or his or her designee in writing, shall suspend the license of any person who becomes temporarily ineligible to be issued a license or have a license renewed under the criteria set forth in this section. The license shall remain suspended until the person is again eligible for the issuance or renewal of a license.

(c) Upon the suspension or revocation of a license, the commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police, or his or her designee in writing, shall:

1. Order any peace officer to seize the license from the person whose license was suspended or revoked; or

2. Direct the person whose license was suspended or revoked to surrender the license to the sheriff of the person’s county of residence within two (2) business days of the receipt of the notice.

(d) If the person whose license was suspended or revoked desires a hearing on the matter, the person shall surrender the license as provided in paragraph (c)2. of this subsection and petition the commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police to hold a hearing on the issue of suspension or revocation of the license.

(e) Upon receipt of the petition, the commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police shall cause a hearing to be held in accordance with KRS Chapter 13B on the suspension or revocation of the license. If the license has not been surrendered, no hearing shall be scheduled or held.

(f) If the hearing officer determines that the licensee’s license was wrongly suspended or revoked, the hearing officer shall order the commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police to return the license and abrogate the suspension or revocation of the license.

(g) Any party may appeal a decision pursuant to this subsection to the District Court in the licensee’s county of residence in the same manner as for the denial of a license.

(h) If the license is not surrendered as ordered, the commissioner of the Department of Kentucky State Police shall order a peace officer to seize the license and deliver it to the commissioner.

(i) Failure to surrender a suspended or revoked license as ordered is a Class A misdemeanor.

(j) The provisions of this subsection relating to surrender of a license shall not apply if a court of competent jurisdiction has enjoined its surrender.

(k) When a domestic violence order or emergency protective order is issued pursuant to the provisions of KRS Chapter 403 against a person holding a license issued under this section, the holder of the permit shall surrender the license to the court or to the officer serving the order. The officer to whom the license is surrendered shall forthwith transmit the license to the court issuing the order. The license shall be suspended until the order is terminated, or until the judge who issued the order terminates the suspension prior to the termination of the underlying domestic violence order or emergency protective order, in writing and by return of the license, upon proper motion by the license holder. Subject to the same conditions as above, a peace officer against whom an emergency protective order or domestic violence order has been issued shall not be permitted to carry a concealed deadly weapon when not on duty, the provisions of KRS 527.020 to the contrary notwithstanding.

(14) (a) Not less than one hundred twenty (120) days prior to the expiration date of the license, the Department of Kentucky State Police shall mail to each licensee a written notice of the expiration and a renewal form prescribed by the Department of Kentucky State Police. The outside of the envelope containing the license renewal notice shall bear only the name and address of the applicant. No other information relating to the applicant shall appear on the outside of the envelope sent to the applicant. The licensee may renew his or her license on or before the expiration date by filing with the sheriff of his or her county of residence the paper renewal form, or by filing with the Department of Kentucky State Police an electronic renewal form in lieu of a paper renewal form, stating that the licensee remains qualified pursuant to the criteria specified in subsections (3) and (4) of this section, and the required renewal fee set forth in subsection (7) of this section. The sheriff shall issue to the applicant a receipt for the paper application for renewal of the license and shall date the receipt. The Department of Kentucky State Police shall issue to the applicant a receipt for an electronic application for renewal of the license submitted in lieu of a paper application for renewal and shall date the receipt.

(b) A license which has expired shall be void and shall not be valid for any purpose other than surrender to the sheriff in exchange for a renewal license.

(c) The license shall be renewed to a qualified applicant upon receipt of the completed renewal application, records check as specified in subsection (3) of this section, determination that the renewal applicant is not ineligible for a license as specified in subsection (4), and appropriate payment of fees. Upon the issuance of a new license, the old license shall be destroyed by the sheriff. A licensee who fails to file a renewal application on or before its expiration date may renew his or her license by paying, in addition to the license fees, a late fee of fifteen dollars ($15). No license shall be renewed six (6) months or more after its expiration date, and the license shall be deemed to be permanently expired six (6) months after its expiration date. A person whose license has permanently expired may reapply for licensure pursuant to subsections (7), (8), and (9) of this section.

(15) The licensee shall carry the license at all times the licensee is carrying a concealed firearm or other deadly weapon and shall display the license upon request of a law enforcement officer. Violation of the provisions of this subsection shall constitute a noncriminal violation with a penalty of twenty-five dollars ($25), payable to the clerk of the District Court, but no court costs shall be assessed.

(16) Except as provided in KRS 527.020, no license issued pursuant to this section shall authorize any person to carry a concealed firearm into:

(a) Any police station or sheriff’s office;

(b) Any detention facility, prison, or jail;

(c) Any courthouse, solely occupied by the Court of Justice courtroom, or court proceeding;

(d) Any meeting of the governing body of a county, municipality, or special district; or any meeting of the General Assembly or a committee of the General Assembly, except that nothing in this section shall preclude a member of the body, holding a concealed deadly weapon license, from carrying a concealed deadly weapon at a meeting of the body of which he or she is a member;

(e) Any portion of an establishment licensed to dispense beer or alcoholic beverages for consumption on the premises, which portion of the establishment is primarily devoted to that purpose;

(f) Any elementary or secondary school facility without the consent of school authorities as provided in KRS 527.070, any child-caring facility as defined in KRS 199.011, any day-care center as defined in KRS 199.894, or any certified family child-care home as defined in KRS 199.8982, except however, any owner of a certified child-care home may carry a concealed firearm into the owner’s residence used as a certified child-care home;

(g) An area of an airport to which access is controlled by the inspection of persons and property; or

(h) Any place where the carrying of firearms is prohibited by federal law.

(17) The owner, business or commercial lessee, or manager of a private business enterprise, day-care center as defined in KRS 199.894 or certified or licensed family child-care home as defined in KRS 199.8982, or a health-care facility licensed under KRS Chapter 216B, except facilities renting or leasing housing, may prohibit persons holding concealed deadly weapon licenses from carrying concealed deadly weapons on the premises and may prohibit employees, not authorized by the employer, holding concealed deadly weapons licenses from carrying concealed deadly weapons on the property of the employer. If the building or the premises are open to the public, the employer or business enterprise shall post signs on or about the premises if carrying concealed weapons is prohibited. Possession of weapons, or ammunition, or both in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the weapons, or ammunition, or both are not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. A private but not a public employer may prohibit employees or other persons holding a concealed deadly weapons license from carrying concealed deadly weapons, or ammunition, or both in vehicles owned by the employer, but may not prohibit employees or other persons holding a concealed deadly weapons license from carrying concealed deadly weapons, or ammunition, or both in vehicles owned by the employee, except that the Justice and Public Safety Cabinet may prohibit an employee from carrying any weapons, or ammunition, or both other than the weapons, or ammunition, or both issued or authorized to be used by the employee of the cabinet, in a vehicle while transporting persons under the employee’s supervision or jurisdiction. Carrying of a concealed weapon, or ammunition, or both in a location specified in this subsection by a license holder shall not be a criminal act but may subject the person to denial from the premises or removal from the premises, and, if an employee of an employer, disciplinary measures by the employer.

(18) All moneys collected by the Department of Kentucky State Police pursuant to this section shall be used to administer the provisions of this section and KRS 237.138 to 237.142. By March 1 of each year, the Department of Kentucky State Police and the Administrative Office of the Courts shall submit reports to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives, indicating the amounts of money collected and the expenditures related to this section, KRS 237.138 to 237.142, and KRS 237.115, 244.125, 527.020, and 527.070, and the administration of the provisions of this section, KRS 237.138 to 237.142, and KRS 237.115, 244.125, 527.020, and 527.070.

(19) The General Assembly finds as a matter of public policy that it is necessary to provide statewide uniform standards for issuing licenses to carry concealed firearms and to occupy the field of regulation of the bearing of concealed firearms to ensure that no person who qualifies under the provisions of this section is denied his rights. The General Assembly does not delegate to the Department of Kentucky State Police the authority to regulate or restrict the issuing of licenses provided for in this section beyond those provisions contained in this section. This section shall be liberally construed to carry out the constitutional right to bear arms for self-defense.

(20) (a) A person who is not a resident of Kentucky and who has a valid license issued by another state of the United States to carry a concealed deadly weapon in that state may, subject to provisions of Kentucky law, carry a concealed deadly weapon in Kentucky, and his or her license shall be considered as valid in Kentucky.

(b) If a person with a valid license to carry a concealed deadly weapon issued from another state that has entered into a reciprocity agreement with the Department of Kentucky State Police becomes a resident of Kentucky, the license issued by the other state shall be considered as valid for the first one hundred twenty (120) days of the person’s residence in Kentucky, if within sixty (60) days of moving to Kentucky, the person completes a form promulgated by the Department of Kentucky State Police which shall include:

1. A signed and notarized statement averring that to the best of his or her knowledge the person’s license to carry a concealed deadly weapon is valid and in compliance with applicable out-of-state law, and has not been revoked or suspended for any reason except for valid forfeiture due to departure from the issuing state;

2. The person’s name, date of birth, citizenship, gender, Social Security number if applicable, proof that he or she is a citizen of the United States, a permanent resident of the United States, or otherwise lawfully present in the United States, former out-of-state address, current address within the state of Kentucky, date on which Kentucky residence began, state which issued the concealed carry license, the issuing state’s concealed carry license number, and the state of issuance of license; and

3. A photocopy of the person’s out-of-state license to carry a concealed deadly weapon.

(c) Within sixty (60) days of moving to Kentucky, the person shall deliver the form and accompanying documents by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the address indicated on the form provided by the Department of Kentucky State Police pursuant to this subsection.

(d) The out-of-state concealed carry license shall become invalid in Kentucky upon the earlier of:

1. The out-of-state person having resided in Kentucky for more than one hundred twenty (120) days; or

2. The person being issued a Kentucky concealed deadly weapon license pursuant to this section.

(e) The Department of Kentucky State Police shall, not later than thirty (30) days after July 15, 1998, and not less than once every twelve (12) months thereafter, make written inquiry of the concealed deadly weapon carrying licensing authorities in each other state as to whether a Kentucky resident may carry a concealed deadly weapon in their state based upon having a valid Kentucky concealed deadly weapon license, or whether a Kentucky resident may apply for a concealed deadly weapon carrying license in that state based upon having a valid Kentucky concealed deadly weapon license. The Department of Kentucky State Police shall attempt to secure from each other state permission for Kentucky residents who hold a valid Kentucky concealed deadly weapon license to carry concealed deadly weapons in that state, either on the basis of the Kentucky license or on the basis that the Kentucky license is sufficient to permit the issuance of a similar license by the other state. The Department of Kentucky State Police shall enter into a written reciprocity agreement with the appropriate agency in each state that agrees to permit Kentucky residents to carry concealed deadly weapons in the other state on the basis of a Kentucky-issued concealed deadly weapon license or that will issue a license to carry concealed deadly weapons in the other state based upon a Kentucky concealed deadly weapon license. If a reciprocity agreement is reached, the requirement to recontact the other state each twelve (12) months shall be eliminated as long as the reciprocity agreement is in force. The information shall be a public record and shall be available to individual requesters free of charge for the first copy and at the normal rate for open records requests for additional copies.

(21) By March 1 of each year, the Department of Kentucky State Police shall submit a statistical report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives, indicating the number of licenses issued, revoked, suspended, and denied since the previous report and in total and also the number of licenses currently valid. The report shall also include the number of arrests, convictions, and types of crimes committed since the previous report by individuals licensed to carry concealed weapons.

(22) The following provisions shall apply to concealed deadly weapon training classes conducted by the Department of Criminal Justice Training or any other agency pursuant to this section:

(a) No concealed deadly weapon instructor trainer shall have his or her certification as a concealed deadly weapon instructor trainer reduced to that of instructor or revoked except after a hearing conducted pursuant to KRS Chapter 13B in which the instructor is found to have committed an act in violation of the applicable statutes or administrative regulations;

(b) No concealed deadly weapon instructor shall have his or her certification as a concealed deadly weapon instructor license suspended or revoked except after a hearing conducted pursuant to KRS Chapter 13B in which the instructor is found to have committed an act in violation of the applicable statutes or administrative regulations;

(c) The department shall not require prior notification that an applicant class or instructor class will be conducted by a certified instructor or instructor trainer;

(d) Each concealed deadly weapon instructor or instructor trainer who teaches a concealed deadly weapon applicant or concealed deadly weapon instructor class shall supply the Department of Criminal Justice Training with a class roster indicating which students enrolled and successfully completed the class, and which contains the name and address of each student, within five (5) working days of the completion of the class. The information may be sent by mail, facsimile, e-mail, or other method which will result in the receipt of or production of a hard copy of the information. The postmark, facsimile date, or e-mail date shall be considered as the date on which the notice was sent. Concealed deadly weapon class applicant, instructor, and instructor trainer information and records shall be confidential. The department may release to any person or organization the name, address, and telephone number of a concealed deadly weapon instructor or instructor trainer if that instructor or instructor trainer authorizes the release of the information in writing. The department shall include on any application for an instructor or instructor trainer certification a statement that the applicant either does or does not desire the applicant’s name, address, and telephone number to be made public;

(e) An instructor trainer who assists in the conduct of a concealed deadly weapon instructor class or concealed deadly weapon applicant class for more than two (2) hours shall be considered as to have taught a class for the purpose of maintaining his or her certification. All class record forms shall include spaces for assistant instructors to sign and certify that they have assisted in the conduct of a concealed deadly weapon instructor or concealed deadly weapon class;

(f) An instructor who assists in the conduct of a concealed deadly weapon applicant class for more than two (2) hours shall be considered as to have taught a class for the purpose of maintaining his or her license. All class record forms shall include spaces for assistant instructors to sign and certify that they have assisted in the conduct of a concealed deadly weapon class;

(g) If the Department of Criminal Justice Training believes that a firearms instructor trainer or certified firearms instructor has not in fact complied with the requirements for teaching a certified firearms instructor or applicant class by not teaching the class as specified in KRS 237.126, or who has taught an insufficient class as specified in KRS 237.128, the department shall send to each person who has been listed as successfully completing the concealed deadly weapon applicant class or concealed deadly weapon instructor class a verification form on which the time, date, date of range firing if different from the date on which the class was conducted, location, and instructor of the class is listed by the department and which requires the person to answer “yes” or “no” to specific questions regarding the conduct of the training class. The form shall be completed under oath and shall be returned to the Department of Criminal Justice Training not later than forty-five (45) days after its receipt. A person who fails to complete the form, to sign the form, or to return the form to the Department of Criminal Justice Training within the time frame specified in this section or who, as a result of information on the returned form, is determined by the Department of Criminal Justice Training, following a hearing pursuant to KRS Chapter 13B, to not have received the training required by law shall have his or her concealed deadly weapon license revoked by the Department of Kentucky State Police, following a hearing conducted by the Department of Criminal Justice Training pursuant to KRS Chapter 13B, at which hearing the person is found to have violated the provisions of this section or who has been found not to have received the training required by law;

(h) The department shall annually, not later than December 31 of each year, report to the Legislative Research Commission:

1. The number of firearms instructor trainers and certified firearms instructors whose certifications were suspended, revoked, denied, or who were otherwise disciplined;

2. The reasons for the imposition of suspensions, revocations, denials, or other discipline; and

3. Suggestions for improvement of the concealed deadly weapon applicant training program and instructor process;

(i) If a concealed deadly weapon license holder is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or enters an Alford plea to a felony offense, then his or her concealed deadly weapon license shall be forthwith revoked by the Department of Kentucky State Police as a matter of law;

(j) If a concealed deadly weapon instructor or instructor trainer is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or enters an Alford plea to a felony offense, then his or her concealed deadly weapon instructor certification or concealed deadly weapon instructor trainer certification shall be revoked by the Department of Criminal Justice Training as a matter of law; and

(k) The following shall be in effect:

1. Action to eliminate the firearms instructor trainer program is prohibited. The program shall remain in effect, and no firearms instructor trainer shall have his or her certification reduced to that of certified firearms instructor;

2. The Department of Kentucky State Police shall revoke the concealed deadly weapon license of any person who received no firearms training as required by KRS 237.126 and administrative regulations, or who received insufficient training as required by KRS 237.128 and administrative regulations, if the person voluntarily admits nonreceipt of training or admits receipt of insufficient training, or if either nonreceipt of training or receipt of insufficient training is proven following a hearing conducted by the Department of Criminal Justice Training pursuant to KRS Chapter 13B.

Title XXXII. Ownership and Conveyance of Property

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 383. Landlord and Tenant

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Protections Afforded Victims of Domestic Violence and Abuse or Dating Violence and Abuse

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

383.300 Protections for person with rental or lease agreement who is protected by domestic violence order or interpersonal protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) (a) This section shall apply only to leases or rental agreements created or renewed on or after June 29, 2017.

(b) A person who is both a named individual and a protected tenant shall not be eligible for the protections under this section.

(2) As used in this section:

(a) “Named individual” means a person identified in the protective orders listed in paragraph (b) of this subsection as restrained from contact with the protected tenant; and

(b) 1. “Protected tenant” means a residential rental or leased housing tenant, applicant for tenancy, or a tenant with a minor household member, who is protected by a valid:

a. Domestic violence order issued pursuant to KRS 403.740 which restrains the adverse party from any unauthorized contact; or

b. Interpersonal protective order issued pursuant to KRS 456.060 which restrains the adverse party from any unauthorized contact.

2. For purposes of subsections (3) and (4) of this section, “protected tenant” also means a residential rental or leased housing tenant, applicant for tenancy, or a tenant with a minor household member who is protected by a valid:

a. Emergency protective order issued pursuant to KRS 403.730;

b. Temporary interpersonal protective order issued pursuant to KRS 456.040; or

c. Pretrial release no contact order issued pursuant to KRS 431.064.

(3) (a) A landlord shall not terminate, fail to renew, refuse to enter into, or otherwise retaliate in the renting or leasing of a residence because of the person’s status as a protected tenant.

(b) It shall be a defense to an action for possession of a rented or leased residential property if the court determines that:

1. The tenant is a protected tenant; and

2. The notice to vacate is substantially based on acts which violated the tenant’s protective order or led to the issuance of a protective order listed in subsection (2) of this section, including an action for possession based on complaints of noise, disturbances, or repeated presence of peace officers.

(4) (a) 1. After informing the landlord of an intention to install a new lock, a protected tenant, at his or her expense, may install a new lock to his or her dwelling by:

a. Rekeying the lock if the lock is in good working condition; or

b. Replacing the entire locking mechanism with a locking mechanism of equal or better quality than the lock being replaced.

2. The tenant shall provide a key to the new lock to the landlord upon request.

(b) Regardless of any provision in the lease or rental agreement, the landlord may refuse to provide a key to the new lock to a named individual, even if the named individual is a party to the lease or rental agreement.

(c) A named individual who has been excluded from leased or rented property under this section remains liable for rent.

(5) (a) For a protected tenant who obtains a valid protective order listed in subsection (2)(b)1. of this section after entering into a lease or rental agreement, the lease or rental agreement may be terminated by providing the landlord with:

1. Written notice of termination to be effective on a date stated in the notice that is at least thirty (30) days after the landlord’s receipt of the notice; and

2. A copy of the valid protective order.

(b) For a protected tenant who obtains a valid protective order listed in subsection (2)(b)1. of this section before entering into a lease or rental agreement, the lease or rental agreement may be terminated by:

1. Providing the landlord with written notice of termination to be effective on a date stated in the notice that is at least thirty (30) days after the landlord’s receipt of the notice;

2. Attaching a copy of the valid protective order; and

3. Demonstrating a safety concern to the landlord that arises after execution of the lease.

(c) Upon termination of a lease or rental agreement under this section, the released protected tenant shall:

1. Be liable for the rent due under the lease or rental agreement prorated to the effective date of the termination and payable at the time that would have been required by the terms of the lease or rental agreement;

2. Not receive a negative credit entry, a negative character reference, or be liable for any other rent or fees due solely to the early termination of the tenancy; and

3. Not be subject to any damages or penalties if a lease or rental agreement is terminated under this subsection fourteen (14) or more days prior to occupancy.

(d) Regardless of whether the named individual is a party to a lease or rental agreement terminated under this subsection, the named individual:

1. Is deemed to have interfered with the terminated lease or rental agreement between the landlord and tenant; and

2. Shall be civilly liable for all economic losses incurred by the landlord for the early lease termination, including unpaid rent, early lease termination fees, commissions and advertising costs incurred in reletting the premises, costs to repair damages to the premises, or any reductions in rent previously granted to the protected tenant.

(6) Regardless of conflicting provisions in a named individual’s rental agreement or lease, if a named individual and a protected tenant are cotenants, a landlord may:

(a) Refuse access to the property by a named individual unless the named individual is specifically permitted access by court order; and

(b) Pursue all available legal remedies against the named individual, including:

1. Termination of the named individual’s rental agreement or lease;

2. Eviction of the named individual, whether or not a lease or rental agreement between the landlord and the named individual exists; and

3. Action for damages against the named individual for any unpaid rent owed by the named individual or any damages resulting from a violation of a valid protective order listed in subsection (2)(b)1. of this section.

(7) Notwithstanding the release of a protected tenant or an exclusion of a named individual from a lease or rental agreement under this section, if there are any remaining tenants residing in the dwelling unit, the tenancy shall continue for those tenants.

(8) A landlord is immune from civil liability if the landlord in good faith acts in accordance with this section.

383.302 Prohibited inclusion in rental or lease agreement of authority to terminate on the basis of tenant's request for assistance in emergencies

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A landlord shall not include in a residential rental agreement or lease for housing a provision authorizing the landlord to terminate the agreement or to impose a penalty on a tenant for requests made by the tenant for assistance from peace officers or other assistance in response to emergencies.

(2) A residential rental agreement or lease provision prohibited by subsection (1) of this section is unenforceable. If a landlord enforces a rental agreement or lease containing provisions known by the landlord to be prohibited by this section, the tenant may recover actual damages sustained by the tenant, reasonable attorney’s fees, and all other costs incurred in bringing the action, and punitive damages of not more than two (2) months of periodic rent.

(3) This section shall apply only to leases or rental agreements created or renewed on or after June 29, 2017.

Title XXXV. Domestic Relations

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 403. Dissolution of Marriage; Child Custody

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Dissolution; Legal Separation

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

403.140 Marriage; court may enter decree of dissolution or separation

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) The Circuit Court shall enter a decree of dissolution of marriage if:

(a) The court finds that one (1) of the parties, at the time the action was commenced, resided in this state, or was stationed in this state while a member of the armed services, and that the residence or military presence has been maintained for 180 days next preceding the filing of the petition;

(b) The court finds that the conciliation provisions of KRS 403.170 either do not apply or have been met;

(c) The court finds that the marriage is irretrievably broken; and

(d) To the extent it has jurisdiction to do so, the court has considered, approved or made provision for child custody, the support of any child of the marriage entitled to support, the maintenance of either spouse, and the disposition of property.

(2) If a party requests a decree of legal separation rather than a decree of dissolution of marriage, the court shall grant the decree in that form unless the other party objects, in which latter event the other provisions of this chapter shall apply.

403.170 Marriage; irretrievable breakdown

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) If both of the parties by petition or otherwise have stated under oath or affirmation that the marriage is irretrievably broken, or one of the parties has so stated and the other has not denied it, the court, after hearing, shall make a finding whether the marriage is irretrievably broken. No decree shall be entered until the parties have lived apart for 60 days. Living apart shall include living under the same roof without sexual cohabitation. The court may order a conciliation conference as a part of the hearing.

(2) If one of the parties has denied under oath or affirmation that the marriage is irretrievably broken, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including the circumstances that gave rise to filing the petition and the prospect of reconciliation, and shall:

(a) Make a finding whether the marriage is irretrievably broken; or

(b) Continue the matter for further hearing not fewer than 30 nor more than 60 days later, or as soon thereafter as the matter may be reached on the court’s calendar, and may suggest to the parties that they seek counseling. The court, at the request of either party shall, or on its own motion may, order a conciliation conference. At the adjourned hearing the court shall make a finding whether the marriage is irretrievably broken.

(3) A finding of irretrievable breakdown is a determination that there is no reasonable prospect of reconciliation.

403.200 Maintenance; court may grant order for either spouse

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation, or a proceeding for maintenance following dissolution of a marriage by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, the court may grant a maintenance order for either spouse only if it finds that the spouse seeking maintenance:

(a) Lacks sufficient property, including marital property apportioned to him, to provide for his reasonable needs; and

(b) Is unable to support himself through appropriate employment or is the custodian of a child whose condition or circumstances make it appropriate that the custodian not be required to seek employment outside the home.

(2) The maintenance order shall be in such amounts and for such periods of time as the court deems just, and after considering all relevant factors including:

(a) The financial resources of the party seeking maintenance, including marital property apportioned to him, and his ability to meet his needs independently, including the extent to which a provision for support of a child living with the party includes a sum for that party as custodian;

(b) The time necessary to acquire sufficient education or training to enable the party seeking maintenance to find appropriate employment;

(c) The standard of living established during the marriage;

(d) The duration of the marriage;

(e) The age, and the physical and emotional condition of the spouse seeking maintenance; and

(f) The ability of the spouse from whom maintenance is sought to meet his needs while meeting those of the spouse seeking maintenance.

Custody

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

403.270 Custodial issues; best interests of child shall determine; rebuttable presumption that joint custody and equally shared parenting time is in child’s best interests; de facto custodian

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) (a) As used in this chapter and KRS 405.020, unless the context requires otherwise, “de facto custodian” means a person who has been shown by clear and convincing evidence to have been the primary caregiver for, and financial supporter of, a child who within the last two (2) years has resided with the person for an aggregate period of six (6) months or more if the child is under three (3) years of age and for an aggregate period of one (1) year or more if the child is three (3) years of age or older or has been placed by the Department for Community Based Services. Any period of time after a legal proceeding has been commenced by a parent seeking to regain custody of the child shall not be included in determining whether the child has resided with the person for the required minimum period.

(b) A person shall not be a de facto custodian until a court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the person meets the definition of de facto custodian established in paragraph (a) of this subsection. Once a court determines that a person meets the definition of de facto custodian, the court shall give the person the same standing in custody matters that is given to each parent under this section and KRS 403.280, 403.340, 403.350, 403.822, and 405.020.

(2) The court shall determine custody in accordance with the best interests of the child and equal consideration shall be given to each parent and to any de facto custodian. Subject to KRS 403.315, there shall be a presumption, rebuttable by a preponderance of evidence, that joint custody and equally shared parenting time is in the best interest of the child. If a deviation from equal parenting time is warranted, the court shall construct a parenting time schedule which maximizes the time each parent or de facto custodian has with the child and is consistent with ensuring the child’s welfare. The court shall consider all relevant factors including:

(a) The wishes of the child’s parent or parents, and any de facto custodian, as to his or her custody;

(b) The wishes of the child as to his or her custodian, with due consideration given to the influence a parent or de facto custodian may have over the child’s wishes;

(c) The interaction and interrelationship of the child with his or her parent or parents, his or her siblings, and any other person who may significantly affect the child’s best interests;

(d) The motivation of the adults participating in the custody proceeding;

(e) The child’s adjustment and continuing proximity to his or her home, school, and community;

(f) The mental and physical health of all individuals involved;

(g) A finding by the court that domestic violence and abuse, as defined in KRS 403.720, has been committed by one (1) of the parties against a child of the parties or against another party. The court shall determine the extent to which the domestic violence and abuse has affected the child and the child’s relationship to each party, with due consideration given to efforts made by a party toward the completion of any domestic violence treatment, counseling, or program;

(h) The extent to which the child has been cared for, nurtured, and supported by any de facto custodian;

(i) The intent of the parent or parents in placing the child with a de facto custodian;

(j) The circumstances under which the child was placed or allowed to remain in the custody of a de facto custodian, including whether the parent now seeking custody was previously prevented from doing so as a result of domestic violence as defined in KRS 403.720 and whether the child was placed with a de facto custodian to allow the parent now seeking custody to seek employment, work, or attend school; and

(k) The likelihood a party will allow the child frequent, meaningful, and continuing contact with the other parent or de facto custodian, except that the court shall not consider this likelihood if there is a finding that the other parent or de facto custodian engaged in domestic violence and abuse, as defined in KRS 403.720, against the party or a child and that a continuing relationship with the other parent will endanger the health or safety of either that party or the child.

(3) The abandonment of the family residence by a custodial party shall not be considered where said party was physically harmed or was seriously threatened with physical harm by his or her spouse, when such harm or threat of harm was causally related to the abandonment.

(4) If the court grants custody to a de facto custodian, the de facto custodian shall have legal custody under the laws of the Commonwealth.

403.315 Presumption that joint custody and equally shared parenting time is in best interest of child inapplicable if domestic violence order entered against a party

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

When determining or modifying a custody order pursuant to KRS 403.270, 403.280, 403.340, 403.740, the court shall consider the safety and well-being of the parties and of the children. If a domestic violence order is being or has been entered against a party by another party or on behalf of a child at issue in the custody hearing, the presumption that joint custody and equally shared parenting time is in the best interest of the child shall not apply as to the party against whom the domestic violence order is being or has been entered. The court shall weigh all factors set out in KRS 403.270 in determining the best interest of the child.

403.320 Visitation of minor child; military deployment of parent or custodian; visitation rights of custodial relatives following termination of parental rights of others

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A parent not granted custody of the child and not awarded shared parenting time under the presumption specified in KRS 403.270(2), 403.280(2), or 403.340(5) is entitled to reasonable visitation rights unless the court finds, after a hearing, that visitation would endanger seriously the child’s physical, mental, moral, or emotional health. Upon request of either party, the court shall issue orders which are specific as to the frequency, timing, duration, conditions, and method of scheduling visitation and which reflect the development age of the child.

(2) If domestic violence and abuse, as defined in KRS 403.720, has been alleged, the court shall, after a hearing, determine the visitation arrangement, if any, which would not endanger seriously the child’s or the custodial parent’s physical, mental, or emotional health.

(3) The court may modify an order granting or denying visitation rights whenever modification would serve the best interests of the child; but the court shall not restrict a parent’s visitation rights unless it finds that the visitation would endanger seriously the child’s physical, mental, moral, or emotional health.(4) Under circumstances where the court finds, by clear and convincing evidence, it is in the best interest of the child, any relative, by blood or affinity, that was previously granted temporary custody pursuant to the provisions of KRS 620.090 may be granted reasonable noncustodial parental visitation rights by a Circuit Court or Family Court as an intervenor or by original action. Once the relative has been granted visitation pursuant to this subsection, those rights shall not be adversely affected by the termination of custodial or parental rights of an individual who has permanent custody of the child unless the court determines that termination of the visitation rights are in the best interests of the child. The action shall be brought in the county in which the temporary or permanent custody order was entered or where the child resides.

403.322 Custody, visitation, and inheritance rights denied parent convicted of felony sexual offense from which victim delivered a child; waiver; child support obligation

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) The Commonwealth recognizes that certain victims of sexual assault may conceive a child as a result of the sexual assault and may choose to bear and raise the child. The Commonwealth also recognizes that victims of a sexual assault who have elected to raise a child born as a result of the sexual assault, as well as that child, may suffer serious emotional or physical trauma if the perpetrator of the assault is granted parental rights with the child.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, any person who has been convicted of a felony offense under KRS Chapter 510, or a comparable offense from another jurisdiction, in which the victim of that offense has conceived and delivered a child, shall not have custody or visitation rights, or the rights of inheritance under KRS Chapter 391 with respect to that child.

(3) The adult mother of the child may waive the protection afforded under subsection (2) of this section regarding visitation and request that the court grant reasonable visitation rights with the child if paternity has been acknowledged.

(4) Unless waived by the mother, or a guardian of a minor mother or a de facto custodian of the child in the case of a minor mother, and, if applicable, the public agency substantially contributing to the support of the child, a court shall establish a child support obligation against the father of the child pursuant to KRS 403.211.

Domestic Violence and Abuse

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

403.715 Interpretation of KRS 403.715 to 403.785 by court.

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

KRS 403.715 to 403.785 shall be interpreted to:

(1) Allow victims to obtain effective, short-term protection against further wrongful conduct in order that their lives may be as secure and as uninterrupted as possible;

(2) Expand the ability of law enforcement officers to effectively respond to further wrongful conduct so as to prevent future incidents and to provide assistance to the victims;

(3) Provide peace officers with the authority to immediately apprehend and charge for violation of an order of protection any person whom the officer has probable cause to believe has violated an order of protection and to provide courts with the authority to conduct contempt of court proceedings for these violations;

(4) Provide for the collection of data concerning incidents of domestic violence and abuse in order to develop a comprehensive analysis of the numbers and causes of such incidents; and

(5) Supplement and not repeal or supplant any duties, responsibilities, services, or penalties under KRS Chapters 209, 209A, and 620.

403.720 Definitions for KRS 403.715 to 403.785

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Currentness

As used in KRS 403.715 to 403.785:

(1) “Domestic animal” means a dog, cat, or other animal that is domesticated and kept as a household pet, but does not include animals normally raised for agricultural or commercial purposes;

(2) “Domestic violence and abuse” means:

(a) Physical injury, serious physical injury, stalking, sexual abuse, strangulation, assault, or the infliction of fear of imminent physical injury, serious physical injury, sexual abuse, strangulation, or assault between family members or members of an unmarried couple; or

(b) Any conduct prohibited by KRS 525.125, 525.130, 525.135, or 525.137, or the infliction of fear of such imminent conduct, taken against a domestic animal when used as a method of coercion, control, punishment, intimidation, or revenge directed against a family member or member of an unmarried couple who has a close bond of affection to the domestic animal;

(3) “Family member” means a spouse, including a former spouse, a grandparent, a grandchild, a parent, an adult sibling, a child, a stepchild, or any other person living in the same household as a child if the child is the alleged victim;

(4) “Foreign protective order” means any judgment, decree, or order of protection which is entitled to full faith and credit pursuant to 18 U.S.C. sec. 2265 that was issued on the basis of domestic violence and abuse;

(5) “Global positioning monitoring system” means a system that electronically determines a person’s location through a device worn by the person which does not invade his or her bodily integrity and which transmits the person’s latitude and longitude data to a monitoring entity;

(6) “Member of an unmarried couple” means each member of an unmarried couple which allegedly has a child in common, any children of that couple, or a member of an unmarried couple who are living together or have formerly lived together;

(7) “Order of protection” means an emergency protective order or a domestic violence order and includes a foreign protective order;

(8) “Sexual assault” refers to conduct prohibited as any degree of rape, sodomy, or sexual abuse under KRS Chapter 510 or incest under KRS 530.020, or a criminal attempt, conspiracy, facilitation, or solicitation to commit rape, sodomy, sexual abuse, or incest;

(9) “Strangulation” refers to conduct prohibited by KRS 508.170 and 508.175, or a criminal attempt, conspiracy, facilitation, or solicitation to commit the crime of strangulation; and

(10) “Substantial violation” means criminal conduct which involves actual or threatened harm to the person, family, or property, including a domestic animal, of an individual protected by an order of protection.

403.725 Petition for order of protection; venue; verified contents; concurrent jurisdiction; protocols for access and supplemental jurisdiction; referral

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A petition for an order of protection may be filed by:

(a) A victim of domestic violence and abuse; or

(b) An adult on behalf of a victim who is a minor otherwise qualifying for relief under this subsection.

(2) The petition may be filed in the victim’s county of residence or a county where the victim has fled to escape domestic violence and abuse.

(3) The petition shall be verified and contain:

(a) The name, age, address, occupation, residence, and school or postsecondary institution of the petitioner;

(b) The name, age, address, occupation, residence, and school or postsecondary institution of the person or persons who have engaged in the alleged act or acts complained of in the petition;

(c) The facts and circumstances which constitute the basis for the petition;

(d) The date and place of the marriage of the parties, if applicable; and

(e) The names, ages, and addresses of the petitioner’s minor children, if applicable.

(4) The petition shall be filed on forms prescribed by the Administrative Office of the Courts and provided to the person seeking relief by the circuit clerk or by another individual authorized by the court to provide and verify petitions in emergency situations, such as law enforcement officers, Commonwealth’s or county attorneys, and regional rape crisis centers or domestic violence shelters.

(5) All petitions requested, completed, and signed by persons seeking protection under this chapter shall be accepted and filed with the court.

(6) (a) Jurisdiction over petitions filed under this chapter shall be concurrent between the District Court and Circuit Court and a petition may be filed by a petitioner in either court, except that a petition shall be filed in a family court if one has been established in the county where the petition is filed.

(b) The Court of Justice shall provide a protocol for twenty-four (24) hour access to orders of protection in each county with any protocol, whether statewide or local, being subject to Supreme Court review and approval of the initial protocol and any subsequent amendments. This protocol may allow for petitions to be filed in or transferred to a court other than those specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection.

(c) The Court of Justice may authorize by rule that petitions in a specific county be filed in accordance with a supplemental jurisdictional protocol adopted for that county. This protocol may provide for petitions to be filed in or transferred to a court other than those specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection.

(d) 1. In addition to the protocols for twenty-four (24) hour access established under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this subsection, before January 1, 2019, the Court of Justice shall provide protocols for filing, including electronic filing, of petitions for orders of protection at those regional rape crisis centers designated under KRS 211.600, or regional domestic violence shelters designated under KRS 209A.045, that elect to participate in any county’s twenty-four (24) hour access protocol.

2. These protocols shall be subject to Supreme Court review for approval of the initial protocol and any subsequent amendments.

(7) Any judge to whom a petition is referred under subsection (6) of this section shall have full authority to review and hear a petition and subsequently grant and enforce an order of protection.

(8) If the judge of a court in which there is a pending request for modification or enforcement of an existing order of protection is unavailable or unable to act within a reasonable time, the proceedings may be conducted by any judge of the county in accordance with court rules.

403.730 Immediate review of petition; summons to evidentiary hearing; ex parte emergency protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) (a) The court shall review a petition for an order of protection immediately upon its filing. If the review indicates that domestic violence and abuse exists, the court shall summons the parties to an evidentiary hearing not more than fourteen (14) days in the future. If the review indicates that such a basis does not exist, the court may consider an amended petition or dismiss the petition without prejudice.

(b) Service of the summons and hearing order under this subsection shall be made upon the adverse party personally and may be made in the manner and by the persons authorized to serve subpoenas under Rule 45.03 of the Rules of Civil Procedure. A summons may be reissued if service has not been made on the adverse party by the fixed court date and time.

(2) (a) If the review under this section also indicates the presence of an immediate and present danger of domestic violence and abuse, the court shall, upon the filing of the petition, issue ex parte an emergency protective order that:

1. Authorizes relief appropriate to the situation utilizing the alternatives set out in KRS 403.740, other than awarding temporary support or counseling;

2. Sets forth which communications, if any, as requested by the petitioner, are authorized and which communications are unauthorized;

3. Allows either party to retrieve his or her personal belongings from the parties’ shared residence and directs law enforcement to assist, if requested;

4. Expires upon the conclusion of the evidentiary hearing required by this section unless extended or withdrawn by subsequent order of the court; and

5. Does not order or refer the parties to mediation unless requested by the petitioner, and the court finds that:

a. The petitioner’s request is voluntary and not the result of coercion; and

b. Mediation is a realistic and viable alternative to or adjunct to the issuance of an order sought by the petitioner.

 

Nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to place any restriction or restraint on the petitioner.

(b) If an order is not issued under this subsection, the court shall note on the petition, for the record, any action taken or denied and the reason for it.

403.735 Hearing on petition for order of protection; criteria to assess appropriate relief and sanctions; continuance of hearing and emergency protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Prior to or at a hearing on a petition for an order of protection:

(a) The court may obtain the respondent’s Kentucky criminal and protective order history and utilize that information to assess what relief and which sanctions may protect against danger to the petitioner or other person for whom protection is being sought, with the information so obtained being provided to the parties in accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure; and

(b) If the petitioner or respondent is a minor, the court shall inquire whether the parties attend school in the same school system to assist the court in imposing conditions in the order that have the least disruption in the administration of education to the parties while providing appropriate protection to the petitioner.

(2) (a) If the adverse party is not present at the hearing ordered pursuant to KRS 403.730 and has not been served, a previously issued emergency protective order shall remain in place, and the court shall direct the issuance of a new summons for a hearing set not more than fourteen (14) days in the future. If service has not been made on the adverse party before that hearing or a subsequent hearing, the emergency protective order shall remain in place, and the court shall continue the hearing and issue a new summons with a new date and time for the hearing to occur, which shall be within fourteen (14) days of the originally scheduled date for the continued hearing. The court shall repeat the process of continuing the hearing and reissuing a new summons until the adverse party is served in advance of the scheduled hearing. If service has not been made on the respondent at least seventy-two (72) hours prior to the scheduled hearing, the court may continue the hearing no more than fourteen (14) days in the future. In issuing the summons, the court shall simultaneously transmit a copy of the summons or notice of its issuance and provisions to the petitioner.

(b) The provisions of this section permitting the continuance of an emergency protective order shall be limited to six (6) months from the issuance of the emergency protective order. If the respondent has not been served within that period, the order shall be rescinded without prejudice. Prior to the expiration of the emergency protective order, the court shall provide notice to the petitioner stating that, if the petitioner does not file a new petition, the order shall be rescinded without prejudice.

403.740 Domestic violence order; restrictions; temporary child support; expiration and reissuance

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Following a hearing ordered under KRS 403.730, if a court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that domestic violence and abuse has occurred and may again occur, the court may issue a domestic violence order:

(a) Restraining the adverse party from:

1. Committing further acts of domestic violence and abuse;

2. Any unauthorized contact or communication with the petitioner or other person specified by the court;

3. Approaching the petitioner or other person specified by the court within a distance specified in the order, not to exceed five hundred (500) feet;

4. Going to or within a specified distance of a specifically described residence, school, or place of employment or area where such a place is located; and

5. Disposing of or damaging any of the property of the parties;

(b) Authorizing, at the request of the petitioner:

1. Limited contact or communication between the parties that the court finds necessary; or

2. The parties to remain in a common area, which may necessitate them being closer than five hundred (500) feet under limited circumstances with specific parameters set forth by the court. Nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to place any restriction or restraint on the petitioner;

Nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to place any restriction or restraint on the petitioner;

(c) Directing or prohibiting any other actions that the court believes will be of assistance in eliminating future acts of domestic violence and abuse, except that the court shall not order the petitioner to take any affirmative action;

(d) Directing that either or both of the parties receive counseling services available in the community in domestic violence and abuse cases; and

(e) Additionally, if applicable:

1. Directing the adverse party to vacate a residence shared by the parties to the action;

2. Utilizing the criteria set forth in KRS 403.270, 403.320, and 403.822, grant temporary custody, subject to KRS 403.315;

3. Utilizing the criteria set forth in KRS 403.211, 403.212, 403.2121, and 403.213, award temporary child support; and

4. Awarding possession of any shared domestic animal to the petitioner.

(2) In imposing a location restriction described in subsection (1)(a)4. of this section, the court shall:

(a) Afford the petitioner and respondent, if present, an opportunity to testify on the issue of the locations and areas from which the respondent should or should not be excluded;

(b) Only impose a location restriction where there is a specific, demonstrable danger to the petitioner or other person protected by the order;

(c) Specifically describe in the order the locations or areas prohibited to the respondent; and

(d) Consider structuring a restriction so as to allow the respondent transit through an area if the respondent does not interrupt his or her travel to harass, harm, or attempt to harass or harm the petitioner.

(3) When temporary child support is granted under this section, the court shall enter an order detailing how the child support is to be paid and collected. Child support ordered under this section may be enforced utilizing the same procedures as any other child support order.(4) A domestic violence order shall be effective for a period of time fixed by the court, not to exceed three (3) years, and may be reissued upon expiration for subsequent periods of up to three (3) years each. The fact that an order has not been violated since its issuance may be considered by a court in hearing a request for a reissuance of the order.

403.745 Duration of emergency protective order and domestic violence order; prohibited costs and conditions; mutual orders of protection; amendment; expungement

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) An emergency protective order and a domestic violence order shall become effective and binding on the respondent when the respondent is given notice of the existence and terms of the order by a peace officer or the court or upon personal service of the order, whichever is earlier. A peace officer or court giving notice of an unserved order shall make all reasonable efforts to arrange for the order’s personal service upon the respondent. Once effective, a peace officer or the court may enforce the order’s terms and act immediately upon their violation.

(2) Costs, fees, or bond shall not be assessed against or required of a petitioner for any filing, hearing, service, or order authorized by or required to implement KRS 403.715 to 403.785.

(3) A court shall not require mediation, conciliation, or counseling prior to or as a condition of issuing an order of protection.

(4) Mutual orders of protection may be issued only if:

(a) Separate petitions have been filed by both parties; and

(b) The orders are written with sufficient specificity to allow any peace officer to identify which party has violated the order.

(5) Upon proper filing of a motion, either party may seek to amend an order of protection.

(6) Testimony offered by an adverse party in a hearing ordered pursuant to KRS 403.730 shall not be admissible in any criminal proceeding involving the same parties, except for purposes of impeachment.

(7) (a) The Court of Justice, county and Commonwealth’s attorneys, law enforcement agencies, and victim services organizations may jointly operate a domestic violence intake center to assist persons who apply for relief under KRS 403.715 to 403.785.

(b) In cases where criminal conduct is alleged, a court may suggest that a petitioner voluntarily contact the county attorney. A court may not withhold or delay relief if the petitioner elects to not contact the county attorney.

(8) A person’s right to apply for relief under this chapter shall not be affected by that person leaving his or her residence to avoid domestic violence and abuse.

(9) A court shall order the omission or deletion of the petitioner’s address and the address of any minor children from any orders or documents to be made available to the public or to any person who engaged in the acts complained of in the petition.

(10) (a) If a petition under KRS 403.715 to 403.785 did not result in the issuance of a domestic violence order, the court in which the petition was heard may for good cause shown order the expungement of the records of the case if:

1. Six (6) months have elapsed since the case was dismissed; and

2. During the six (6) months preceding the expungement request, the respondent has not been bound by an order of protection issued for the protection of any person, including an order of protection as defined in KRS 456.010.

(b) As used in this subsection, “expungement” has the same meaning as in KRS 431.079.

403.750 Order of protection for family member or member of unmarried couple upon filing of petition or action under KRS Chapter 403

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Any family member or any member of an unmarried couple may file for and receive protection under this chapter from domestic violence and abuse, notwithstanding the existence of or intent to file an action under this chapter by either party.

(2) (a) Any family member or member of an unmarried couple who files a petition for an order of protection based upon domestic violence or abuse shall make known to the court any custody or divorce actions involving both the petitioner and the respondent that are pending in any court.

(b) If the petitioner or respondent to an order of protection initiates an action under this chapter, the party initiating the action shall make known to the court the existence and status of any orders of protection, which shall remain effective and enforceable until superseded by order of the court in which the case is filed.

(3) If a family member or member of an unmarried couple files an action for dissolution of marriage, child custody, or visitation, the court hearing the case shall have jurisdiction to issue an order of protection upon the filing of a verified motion either at the commencement or during the pendency of the action.

403.7505 Certification standards for mental health professionals providing court-mandated treatment; list of certified providers to Administrative Office of the Courts; submission of data to cabinet; distribution of compiled data

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) The Cabinet for Health and Family Services shall, by administrative regulations promulgated pursuant to KRS Chapter 13A, establish certification standards for mental health professionals providing court-mandated treatment services for domestic violence offenders.

(2) The standards created by the cabinet shall be based on the following principles:

(a) Domestic violence is a pattern of coercive control which includes physical, sexual, psychological, and environmental abuse, and is considered to be criminal conduct;

(b) The primary goal of treatment programs for domestic violence offenders shall be the cessation of violence which will provide for the safety of victims and their children; and

(c) Domestic violence offenders are responsible and shall be held accountable for the violence which they choose to perpetrate.

(3) The standards created by the cabinet shall address the following:

(a) Qualifications of providers of court-mandated domestic violence offender treatment services which shall include appropriate requirements for degree, experience, training, and continuing education;

(b) Procedures for application by providers to receive certification which shall include methods of appeal if certification is denied, and sanctions for noncompliance with the standards which may include revocation of certification;

(c) Admittance and discharge criteria for domestic violence offenders to enter court-mandated treatment services provided pursuant to this section;

(d) Written protocols for referral by a court to certified providers and for progress reports to be made to the court by providers;

(e) Contracts for domestic violence offenders to sign prior to entering court-ordered treatment services provided pursuant to this section. The contract shall specify that certified providers may contact the victims of the offender if the victim chooses to be contacted. The contract shall authorize the provider to release information regarding the offender’s progress in treatment to the court, victims, probation and parole officers, and other individuals authorized by the court to receive the information;

(f) Written procedures in compliance with KRS 202A.400, 209.030, and 620.030;

(g) Payment protocols which require the offender to pay the actual cost for any court-mandated evaluation or treatment pursuant to this section, subject to the offender’s ability to pay; and

(h) Other provisions which shall further the availability and quality of court-mandated domestic violence offender services.

(4) The cabinet shall:

(a) Maintain a list of providers certified pursuant to this section and regularly submit the list to the Administrative Office of the Courts; and

(b) Collect data from certified providers, which shall include demographic information and clinical characteristics on offenders served, number of offenders admitted into treatment and discharge conditions, total clinical services provided to offenders, and other information necessary to monitor the safety and effectiveness of services provided, to be provided upon request.

(5) No person, association, or organization shall conduct, operate, maintain, advise, or advertise any program that provides court-ordered treatment services for domestic violence offenders without first obtaining or maintaining valid certification under this chapter. If the cabinet has cause to believe that court-ordered treatment services for domestic violence offenders are being provided by a person or entity that does not possess valid certification under this chapter, the cabinet may institute proceedings, in the Circuit Court of the county in which the person or entity is located or in Franklin Circuit Court, for injunctive relief to terminate the provision of those services.

(6) Any person certified under this section shall submit quarterly to the cabinet:

(a) Demographic information and clinical characteristics on offenders served;

(b) Number of offenders admitted into treatment and discharge conditions;

(c) Total clinical services provided to offenders; and

(d) Other information as required by administrative regulation.

403.751 Entry of summons or order of protection issued pursuant to KRS 403.715 to 403.785 into Law Information Network of Kentucky

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) All forms, affidavits, and orders of protection issued or filed pursuant to KRS 403.715 to 403.785 which require entry into the Law Information Network of Kentucky shall be entered on forms prescribed by the Administrative Office of the Courts after consultation with the Justice and Public Safety Cabinet. If the provisions of an order of protection are contained in an order which is narrative in nature, the prescribed form shall be used in addition to the narrative order.

(2) The circuit clerk, in cooperation with the court, shall cause a copy of each summons or order issued pursuant to KRS 403.715 to403.785, or foreign protective order, fully completed and authenticated pursuant to KRS 403.715 to 403.785, to be forwarded, by the most expedient means reasonably available and within twenty-four (24) hours following its filing with the clerk, to the appropriate agency designated for entry of orders of protection into the Law Information Network of Kentucky and to the agency assigned service. Any order or court record superseding, modifying, or otherwise affecting the status of an earlier summons or order shall likewise be forwarded by the circuit clerk to the appropriate Law Information Network of Kentucky entering agency and to the agency assigned service, if service is required. The clerk and the court shall comply with all provisions and guidelines of the Law Information Network of Kentucky for entry of the records.

(3) Each agency designated for entry of summonses and orders issued pursuant to KRS 403.715 to 403.785, or foreign protective orders authenticated pursuant to this chapter, into the Law Information Network of Kentucky shall, consistent with the provisions and guidelines of the Law Information Network of Kentucky, enter the records immediately upon receipt of copies forwarded to the agency in accordance with subsection (2) of this section.

 

403.7521 Foreign protective orders; rebuttable presumption of validity; enforcement; civil and criminal proceedings mutually exclusive

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) All foreign protective orders shall have the rebuttable presumption of validity. The validity of a foreign protective order shall only be determined by a court of competent jurisdiction. Until a foreign protective order is declared to be invalid by a court of competent jurisdiction, it shall be given full faith and credit by all peace officers and courts in the Commonwealth.

(2) All peace officers shall treat a foreign protective order as a legal document valid in Kentucky, and shall make arrests for a violation thereof in the same manner as for a violation of an order of protection issued in Kentucky.

(3) The fact that a foreign protective order has not been entered into the Law Information Network of Kentucky shall not be grounds for a peace officer not to enforce the provisions of the order unless it is readily apparent to the peace officer to whom the order is presented that the order has either expired according to a date shown on the order, or that the order’s provisions clearly do not prohibit the conduct being complained of. Officers acting in good faith shall be immune from criminal and civil liability.

(4) If the order has expired or its provisions do not prohibit the conduct being complained of, the officer shall not make an arrest unless the provisions of a Kentucky statute have been violated, in which case the peace officer shall take the action required by Kentucky law.

(5) Civil proceedings and criminal proceedings for violation of a foreign protective order for the same violation of the protective order shall be mutually exclusive. Once either proceeding has been initiated, the other shall not be undertaken, regardless of the outcome of the original proceeding.

403.7524 Statement to assist out-of-state court in determining whether order issued under KRS 403.715 to 403.785 is entitled to full faith and credit

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) In order to assist a court of another state in determining whether an order issued under KRS 403.715 to 403.785 is entitled to full faith and credit pursuant to 18 U.S.C. sec. 2265:

(a) All domestic violence orders shall include a statement certifying that the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and the matter, and that reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard has been given to the person against whom the order is sought sufficient to protect that person’s right to due process; and

(b) All emergency protective orders shall include a statement certifying that notice and opportunity to be heard has been provided within the time required by state law, and in any event within a reasonable time after the order is issued, sufficient to protect the respondent’s due process rights.

(2) The Administrative Office of the Courts shall prescribe the form to be used for the purposes of this section.

403.7527 Filing of foreign protective order and affidavit; certification by issuing court official; entry into Law Information Network of Kentucky

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A copy of a foreign protective order may be filed in the office of the clerk of any court of competent jurisdiction of this state. A foreign protective order so filed shall have the same effect and shall be enforced in the same manner as an order of protection issued by a court of this state.

(2) (a) At the time of the filing of the foreign protective order, the person filing the order shall file with the clerk of the court an affidavit on a form prescribed and provided by the Administrative Office of the Courts. The affidavit shall set forth the name, city, county, and state or other jurisdiction of the issuing court. The person shall certify in the affidavit the validity and status of the foreign protective order, and attest to the person’s belief that the order has not been amended, rescinded, or superseded by any orders from a court of competent jurisdiction. All foreign protective orders presented with a completed and signed affidavit shall be accepted and filed.

(b) The affidavit signed by the applicant shall have space where the reviewing judge shall place information necessary to allow the order’s entry into the Law Information Network of Kentucky in the same manner as a Kentucky order.

(3) (a) If the person seeking to file the order presents a copy of the foreign order which is current by the terms of the order and has been certified by the clerk or other authorized officer of the court which issued it, the circuit clerk shall present it to the District Judge or Circuit Judge, who shall read the order and enter on the affidavit the information necessary to allow the order’s entry into the Law Information Network of Kentucky. The order shall not be subject to further verification and shall be accepted as authentic, current, and subject to full faith and credit.

(b) If the order presented is current by the terms of the order but is not certified in the manner specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection, the circuit clerk shall present the order and the affidavit to the District Judge or Circuit Judge, who shall read the order and enter on the affidavit the information necessary to allow the order’s entry into the Law Information Network of Kentucky. The order shall be subject to full faith and credit in the same manner as a Kentucky order of protection, but shall be subject to verification by the circuit clerk. The order shall be valid for a period of fourteen (14) days and may be renewed once for a period of fourteen (14) days if the circuit clerk has not received a certified copy of the order from the issuing jurisdiction. The clerk shall treat the foreign protective order in the same manner as an order of protection issued pursuant to KRS 403.740, except that no service on the adverse party shall be required pursuant to 18 U.S.C. sec. 2265.

(c) Upon the filing of an uncertified foreign protective order, the circuit clerk shall, within two (2) business days, contact the issuing court to request a certified copy of the order. If the certified copy of the order is received by the circuit clerk within the initial fourteen (14) day period, the clerk shall cause the information that certification has been received to be entered into the Law Information Network of Kentucky and shall notify the applicant for the order of the fact of its certification. A facsimile copy of a certified foreign protective order shall be grounds for the issuance of an order of protection.

(d) If the clerk has not received a certified copy of the foreign protective order within ten (10) days, the clerk shall notify the court and the applicant that the order has not been received. The notice to the applicant, on a form prepared by the Administrative Office of the Courts, shall state that the foreign protective order will be extended for another fourteen (14) days, but will be dismissed at the expiration of that time. If the clerk informs the judge in writing that the certified foreign protective order has been requested but has not yet been received, the judge shall extend the foreign protective order for a period of fourteen (14) days. If certification of the foreign protective order is not received within twenty-eight (28) days, the foreign protective order shall expire and shall not be reissued. If the applicant meets the qualifications for the issuance of a Kentucky domestic violence order, the court may, upon proper application and showing of evidence, issue a Kentucky order in accordance with this chapter.

(4) The right of a person filing a foreign protective order to bring an action to enforce the order instead of proceeding under this chapter remains unimpaired.

403.7529 Authentication of foreign protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Upon ex parte review of the foreign protective order and the affidavit filed pursuant to KRS 403.7527, and after determining the order is entitled to full faith and credit in this Commonwealth pursuant to 18 U.S.C. sec. 2265, the court shall declare the order to be authenticated and record the finding on the affidavit.

(2) If the court declares the order to be authenticated, the court shall:

(a) Direct the appropriate law enforcement agency to assist the petitioner in having the provisions of the order complied with, if applicable; and

(b) Order its enforcement in any county of the Commonwealth in the same manner as an domestic violence order of this state issued pursuant to KRS 403.740.

(3) The clerk shall notify the person who filed the foreign protective order of the decision of the court and provide the person a certified copy of the affidavit declaring the authentication of the order.

403.7531 Clearing of foreign protective orders from Law Information Network of Kentucky

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A foreign protective order which has been entered into the Law Information Network of Kentucky shall be immediately cleared as an active record from the computer system when:

(a) The order expires according to its terms;

(b) A Kentucky court notifies the Law Information Network of Kentucky that a foreign protective order has been dismissed, either by court order or entry of notification by a circuit clerk; or

(c) A circuit clerk notifies the Law Information Network of Kentucky that a foreign protective order tendered to the clerk has not been authenticated in the time period specified in KRS 403.7527.

(2) For validation purposes, the Law Information Network of Kentucky shall provide the circuit court clerk with a printout of foreign protective orders. The clerk shall validate each order annually by contacting the original issuing court or jurisdiction. If the clerk has not received information from the foreign jurisdiction within thirty-one (31) days, the clerk shall cause those orders to be cleared from the Law Information Network of Kentucky.

403.7535 Duty to notify court of change in foreign protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person who has filed a foreign protective order in a court in Kentucky is under a continuing obligation to inform the court of any expiration, vacation, modification, or other change in the order which the person filing the order has received from the issuing foreign court.

(2) A person who has filed a foreign protective order in a court in Kentucky shall, within two (2) working days of the occurrence of any event specified in subsection (1) of this section, notify the clerk of the court in which the foreign protective order was filed of the fact of the changed order and present the clerk with a copy of the order for authentication as provided in this chapter. The clerk shall immediately notify the Law Information Network of Kentucky entering agency of the modification.

(3) No court in Kentucky and no peace officer in Kentucky shall be expected to enforce a provision of a foreign protective order which has been the subject of any action specified in subsection (1) of this section, unless proper notice has been given in accordance with this section.

(4) Intentional failure of a person who has filed a foreign protective order to make the notifications required by this section in the manner required by this section shall constitute contempt of court and may be grounds for an appropriate civil action brought by any person damaged by the intentional act of omission by the person failing to act.

403.761 Amendment of domestic violence order to require participation in global positioning monitoring system; cost to be paid by respondent and system operator; shortening or vacating of order; penalty for violation

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Upon a petitioner’s request and after an evidentiary hearing, a court may amend a domestic violence order to require a respondent to participate in a global positioning monitoring system if:

(a) The respondent has committed a substantial violation of a previously entered domestic violence order;

(b) The court has reviewed an updated history of the respondent’s Kentucky criminal and protective order history; and

(c) The court makes a factual determination that the use of a global positioning monitoring system would increase the petitioner’s safety.

(2) An order requiring participation in a global positioning monitoring system shall:

(a) Require the respondent to pay the cost of participation up to the respondent’s ability to pay, with the system operator bearing any uncovered costs for indigent respondents;

(b) State with specificity the locations or areas where the respondent is prohibited from being located or persons with whom the respondent shall have no contact;

(c) Include the date that the order expires, which shall be no longer than the expiration date of the domestic violence order, although participation may be extended if the underlying order is extended;

(d) Require the entity that operates the monitoring system to immediately notify the petitioner, the local law enforcement agency named in the order, and the court if a respondent violates the order; and

(e) Include any other information as the court deems appropriate.

(3) The Administrative Office of the Courts shall prepare a publicly available informational pamphlet containing information on the method of applying for, hearing, amending, and terminating an order requiring participation in a global positioning monitoring system.

(4) (a) The Supreme Court may establish by rule a sliding scale of payment responsibility for indigent defendants for use in establishing required payments under subsection (2) of this section.

(b) A person, county, or other organization may voluntarily agree to pay all or a portion of a respondent’s monitoring costs specified in this section.

(5) An order requiring participation in a global positioning monitoring system may be shortened or vacated by the court either:

(a) Upon request of the petitioner; or

(b) Upon request of the respondent after an evidentiary hearing, if the respondent has not violated the order and:

1. Three (3) months have elapsed since the entry of the order; and

2. No previous request has been made by the respondent in the previous six (6) months.

(6) A respondent who fails to wear, removes, tampers with, or destroys a global positioning monitoring system device in contravention of an order entered under this section shall be guilty of a Class D felony.

403.763 Violation of order of protection constitutes contempt of court and criminal offense

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Violation of the terms or conditions of an order of protection after the person has been served or given notice of the order shall constitute contempt of court and a criminal offense under this section. Once a criminal or contempt proceeding has been initiated, the other shall not be undertaken regardless of the outcome of the original proceeding.

(2) (a) Court proceedings for contempt of court for violation of an order of protection shall be held in the county where the order was issued or filed.

(b) Court proceedings for a criminal violation of an order of protection shall follow the rules of venue applicable to criminal cases generally.

(3) Nothing in this section shall preclude the Commonwealth from prosecuting and convicting the respondent of criminal offenses other than violation of an order of protection.

(4) (a) A person is guilty of a violation of an order of protection when he or she intentionally violates the provisions of an order of protection after the person has been served or given notice of the order.

(b) Violation of an order of protection is a Class A misdemeanor.

403.785 Duties of law enforcement officers and agencies

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

 

(1) A court issuing an order of protection shall direct the appropriate law enforcement agency to assist the petitioner in having the provisions of the order complied with.

(2) When a law enforcement officer has reason to suspect that a person has been the victim of domestic violence and abuse, the officer shall use all reasonable means to provide assistance to the victim, including but not limited to:

(a) Remaining at the location of the call for assistance so long as the officer reasonably suspects there is danger to the physical safety of individuals there without the presence of a law enforcement officer;

(b) Assisting the victim in obtaining medical treatment, including transporting the victim to the nearest medical facility capable of providing the necessary treatment;

(c) Advising the victim immediately of the rights available to them as provided in KRS 421.500, including the provisions of this chapter; and

(d) Completing a JC-3 form, or its equivalent replacement, and providing the information to the Criminal Justice Statistical Analysis Center pursuant to KRS 209A.110.

(3) Orders of protection shall be enforced in any county of the Commonwealth.(4) Officers acting in good faith under this section shall be immune from criminal and civil liability.

Chapter 403A. Uniform Deployed Parents Custody and Visitation Act

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

403A.105 Notification required of deploying parent

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (4) of this section, and subject to subsection (3) of this section, a deploying parent shall notify in a record the other parent of a pending deployment not later than seven (7) days after receiving notice of deployment unless reasonably prevented from doing so by the circumstances of service. If the circumstances of service prevent giving notification within the seven (7) days, the deploying parent shall give the notification as soon as reasonably possible.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (4) of this section, and subject to subsection (3) of this section, each parent shall provide in a record the other parent with a plan for fulfilling that parent’s share of custodial responsibility during deployment. Each parent shall provide the plan as soon as reasonably possible after notification of deployment is given under subsection (1) of this section.

(3) If a court order currently in effect prohibits disclosure of the address or contact information of the other parent, notification of deployment under subsection (1) of this section, or notification of a plan for custodial responsibility during deployment under subsection (2) of this section, may be made only to the issuing court. If the address of the other parent is available to the issuing court, the court shall forward the notification to the other parent. The court shall keep confidential the address or contact information of the other parent.

(4) Notification in a record under subsection (1) or (2) of this section is not required if the parents are living in the same residence and both parents have actual notice of the deployment or plan.

(5) In a proceeding regarding custodial responsibility, a court may consider the reasonableness of a parent’s efforts to comply with this section.

403A.201 Form of agreement

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

 

(1) The parents of a child may enter into a temporary agreement under KRS 403A.201 to 403A.205 granting custodial responsibility during deployment.

(2) An agreement under subsection (1) of this section shall be:

(a) In writing; and

(b) Signed by both parents and any nonparent to whom custodial responsibility is granted.

(3) Subject to subsection (4) of this section, an agreement under subsection (1) of this section, if feasible, shall:

(a) Identify the destination, duration, and conditions of the deployment that is the basis for the agreement;

(b) Specify the allocation of caretaking authority among the deploying parent, the other parent, and any nonparent;

(c) Specify any decision-making authority that accompanies a grant of caretaking authority;

(d) Specify any grant of limited contact to a nonparent;

(e) If under the agreement custodial responsibility is shared by the other parent and a nonparent, or by other nonparents, provide a process to resolve any dispute that may arise;

(f) Specify the frequency, duration, and means, including electronic means, by which the deploying parent will have contact with the child, any role to be played by the other parent in facilitating the contact, and the allocation of any costs of contact;

(g) Specify the contact between the deploying parent and child during the time the deploying parent is on leave or is otherwise available;

(h) Acknowledge that any party’s child-support obligation cannot be modified by the agreement, and that changing the terms of the obligation during the deployment requires modification in the appropriate court;

(i) Provide that the agreement will terminate according to the procedures under KRS 403A.401 to 403A.404 after the deploying parent returns from deployment; and

(j) If the agreement must be filed pursuant to KRS 403A.205, specify which parent is required to file the agreement.

(4) The omission of any of the items specified in subsection (3) of this section does not invalidate an agreement under this section.

403A.401 Procedure for terminating temporary grant of custodial responsibility established by agreement

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) At any time after return from deployment, a temporary agreement granting custodial responsibility under KRS 403A.201 to 403A.205 may be terminated by an agreement to terminate signed by the deploying parent and the other parent.

(2) A temporary agreement under KRS 403A.201 to 403A.205 granting custodial responsibility terminates:

(a) If an agreement to terminate under subsection (1) of this section specifies a date for termination, on that date; or

(b) If the agreement to terminate does not specify a date, on the date the agreement to terminate is signed by the deploying parent and the other parent.

(3) In the absence of an agreement under subsection (1) of this section to terminate, a temporary agreement granting custodial responsibility terminates under KRS 403A.201 to 403A.205 sixty (60) days after the deploying parent gives notice to the other parent that the deploying parent returned from deployment.

(4) If a temporary agreement granting custodial responsibility was filed with a court pursuant to KRS 403A.205, an agreement to terminate the temporary agreement also shall be filed with that court within a reasonable time after the signing of the agreement. The case number and heading of the case concerning custodial responsibility or child support shall be provided to the court with the agreement to terminate.

Chapter 405. Parent and Child

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

405.028 Custody, visitation, and inheritance rights denied parent convicted of a felony sexual offense from which victim delivered a child; waiver; child support obligation

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section, any person who has been convicted of a felony offense under KRS Chapter 510, or a comparable offense from another jurisdiction, in which the victim of that offense has conceived and delivered a child, shall not have custody or visitation rights, or the right of inheritance under KRS Chapter 391 with respect to that child.

(2) The adult mother of the child may waive the protection afforded under subsection (1) of this section regarding visitation and request that the court grant reasonable visitation rights with the child if paternity has been acknowledged.

(3) Unless waived by the mother, or a guardian of a minor mother or a de facto custodian of the child in the case of a minor mother, and, if applicable, the public agency substantially contributing to the support of the child, a court shall establish a child support obligation against the father of the child pursuant to KRS 403.211. As used in this subsection, “de facto custodian” has the same meaning as in KRS 403.270.

Title XL. Crimes and Punishments

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 431. General Provisions Concerning Crimes and Punishments

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

431.064 Pretrial release of person arrested for assault, sexual offense, or violation of protective order; conditions; hearing; victim entitled to copy of conditions of release; entry of conditions into Law Information Network; penalty

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) In making a decision concerning pretrial release of a person who is arrested for a violation of KRS Chapter 508 or 510, or charged with a crime involving a violation of an order of protection as defined in KRS 403.720 and 456.010, the court or agency having authority to make a decision concerning pretrial release shall review the facts of the arrest and detention of the person and determine whether the person:

(a) Is a threat to the alleged victim or other family or household member; and

(b) Is reasonably likely to appear in court.

(2) Before releasing a person arrested for or charged with a crime specified in subsection (1) of this section, the court shall make findings, on the record if possible, concerning the determination made in accordance with subsection (1) of this section, and may impose conditions of release or bail on the person to protect the alleged victim of domestic violence or abuse and to ensure the appearance of the person at a subsequent court proceeding. The conditions may include:

(a) An order enjoining the person from threatening to commit or committing acts of domestic violence or abuse against the alleged victim or other family or household member;

(b) An order prohibiting the person from harassing, annoying, telephoning, contacting, or otherwise communicating with the alleged victim, either directly or indirectly;

(c) An order directing the person to vacate or stay away from the home of the alleged victim and to stay away from any other location where the victim is likely to be;

(d) An order prohibiting the person from using or possessing a firearm or other weapon specified by the court;

(e) An order prohibiting the person from possession or consumption of alcohol or controlled substances;

(f) Any other order required to protect the safety of the alleged victim and to ensure the appearance of the person in court; or

(g) Any combination of the orders set out in paragraphs (a) to (f) of this subsection.

(3) If conditions of release are imposed, the court imposing the conditions on the arrested or charged person shall:

(a) Issue a written order for conditional release; and

(b) Immediately distribute a copy of the order to pretrial services.

(4) The court shall provide a copy of the conditions to the arrested or charged person upon release. Failure to provide the person with a copy of the conditions of release does not invalidate the conditions if the arrested or charged person has notice of the conditions.

(5) If conditions of release are imposed without a hearing, the arrested or charged person may request a prompt hearing before the court to review the conditions. Upon request, the court shall hold a prompt hearing to review the conditions.

(6) The victim, as defined in KRS 421.500, of the defendant’s alleged crime, or an individual designated by the victim in writing, shall be entitled to a free certified copy of the defendant’s conditions of release, or modified conditions of release, upon request to the clerk of the court which issued the order releasing the defendant. The victim or the victim’s designee may personally obtain the document at the clerk’s office or may have it delivered by mail.

(7) The circuit clerk or the circuit clerk’s designee, in cooperation with the court that issued the order releasing the defendant, shall cause the conditions of release to be entered into the computer system maintained by the clerk and the Administrative Office of the Courts within twenty-four (24) hours following its filing, excluding weekends and holidays. Any modification of the release conditions shall likewise be entered by the circuit clerk, or the circuit clerk’s designee.

(8) The information entered under this section shall be accessible to any agency designated by the Department of Kentucky State Police as a terminal agency for the Law Information Network of Kentucky.

(9) All orders issued under this section which require entry into the Law Information Network of Kentucky shall be entered on forms prescribed by the Administrative Office of the Courts. If the conditions of pretrial release are contained in an order which is narrative in nature, the prescribed form shall be used in addition to the narrative order.

(10) Any person who violates any condition of an order issued pursuant to this section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Title XLII. Miscellaneous Practice Provisions

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 456. Civil Orders of Protection

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

456.010 Definitions for chapter

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

As used in this chapter:

(1) “Dating relationship” means a relationship between individuals who have or have had a relationship of a romantic or intimate nature. It does not include a casual acquaintanceship or ordinary fraternization in a business or social context. The following factors may be considered in addition to any other relevant factors in determining whether the relationship is or was of a romantic or intimate nature:

(a) Declarations of romantic interest;

(b) The relationship was characterized by the expectation of affection;

(c) Attendance at social outings together as a couple;

(d) The frequency and type of interaction between the persons, including whether the persons have been involved together over time and on a continuous basis during the course of the relationship;

(e) The length and recency of the relationship; and

(f) Other indications of a substantial connection that would lead a reasonable person to understand that a dating relationship existed;

(2) “Dating violence and abuse” means:

(a) Physical injury, serious physical injury, stalking, sexual assault, strangulation, or the infliction of fear of imminent physical injury, serious physical injury, sexual abuse, strangulation, or assault occurring between persons who are or have been in a dating relationship; or

(b) Any conduct prohibited by KRS 525.125, 525.130, 525.135, or 525.137, or the infliction of fear of such imminent conduct, taken against a domestic animal when used as a method of coercion, control, punishment, intimidation, or revenge directed against a person with whom the perpetrator is or has been in a dating relationship, when that person has a close bond of affection to the domestic animal;

(3) “Domestic animal” means a dog, cat, or other animal that is domesticated and kept as a household pet, but does not include animals normally raised for agricultural or commercial purposes;

(4) “Foreign protective order” means any judgment, decree, or order of protection which is entitled to full faith and credit pursuant to 18 U.S.C. sec. 2265 which was not issued on the basis of domestic violence and abuse;

(5) “Global positioning monitoring system” means a system that electronically determines a person’s location through a device worn by the person which does not invade his or her bodily integrity and which transmits the person’s latitude and longitude data to a monitoring entity;

(6) “Order of protection” means any interpersonal protective order, including those issued on a temporary basis, and includes a foreign protective order;

(7) “Sexual assault” refers to conduct prohibited as any degree of rape, sodomy, or sexual abuse under KRS Chapter 510 or a criminal attempt, conspiracy, facilitation, or solicitation to commit any degree of rape, sodomy, or sexual abuse, or incest under KRS 530.020;

(8) “Stalking” refers to conduct prohibited as stalking under KRS 508.140 or 508.150, or a criminal attempt, conspiracy, facilitation, or solicitation to commit the crime of stalking;

(9) “Strangulation” refers to conduct prohibited by KRS 508.170 and 508.175, or a criminal attempt, conspiracy, facilitation, or solicitation to commit the crime of strangulation; and(10) “Substantial violation” means criminal conduct which involves actual or threatened harm to the person, family, or property, including a domestic animal, of an individual protected by an order of protection.

456.030 Petition for interpersonal protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A petition for an interpersonal protective order may be filed by:

(a) A victim of dating violence and abuse;

(b) A victim of stalking;

(c) A victim of sexual assault; or

(d) An adult on behalf of a victim who is a minor otherwise qualifying for relief under this subsection.

(2) The petition may be filed in the victim’s county of residence or a county where the victim has fled to escape dating violence and abuse, stalking, or sexual assault.

(3) The petition shall be verified and contain:

(a) The name, age, address, occupation, residence, and school or postsecondary institution of the petitioner;

(b) The name, age, address, occupation, residence, and school or postsecondary institution of the person or persons who have engaged in the alleged act or acts complained of in the petition;

(c) The facts and circumstances which constitute the basis for the petition; and

(d) The names, ages, and addresses of the petitioner’s minor children, if applicable.

(4) The petition shall be filed on forms prescribed by the Administrative Office of the Courts and provided to the person seeking relief by the circuit clerk or by another individual authorized by the court to provide and verify petitions in emergency situations, such as law enforcement officers, Commonwealth’s or county attorneys, and regional rape crisis centers or domestic violence shelters.

(5) All petitions requested, completed, and signed by persons seeking protection under this chapter shall be accepted and filed with the court.

(6) (a) Jurisdiction over petitions filed under this chapter shall be concurrent between the District Court and Circuit Court.

(b) The Court of Justice shall provide a protocol for twenty-four (24) hour access to interpersonal protective orders in each county with any protocol, whether statewide or local, being subject to Supreme Court review and approval of the initial protocol and any subsequent amendments. This protocol may allow for petitions to be filed in or transferred to a court other than those specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection.

(c) The Court of Justice may authorize by rule that petitions in a specific county be filed in accordance with a supplemental jurisdictional protocol adopted for that county. This protocol may provide for petitions to be filed in or transferred to a court other than those specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection.

(d) 1. In addition to the protocols for twenty-four (24) hour access established under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this subsection, before January 1, 2019, the Court of Justice shall provide protocols for filing, including electronic filing, of petitions for orders of protection at those regional rape crisis centers designated under KRS 211.600, or regional domestic violence shelters designated under KRS 209A.045, that elect to participate in any county’s twenty-four (24) hour access protocol.

2. These protocols shall be subject to Supreme Court review for approval of the initial protocol and any subsequent amendments.

(7) Any judge to whom a petition is referred under subsection (6) of this section shall have full authority to review and hear a petition and subsequently grant and enforce an interpersonal protective order.

(8) If the judge of a court in which there is a pending request for modification or enforcement of an existing order of protection is unavailable or unable to act within a reasonable time, the proceedings may be conducted by any judge of the county in accordance with court rules.

456.040 Review of petition for interpersonal protective order; temporary interpersonal protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) (a) The court shall review a petition for an interpersonal protective order immediately upon its filing. If the review indicates that dating violence and abuse, stalking, or sexual assault exists, the court shall summons the parties to an evidentiary hearing not more than fourteen (14) days in the future. If the review indicates that such a basis does not exist, the court may consider an amended petition or dismiss the petition without prejudice.

(b) Service of the summons and hearing order under this subsection shall be made upon the adverse party personally and may be made in the manner and by the persons authorized to serve subpoenas under Rule 45.03 of the Rules of Civil Procedure. A summons may be reissued if service has not been made on the adverse party by the fixed court date and time.

(2) (a) If the review under this section also indicates the presence of an immediate and present danger of dating violence and abuse, sexual assault, or stalking, the court shall, upon the filing of the petition, issue ex parte a temporary interpersonal protective order that:

1. Authorizes relief appropriate to the situation utilizing the alternatives set out in KRS 456.060;

2. Sets forth which communications, if any, as requested by the petitioner, are authorized and which communications are unauthorized;

3. Expires upon the conclusion of the evidentiary hearing required by this section unless extended or withdrawn by subsequent order of the court; and

4. Does not order or refer the parties to mediation unless requested by the petitioner, and the court finds that:

a. The petitioner’s request is voluntary and not the result of coercion; and

b. Mediation is a realistic and viable alternative to or adjunct to the issuance of an order sought by the petitioner.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to place any restriction or restraint on the petitioner.(b) If an order is not issued under this subsection, the court shall note on the petition, for the record, any action taken or denied and the reason for it.

456.060 Ruling on petition for interpersonal protective order; duration of order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Following a hearing ordered under KRS 456.040, if a court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that dating violence and abuse, sexual assault, or stalking has occurred and may again occur, the court may issue an interpersonal protective order:

(a) Restraining the adverse party from:

1. Committing further acts of dating violence and abuse, stalking, or sexual assault;

2. Any unauthorized contact or communication with the petitioner or other person specified by the court;

3. Approaching the petitioner or other person specified by the court within a distance specified in the order, not to exceed five hundred (500) feet;

4. Going to or within a specified distance of a specifically described residence, school, or place of employment or area where such a place is located; and

5. Disposing of or damaging any of the property of the parties;

(b) Authorizing, at the request of the petitioner:

1. Limited contact or communication between the parties that the court finds necessary; or

2. The parties to remain in a common area, which may necessitate them being closer than five hundred (500) feet under limited circumstances with specific parameters set forth by the court.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to place any restriction or restraint on the petitioner;

(c) Directing or prohibiting any other actions that the court believes will be of assistance in eliminating future acts of dating violence and abuse, stalking, or sexual assault, except that the court shall not order the petitioner to take any affirmative action;

(d) Directing that either or both of the parties receive counseling services available in the community in dating violence and abuse cases; and

(e) Awarding possession of any shared domestic animal to the petitioner.

(2) In imposing a location restriction described in subsection (1)(a)4. of this section, the court shall:

(a) Afford the petitioner and respondent, if present, an opportunity to testify on the issue of the locations and areas from which the respondent should or should not be excluded;

(b) Only impose a location restriction where there is a specific, demonstrable danger to the petitioner or other person protected by the order;

(c) Specifically describe in the order the locations or areas prohibited to the respondent; and

(d) Consider structuring a restriction so as to allow the respondent transit through an area if the respondent does not interrupt his or her travel to harass, harm, or attempt to harass or harm the petitioner.(3) An interpersonal protective order shall be effective for a period of time fixed by the court, not to exceed three (3) years, and may be reissued upon expiration for subsequent periods of up to three (3) years each. The fact that an order has not been violated since its issuance may be considered by a court in hearing a request for a reissuance of the order.

Title L. Penal Code

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 500. General Provisions

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

500.080 Definitions for Kentucky Penal Code

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

 

As used in the Kentucky Penal Code, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Actor” means any natural person and, where relevant, a corporation or an unincorporated association;

(2) “Crime” means a misdemeanor or a felony;

(3) “Dangerous instrument” means any instrument, including parts of the human body when a serious physical injury is a direct result of the use of that part of the human body, article, or substance which, under the circumstances in which it is used, attempted to be used, or threatened to be used, is readily capable of causing death or serious physical injury. “Dangerous instrument” may include a laser;

(4) “Deadly weapon” means any of the following:

(a) A weapon of mass destruction;

(b) Any weapon from which a shot, readily capable of producing death or other serious physical injury, may be discharged;

(c) Any knife other than an ordinary pocket knife or hunting knife;

(d) Billy, nightstick, or club;

(e) Blackjack or slapjack;

(f) Nunchaku karate sticks;

(g) Shuriken or death star; or

(h) Artificial knuckles made from metal, plastic, or other similar hard material;

(5) “Felony” means an offense for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment of at least one (1) year in the custody of the Department of Corrections may be imposed;

(6) “Government” means the United States, any state, county, municipality, or other political unit, or any department, agency, or subdivision of any of the foregoing, or any corporation or other association carrying out the functions of government;

(7) “He” means any natural person and, where relevant, a corporation or an unincorporated association;

(8) “Impacted by the disaster” means the location or in reasonable proximity to the location where a natural or man-made disaster has caused physical injury, serious physical injury, death, or substantial damage to property or infrastructure;

(9) “Laser” means any device designed or used to amplify electromagnetic radiation by stimulated emission that emits a beam, other than a medical laser when used in medical treatment or surgery;

(10) “Law” includes statutes, ordinances, and properly adopted regulatory provisions. Unless the context otherwise clearly requires, “law” also includes the common law;

(11) “Minor” means any person who has not reached the age of majority as defined in KRS 2.015;

(12) “Misdemeanor” means an offense, other than a traffic infraction, for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment of not more than twelve (12) months can be imposed;

(13) “Natural or man-made disaster” means a tornado, storm, or other severe weather, earthquake, flood, or fire that poses a significant threat to human health and safety, property, or critical infrastructure;

(14) “Offense” means conduct for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment or to a fine is provided by any law of this state or by any law, local law, or ordinance of a political subdivision of this state or by any law, order, rule, or regulation of any governmental instrumentality authorized by law to adopt the same;

(15) “Person” means a human being, and where appropriate, a public or private corporation, an unincorporated association, a partnership, a government, or a governmental authority;

(16) “Physical injury” means substantial physical pain or any impairment of physical condition;

(17) “Possession” means to have actual physical possession or otherwise to exercise actual dominion or control over a tangible object;

(18) “Serious physical injury” means physical injury which creates a substantial risk of death, or which causes serious and prolonged disfigurement, prolonged impairment of health, prolonged loss or impairment of the function of any bodily organ, or eye damage or visual impairment. For a child twelve (12) years of age or less at the time of the injury, a serious physical injury includes but is not limited to the following:

(a) Bruising near the eyes, or on the head, neck, or lower back overlying the kidneys;

(b) Any bruising severe enough to cause underlying muscle damage as determined by elevated creatine kinase levels in the blood;

(c) Any bruising or soft tissue injury to the genitals that affects the ability to urinate or defecate;

(d) Any testicular injury sufficient to put fertility at risk;

(e) Any burn near the eyes or involving the mouth, airway, or esophagus;

(f) Any burn deep enough to leave scarring or dysfunction of the body;

(g) Any burn requiring hospitalization, debridement in the operating room, IV fluids, intubation, or admission to a hospital’s intensive care unit;

(h) Rib fracture;

(i) Scapula or sternum fractures;

(j) Any broken bone that requires surgery;

(k) Head injuries that result in intracranial bleeding, skull fracture, or brain injury;

(l) A concussion that results in the child becoming limp, unresponsive, or results in seizure activity;

(m) Abdominal injuries that indicate internal organ damage regardless of whether surgery is required;

(n) Any injury requiring surgery;

(o) Any injury that requires a blood transfusion; and

(p) Any injury requiring admission to a hospital’s critical care unit;

(19) “Unlawful” means contrary to law or, where the context so requires, not permitted by law. It does not mean wrongful or immoral;

(20) “Violation” means an offense, other than a traffic infraction, for which a sentence to a fine only can be imposed; and

(21) “Weapon of mass destruction” means:

(a) Any destructive device as defined in KRS 237.030, but not fireworks as defined in KRS 227.700;

(b) Any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious physical injury through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals or their precursors;

(c) Any weapon involving a disease organism; or

(d) Any weapon that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.

500.090 Forfeiture

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Except as provided in KRS 500.092, all property which is subject to forfeiture under any section of the Kentucky Penal Code shall be disposed of in accordance with this section.

(a) Property other than firearms which is forfeited under any section of this code may, upon order of the trial court, be destroyed by the sheriff of the county in which the conviction was obtained.

(b) Property other than firearms which is forfeited under any section of this code may, upon order of the trial court, be sold at public auction. The expenses of keeping and selling such property and the amount of all valid recorded liens that are established by intervention as being bona fide shall be paid out of the proceeds of the sale. The balance shall be paid to:

1. The state, if the property was seized by an agency of the state or peace officer thereof;

2. The county, if the property was seized by the sheriff or an agency or peace officer of the county;

3. The Department of Fish and Wildlife Resources, if the property was seized by a peace officer of the Department of Fish and Wildlife or was seized by any other officer for violation of KRS Chapter 150;

4. The city, if the property was seized by the city or by an agency or peace officer thereof and the property was delivered to the city property clerk;

5. The city (ninety percent (90%) of the proceeds) and the sheriff (ten percent (10%) of the proceeds), if the property was seized by the city or by an agency or peace officer thereof and the property was delivered to the sheriff or the county police; or

6. The state, if the property was seized by any combination of agencies listed above.

(c) Subject to the duty to return confiscated firearms and ammunition to innocent owners pursuant to this section, all firearms and ammunition confiscated by a state or local law enforcement agency, all firearms ordered forfeited by a court, and all abandoned firearms and ammunition coming into the custody of a state or local law enforcement agency and not retained for official use shall be transferred to the Department of Kentucky State Police for disposition as provided by KRS 16.220. The transfer shall occur not more than ninety (90) days after the abandonment of the firearm or ammunition to the law enforcement agency or not more than ninety (90) days after its confiscation, unless a court requires the firearm or ammunition for use as evidence, in which case it shall be transferred to the Department of Kentucky State Police not more than ninety (90) days following the order of forfeiture by the court or after the court returns the firearm or ammunition from use as evidence. Prior to the sale of any firearm or ammunition, the law enforcement agency shall make a bona fide attempt to determine if the firearm or ammunition to be sold has been stolen or otherwise unlawfully obtained from an innocent owner and return the firearm and ammunition to its lawful innocent owner, unless that person is ineligible to purchase a firearm under federal law. This subsection relating to auction of firearms and ammunition shall not apply to firearms and ammunition auctioned by the Department of Fish and Wildlife that may be sold to individual purchasers residing in Kentucky who are eligible under federal law to purchase firearms and ammunition of the type auctioned.

(d) If property which is forfeited under any section of this code is determined by the trial court to be worthless, encumbered with liens in excess of its value, or otherwise a burdensome asset, the court may abandon any interest in such property. Property which is abandoned pursuant to this section shall be returned to the lawful claimant upon payment of expenses for keeping the property.

(e) Property which is forfeited under any section of this code may, upon order of the trial court, be retained for official use in the following manner. Property which has been seized by an agency of the state may be retained for official state use. Property which has been seized by an agency of county, city, or urban-county government may be retained for official use by the government whose agency seized the property or for official state use. Property seized by any other unit of government may be retained only for official state use. The expenses for keeping and transferring such property shall be paid by the unit of government by which the property is retained.

(2) Money which has been obtained or conferred in violation of any section of this code shall, upon conviction, be forfeited for the use of the state. This subsection shall not apply when, during the course of the proceeding in which the conviction is obtained, the person from whom said money was unlawfully acquired is identified.

(3) Property forfeited under any section of this code shall be disposed of in accordance with this section only after being advertised pursuant to KRS Chapter 424. This subsection shall not apply to property which is designed and suitable only for criminal use or to money forfeited under subsection (2) of this section.

(4) The trial court shall remit the forfeiture of property when the lawful claimant:

(a) Asserts his or her claim before disposition of the property pursuant to this section;

(b) Establishes his or her legal interest in the property; and

(c) Establishes that the unlawful use of the property was without his or her knowledge and consent. This subsection shall not apply to a lienholder of record when the trial court elects to dispose of the property pursuant to subsection (1)(b) of this section.

(5) For purposes of this section, “lawful claimant” means owner or lienholder of record.

(6) Before property which has had its identity obscured in violation of KRS 514.120may be sold or retained for official use as provided in this section, the court shall cause a serial or other identifying number to be placed thereon, and a record of the number assigned shall be placed in the court order authorizing the sale or retention of the property. This number shall be assigned, whenever applicable, in consultation with the Department of Kentucky State Police and any other state or federal regulatory agency. The purchaser of the property shall be given a document stating that the property had been forfeited pursuant to law and that a number, shown on the document, has been assigned which shall be deemed as compliance of the owner with KRS 514.120. When property is returned to an owner pursuant to this section and its identity has been obscured by another person in violation of KRS 514.120, the court shall provide a document to the owner relieving him or her of liability for its continued possession. This document shall serve as evidence of compliance with KRS 514.120 by the owner or any person to whom he or she lawfully disposes of the property. This section shall not apply to any person after property has been sold or returned in compliance with this section who violates the provisions of KRS 514.120 with respect to that property.

(7) Before forfeiture of any property under this section, it shall be the duty of the trial court to determine if a lawful owner or claimant to the property has been identified or is identifiable. If a lawful owner or claimant has been identified or is identifiable, the court shall notify the owner or claimant that the property is being held and specify a reasonable period of time during which the claim may be made or may, in lieu thereof, order the return of the property to the lawful owner or claimant. If the lawful owner or claimant does not assert his or her claim to the property after notification or if he or she renounces his or her claim to the property, the property shall be disposed of as provided in this section. It shall be the duty of all peace officers and other public officers or officials having knowledge of the lawful owner or claimant of property subject to forfeiture to report the same to the trial court before the act of forfeiture occurs.Credits

Chapter 508. Assault and Related Offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

508.010 Assault in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of assault in the first degree when:

(a) He intentionally causes serious physical injury to another person by means of a deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument; or

(b) Under circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life he wantonly engages in conduct which creates a grave risk of death to another and thereby causes serious physical injury to another person.

(2) Assault in the first degree is a Class B felony.

508.020 Assault in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of assault in the second degree when:

(a) He intentionally causes serious physical injury to another person; or

(b) He intentionally causes physical injury to another person by means of a deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument; or

(c) He wantonly causes serious physical injury to another person by means of a deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument.

(2) Assault in the second degree is a Class C felony.

508.025 Assault in the third degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of assault in the third degree when the actor:

(a) Recklessly, with a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument, or intentionally causes or attempts to cause physical injury to:

1. A state, county, city, or federal peace officer;

2. An employee of a detention facility, or state residential treatment facility or state staff secure facility for residential treatment which provides for the care, treatment, or detention of a juvenile charged with or adjudicated delinquent because of a public offense or as a youthful offender;

3. A healthcare provider as defined in KRS 311.821, if the event occurs while the healthcare provider is providing medical care in an emergency room of a hospital;

4. An employee of the Department for Community Based Services employed as a social worker to provide direct client services, if the event occurs while the worker is performing job-related duties;

5. Paid or volunteer emergency medical services personnel certified or licensed pursuant to KRS Chapter 311A, if the event occurs while personnel are performing job-related duties;

6. A paid or volunteer member of an organized fire department, if the event occurs while the member is performing job-related duties;

7. Paid or volunteer rescue squad personnel affiliated with the Division of Emergency Management of the Department of Military Affairs or a local disaster and emergency services organization pursuant to KRS Chapter 39F, if the event occurs while personnel are performing job-related duties;

8. A probation and parole officer;

9. A transportation officer appointed by a county fiscal court or legislative body of a consolidated local government, urban-county government, or charter government to transport inmates when the county jail or county correctional facility is closed while the transportation officer is performing job-related duties;

10. A public or private elementary or secondary school or school district classified or certified employee, school bus driver, or other school employee acting in the course and scope of the employee’s employment; or

11. A public or private elementary or secondary school or school district volunteer acting in the course and scope of that person’s volunteer service for the school or school district;

(b) Being a person confined in a detention facility, or a juvenile in a state residential treatment facility or state staff secure facility for residential treatment which provides for the care, treatment, or detention of a juvenile charged with or adjudicated delinquent because of a public offense or as a youthful offender, inflicts physical injury upon or throws or causes feces, or urine, or other bodily fluid to be thrown upon an employee of the facility; or

(c) Intentionally causes a person, whom the actor knows or reasonably should know to be a peace officer discharging official duties, to come into contact with saliva, vomit, mucus, blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces without the consent of the peace officer.

(2) (a) For a violation of subsection (1)(a) of this section, assault in the third degree is a Class D felony, unless the offense occurs during a declared emergency as defined by KRS 39A.020 arising from a natural or man-made disaster, within the area covered by the emergency declaration, and within the area impacted by the disaster, in which case it is a Class C felony.

(b) For a violation of subsection (1)(b) of this section, assault in the third degree is a Class D felony.

(c) For violations of subsection (1)(c) of this section, assault in the third degree is a Class B misdemeanor, unless the assault is with saliva, vomit, mucus, blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces from an adult who knows that he or she has a serious communicable disease and competent medical or epidemiological evidence demonstrates that the specific type of contact caused by the actor is likely to cause transmission of the disease or condition, in which case it is a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) As used in paragraph (c) of this subsection, “serious communicable disease” means a non-airborne disease that is transmitted from person to person and determined to have significant, long-term consequences on the physical health or life activities of the person infected.

508.030 Assault in the fourth degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of assault in the fourth degree when:

(a) He intentionally or wantonly causes physical injury to another person; or

(b) With recklessness he causes physical injury to another person by means of a deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument.

(2) Assault in the fourth degree is a Class A misdemeanor.

508.032 Assault of family member or member of an unmarried couple

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) If a person commits a third or subsequent offense of assault in the fourth degree under KRS 508.030 within five (5) years, and the relationship between the perpetrator and the victim in each of the offenses meets the definition of family member or member of an unmarried couple, as defined in KRS 403.720, then the person may be convicted of a Class D felony. If the Commonwealth desires to utilize the provisions of this section, the Commonwealth shall indict the defendant and the case shall be tried in the Circuit Court as a felony case. The jury, or judge if the trial is without a jury, may decline to assess a felony penalty in a case under this section and may convict the defendant of a misdemeanor. The victim in the second or subsequent offense is not required to be the same person who was assaulted in the prior offenses in order for the provisions of this section to apply.

(2) In determining the five (5) year period under this section, the period shall be measured from the dates on which the offenses occurred for which the judgments of conviction were entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

508.040 Assault under extreme emotional disturbance

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) In any prosecution under KRS 508.010, 508.020 or 508.030 in which intentionally causing physical injury or serious physical injury is an element of the offense, the defendant may establish in mitigation that he acted under the influence of extreme emotional disturbance, as defined in subsection (1)(a) of KRS 507.020.

(2) An assault committed under the influence of extreme emotional disturbance is:

(a) A Class D felony when it would constitute an assault in the first degree or an assault in the second degree if not committed under the influence of an extreme emotional disturbance; or

(b) A Class B misdemeanor when it would constitute an assault in the fourth degree if not committed under the influence of an extreme emotional disturbance.

508.050 Menacing

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of menacing when he intentionally places another person in reasonable apprehension of imminent physical injury.

(2) Menacing is a Class B misdemeanor.

508.060 Wanton endangerment in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of wanton endangerment in the first degree when, under circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life, he wantonly engages in conduct which creates a substantial danger of death or serious physical injury to another person.

(2) Wanton endangerment in the first degree is a Class D felony.

508.070 Wanton endangerment in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of wanton endangerment in the second degree when he wantonly engages in conduct which creates a substantial danger of physical injury to another person.

(2) Wanton endangerment in the second degree is a Class A misdemeanor.

508.100 Criminal abuse in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal abuse in the first degree when he intentionally abuses another person or permits another person of whom he has actual custody to be abused and thereby:

(a) Causes serious physical injury;

(b) Places him in a situation that may cause him serious physical injury; or

(c) Causes torture, cruel confinement or cruel punishment;

to a person twelve (12) years of age or less, or who is physically helpless or mentally helpless.(2) Criminal abuse in the first degree is a Class C felony unless the victim is under twelve (12) years old, in which case it is a Class B felony.

508.110 Criminal abuse in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal abuse in the second degree when he wantonly abuses another person or permits another person of whom he has actual custody to be abused and thereby:

(a) Causes serious physical injury; or

(b) Places him in a situation that may cause him serious physical injury; or

(c) Causes torture, cruel confinement or cruel punishment;

to a person twelve (12) years of age or less, or who is physically helpless or mentally helpless.

(2) Criminal abuse in the second degree is a Class D felony.

508.120 Criminal abuse in the third degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal abuse in the third degree when he recklessly abuses another person or permits another person of whom he has actual custody to be abused and thereby:

(a) Causes serious physical injury; or

(b) Places him in a situation that may cause him serious physical injury; or

(c) Causes torture, cruel confinement or cruel punishment;

to a person twelve (12) years of age or less, or who is physically helpless or mentally helpless.

(2) Criminal abuse in the third degree is a Class A misdemeanor.

508.130 Definitions for KRS 508.130 to 508.150

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

As used in KRS 508.130 to 508.150, unless the context requires otherwise:

(1) (a) To “stalk” means to engage in an intentional course of conduct:

1. Directed at a specific person or persons;

2. Which seriously alarms, annoys, intimidates, or harasses the person or persons; and

3. Which serves no legitimate purpose.

(b) The course of conduct shall be that which would cause a reasonable person to suffer substantial mental distress.

(2) “Course of conduct” means a pattern of conduct composed of two (2) or more acts, evidencing a continuity of purpose. One (1) or more of these acts may include the use of any equipment, instrument, machine, or other device by which communication or information is transmitted, including computers, the Internet or other electronic network, cameras or other recording devices, telephones or other personal communications devices, scanners or other copying devices, and any device that enables the use of a transmitting device. Constitutionally protected activity is not included within the meaning of “course of conduct.” If the defendant claims that he was engaged in constitutionally protected activity, the court shall determine the validity of that claim as a matter of law and, if found valid, shall exclude that activity from evidence.

(3) “Protective order” means:

(a) An emergency protective order or domestic violence order issued under KRS 403.715 to 403.785;

(b) A foreign protective order, as defined in KRS 403.720 and 456.010;

(c) An order issued under KRS 431.064;

(d) A restraining order issued in accordance with KRS 508.155;

(e) An order of protection as defined in KRS 403.720 and 456.010; and

(f) Any condition of a bond, conditional release, probation, parole, or pretrial diversion order designed to protect the victim from the offender.

508.140 Stalking in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of stalking in the first degree,

(a) When he intentionally:

1. Stalks another person; and
2. Makes an explicit or implicit threat with the intent to place that person in reasonable fear of:

a. Sexual contact as defined in KRS 510.010;
b. Serious physical injury; or
c. Death; and

(b) 1. A protective order has been issued by the court to protect the same victim or victims and the defendant has been served with the summons or order or has been given actual notice; or

2. A criminal complaint is currently pending with a court, law enforcement agency, or prosecutor by the same victim or victims and the defendant has been served with a summons or warrant or has been given actual notice; or

3. The defendant has been convicted of or pled guilty within the previous five (5) years to a felony or to a Class A misdemeanor against the same victim or victims; or

4. The act or acts were committed while the defendant had a deadly weapon on or about his person.

(2) Stalking in the first degree is a Class D felony.

508.150 Stalking in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of stalking in the second degree when he intentionally:

(a) Stalks another person; and
(b) Makes an explicit or implicit threat with the intent to place that person in reasonable fear of:

1. Sexual contact as defined in KRS 510.010;
2. Physical injury; or
3. Death.

(2) Stalking in the second degree is a Class A misdemeanor.

508.170 Strangulation in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of strangulation in the first degree when the person, without consent, intentionally impedes the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of another person by:

(a) Applying pressure on the throat or neck of the other person; or

(b) Blocking the nose or mouth of the other person.

(2) Strangulation in the first degree is a Class C felony.

508.175 Strangulation in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of strangulation in the second degree when the person, without consent, wantonly impedes the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of another person by:

(a) Applying pressure on the throat or neck of the other person; or

(b) Blocking the nose or mouth of the other person.

(2) Strangulation in the second degree is a Class D felony.

Chapter 509. Kidnapping and Related Offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

509.020 Unlawful imprisonment in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of unlawful imprisonment in the first degree when he knowingly and unlawfully restrains another person under circumstances which expose that person to a risk of serious physical injury.

(2) Unlawful imprisonment in the first degree is a Class D felony.

509.030 Unlawful imprisonment in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of unlawful imprisonment in the second degree when he knowingly and unlawfully restrains another person.

(2) Unlawful imprisonment in the second degree is a Class A misdemeanor.

509.040 Kidnapping

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of kidnapping when he unlawfully restrains another person and when his intent is:

(a) To hold him for ransom or reward; or

(b) To accomplish or to advance the commission of a felony; or

(c) To inflict bodily injury or to terrorize the victim or another; or

(d) To interfere with the performance of a governmental or political function; or

(e) To use him as a shield or hostage; or

(f) To deprive the parents or guardian of the custody of a minor, when the person taking the minor is not a person exercising custodial control or supervision of the minor as the term “person exercising custodial control or su-pervision” is defined in KRS 600.020.

(2) Kidnapping is a Class B felony when the victim is released alive and in a safe place prior to trial, except as provided in this section. Kidnapping is a Class A felony when the victim is released alive but the victim has suffered serious physical injury during the kidnapping, or as a result of not being released in a safe place, or as a result of being released in any circumstances which are intended, known or should have been known to cause or lead to serious physical injury. Kidnapping is a capital offense when the victim is not released alive or when the victim is released alive but subsequently dies as a result of:

(a) Serious physical injuries suffered during the kidnapping; or

(b) Not being released in a safe place; or

(c) Being released in any circumstances which are intended, known or should have been known to cause or lead to the victim’s death.

509.070 Custodial interference

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of custodial interference when, knowing that he has no legal right to do so, he takes, entices or keeps from lawful custody any mentally disabled or other person entrusted by authority of law to the custody of another person or to an institution.

(2) It is a defense to custodial interference that the person taken from lawful custody was returned by the defendant voluntarily and before arrest or the issuance of a warrant for arrest.

(3) Custodial interference is a Class D felony unless the person taken from lawful custody is returned voluntarily by the defendant.

Chapter 510. Sexual Offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

510.037 Conviction for rape, sodomy, or sexual abuse or for criminal attempt, conspiracy, facilitation, or solicitation to commit any degree of these crimes triggers application for interpersonal protective order

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

The entering of a judgment of conviction for any degree of rape, sodomy, or sexual abuse under this chapter, or for a criminal attempt, conspiracy, facilitation, or solicitation to commit any degree of rape, sodomy, or sexual abuse, shall operate as an application for an interpersonal protective order issued under KRS Chapter 456, unless the victim requests otherwise. Notwithstanding the provisions of KRS Chapter 456:

(1) An interpersonal protective order requested under this subsection may be issued by the court that entered the judgment of conviction;

(2) The judgment of conviction shall constitute sufficient cause for the entry of the order without the necessity of further proof being taken; and

(3) The order may be effective for up to ten (10) years, with further renewals in increments of up to ten (10) years.

510.040 Rape in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of rape in the first degree when:

(a) He engages in sexual intercourse with another person by forcible compulsion; or

(b) He engages in sexual intercourse with another person who is incapable of consent because he:

1. Is physically helpless; or

2. Is less than twelve (12) years old.

(2) Rape in the first degree is a Class B felony unless the victim is under twelve (12) years old or receives a serious physical injury in which case it is a Class A felony.

510.050 Rape in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of rape in the second degree when:

(a) Being eighteen (18) years old or more, he or she engages in sexual intercourse with another person less than fourteen (14) years old; or

(b) He or she engages in sexual intercourse with another person who is mentally incapacitated or who is incapable of consent because he or she is an individual with an intellectual disability.

(2) Rape in the second degree is a Class C felony.

510.060 Rape in the third degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of rape in the third degree when:

(a) Being twenty-one (21) years old or more, he or she engages in sexual intercourse with another person less than sixteen (16) years old;

(b) Being at least ten (10) years older than a person who is sixteen (16) or seventeen (17) years old at the time of sexual intercourse, he or she engages in sexual intercourse with the person;

(c) Being twenty-one (21) years old or more, he or she engages in sexual intercourse with another person less than eighteen (18) years old and for whom he or she provides a foster family home as defined in KRS 600.020;

(d) Being a person in a position of authority or position of special trust, as defined in KRS 532.045, he or she engages in sexual intercourse with a minor under eighteen (18) years old with whom he or she comes into contact as a result of that position;

(e) Being a jailer, or an employee, contractor, vendor, or volunteer of the Department of Corrections, Department of Juvenile Justice, or a detention facility as defined in KRS 520.010, or of an entity under contract with either department or a detention facility for the custody, supervision, evaluation, or treatment of offenders, he or she subjects a person who he or she knows is incarcerated, supervised, evaluated, or treated by the Department of Corrections, Department of Juvenile Justice, detention facility, or contracting entity, to sexual intercourse; or

(f) Being a peace officer, while serving in his or her official capacity, he or she subjects a person who the officer:

1. Arrested, held in custody, or investigated for commission of a traffic or criminal offense; or

2. Knew or should have known was under arrest, held in custody, or being investigated for commission of a traffic or criminal offense;

to sexual intercourse.

(2) Rape in the third degree is a Class D felony.

510.110 Sexual abuse in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of sexual abuse in the first degree when:

(a) He or she subjects another person to sexual contact by forcible compulsion; or

(b) He or she subjects another person to sexual contact who is incapable of consent because he or she:

1. Is physically helpless;

2. Is less than twelve (12) years old;

3. Is mentally incapacitated; or

4. Is an individual with an intellectual disability; or

(c) Being twenty-one (21) years old or more, he or she:

1. Subjects another person who is less than sixteen (16) years old to sexual contact;

2. Engages in masturbation in the presence of another person who is less than sixteen (16) years old and knows or has reason to know the other person is present; or

3. Engages in masturbation while using the Internet, telephone, or other electronic communication device while communicating with a minor who the person knows is less than sixteen (16) years old, and the minor can see or hear the person masturbate; or

(d) Being a person in a position of authority or position of special trust, as defined in KRS 532.045, he or she, regardless of his or her age, subjects a minor who is less than eighteen (18) years old, with whom he or she comes into contact as a result of that position, to sexual contact or engages in masturbation in the presence of the minor and knows or has reason to know the minor is present or engages in masturbation while using the Internet, telephone, or other electronic communication device while communicating with a minor who the person knows is less than sixteen (16) years old, and the minor can see or hear the person masturbate.

(2) Sexual abuse in the first degree is a Class D felony, unless the victim is less than twelve (12) years old, in which case the offense shall be a Class C felony.

510.120 Sexual abuse in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of sexual abuse in the second degree when:

(a) He or she is at least eighteen (18) years old but less than twenty-one (21) years old and subjects another person who is less than sixteen (16) years old to sexual contact;

(b) Being a jailer, or an employee, contractor, vendor, or volunteer of the Department of Corrections, Department of Juvenile Justice, or a detention facility as defined in KRS 520.010, or of an entity under contract with either department or a detention facility for the custody, supervision, evaluation, or treatment of offenders, he or she subjects a person who is at least eighteen (18) years old and who he or she knows is incarcerated, supervised, evaluated, or treated by the Department of Corrections, Department of Juvenile Justice, detention facility, or contracting entity, to sexual contact; or

(c) Being a peace officer, while serving in his or her official capacity, he or she subjects a person who the officer:

1. Arrested, held in custody, or investigated for commission of a traffic or criminal offense; or

2. Knew or should have known was under arrest, held in custody, or being investigated for commission of a traffic or criminal offense;

to sexual contact.

(2) In any prosecution under subsection (1)(a) of this section, it is a defense that:

(a) The other person’s lack of consent was due solely to incapacity to consent by reason of being less than sixteen (16) years old; and

(b) The other person was at least fourteen (14) years old; and

(c) The actor was less than five (5) years older than the other person.

(3) Sexual abuse in the second degree is a Class A misdemeanor.

510.130 Sexual abuse in the third degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of sexual abuse in the third degree when he or she subjects another person to sexual contact without the latter’s consent.

(2) In any prosecution under this section, it is a defense that:

(a) The other person’s lack of consent was due solely to incapacity to consent by reason of being less than sixteen (16) years old; and

(b) The other person was at least fourteen (14) years old; and

(c) The actor was less than eighteen (18) years old.

(3) Sexual abuse in the third degree is a Class B misdemeanor.

510.140 Sexual misconduct

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of sexual misconduct when he engages in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual intercourse with another person without the latter’s consent.

(2) Sexual misconduct is a Class A misdemeanor.

Chapter 511. Burglary and Related Offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

511.060 Criminal trespass in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the first degree when he or she knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in a dwelling.

(2) Criminal trespass in the first degree is a Class A misdemeanor, unless the offense occurs during a declared emergency as defined by KRS 39A.020 arising from a natural or man-made disaster, within the area covered by the emergency declaration, and within the area impacted by the disaster, in which case it is a Class D felony.

511.070 Criminal trespass in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the second degree when he or she knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in a building or upon premises as to which notice against trespass is given by fencing or other enclosure.

(2) Criminal trespass in the second degree is a Class B misdemeanor, unless the offense occurs during a declared emergency as defined by KRS 39A.020 arising from a natural or man-made disaster, within the area covered by the emergency declaration, and within the area impacted by the disaster, in which case it is a Class A misdemeanor.

511.080 Criminal trespass in the third degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the third degree when he knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in or upon premises.(2) Criminal trespass in the third degree is a violation, unless the offense occurs during a declared emergency as defined by KRS 39A.020 arising from a natural or man-made disaster, within the area covered by the emergency declaration, and within the area impacted by the disaster, in which case it is a Class B misdemeanor.

511.085 Domestic violence shelter trespass

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) As used in this section, “domestic violence shelter” means a residential facility providing protective shelter services for domestic violence victims.

(2) A person is guilty of domestic violence shelter trespass when:

(a) The person enters the buildings or premises of a domestic violence shelter that the person knows or should know is a domestic violence shelter or which is clearly marked on the building or premises as being a domestic violence shelter; and

(b) At the time of the entering, the person is the subject of an order of protection as defined in KRS 403.720 and 456.010.

(3) It shall be a defense to a prosecution under this section that the person entered the shelter with the permission of the operator of the shelter after disclosing to the operator that the person is the subject of an order of protection or a foreign protective order. Authority to enter under this subsection may not be granted by a person taking shelter at the facility.

(4) A person shall not be convicted of a violation of this section and a violation of KRS 511.060, 511.070, or 511.080arising from the same act of trespass.

(5) Domestic violence shelter trespass is a Class A misdemeanor.

Chapter 512. Criminal Damage to Property

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

512.020 Criminal mischief in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the first degree when, having no right to do so or any reasonable ground to believe that he or she has such right, he or she intentionally or wantonly:

(a) Defaces, destroys, or damages any property causing pecuniary loss of one thousand dollars ($1,000) or more;

(b) Tampers with the operations of a key infrastructure asset, as defined in KRS 511.100, in a manner that renders the operations harmful or dangerous; or

(c) As a tenant, intentionally or wantonly defaces, destroys, or damages residential rental property causing pecuniary loss of one thousand dollars ($1,000) or more.

(2) Criminal mischief in the first degree is a Class D felony, unless the offense occurs during a declared emergency as defined by KRS 39A.020 arising from a natural or man-made disaster, within the area covered by the emergency declaration, and within the area impacted by the disaster, in which case it is a Class C felony.

512.030 Criminal mischief in the second degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the second degree when, having no right to do so or any reasonable ground to believe that he or she has such right, he or she:

(a) Intentionally or wantonly defaces, destroys, or damages any property causing pecuniary loss of five hundred dollars ($500) or more but less than one thousand dollars ($1,000); or

(b) As a tenant, intentionally or wantonly defaces, destroys, or damages residential rental property causing pecuniary loss of five hundred dollars ($500) or more but less than one thousand dollars ($1,000).(2) Criminal mischief in the second degree is a Class A misdemeanor, unless the offense occurs during a declared emergency as defined by KRS 39A.020 arising from a natural or man-made disaster, within the area covered by the emergency declaration, and within the area impacted by the disaster, in which case it is a Class D felony.

512.040 Criminal mischief in the third degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the third degree when:

(a) Having no right to do so or any reasonable ground to believe that he or she has such right, he or she intentionally or wantonly defaces, destroys, or damages any property causing pecuniary loss of less than five hundred dollars ($500);

(b) He or she tampers with property so as knowingly to endanger the person or property of another; or

(c) He or she as a tenant, and having no right to do so or any reasonable grounds to believe that he or she has such right, intentionally or wantonly defaces, destroys, or damages residential rental property causing pecuniary loss of less than five hundred dollars ($500).(2) Criminal mischief in the third degree is a Class B misdemeanor, unless the offense occurs during a declared emergency as defined by KRS 39A.020 arising from a natural or man-made disaster, within the area covered by the emergency declaration, and within the area impacted by the disaster, in which case it is a Class A misdemeanor.

Chapter 514. Theft and Related Offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

514.160 Theft of identity

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of the theft of the identity of another when he or she knowingly possesses or uses any current or former identifying information of the other person or family member or ancestor of the other person, such as that person’s or family member’s or ancestor’s name, address, telephone number, electronic mail address, Social Security number, driver’s license number, birth date, personal identification number or code, and any other information which could be used to identify the person, including unique biometric data, with the intent to represent that he or she is the other person for the purpose of:

(a) Depriving the other person of property;

(b) Obtaining benefits or property to which he or she would otherwise not be entitled;

(c) Making financial or credit transactions using the other person’s identity;

(d) Avoiding detection; or

(e) Commercial or political benefit.

(2) Theft of identity is a Class D felony. If the person violating this section is a business that has violated this section on more than one (1) occasion, then that person also violates the Consumer Protection Act, KRS 367.110 to 367.300.

(3) This section shall not apply when a person obtains the identity of another to misrepresent his or her age for the purpose of obtaining alcoholic beverages, tobacco, or another privilege denied to minors.

(4) This section does not apply to credit or debit card fraud under KRS 434.550 to 434.730.

(5) Where the offense consists of theft by obtaining or trafficking in the personal identity of another person, the venue of the prosecution may be in either the county where the offense was committed or the county where the other person resides.

(6) A person found guilty of violating any provisions of this section shall forfeit any lawful claim to the identifying information, property, or other realized benefit of the other person as a result of such violation.

Chapter 525. Riot, Disorderly Conduct, and Related Offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

525.070 Harassment

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of harassment when, with intent to intimidate, harass, annoy, or alarm another person, he or she:

(a) Strikes, shoves, kicks, or otherwise subjects him to physical contact;

(b) Attempts or threatens to strike, shove, kick, or otherwise subject the person to physical contact;

(c) In a public place, makes an offensively coarse utterance, gesture, or display, or addresses abusive language to any person present;

(d) Follows a person in or about a public place or places;

(e) Engages in a course of conduct or repeatedly commits acts which alarm or seriously annoy such other person and which serve no legitimate purpose; or

(f) Being enrolled as a student in a local school district, and while on school premises, on school-sponsored transportation, or at a school-sponsored event:

1. Damages or commits a theft of the property of another student;

2. Substantially disrupts the operation of the school; or

3. Creates a hostile environment by means of any gestures, written communications, oral statements, or physical acts that a reasonable person under the circumstances should know would cause another student to suffer fear of physical harm, intimidation, humiliation, or embarrassment.

(2) (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, harassment is a violation.

(b) Harassment, as defined in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of this section, is a Class B misdemeanor.

525.080 Harassing communications

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of harassing communications when, with intent to intimidate, harass, annoy, or alarm another person, he or she:

(a) Communicates with a person, anonymously or otherwise, by telephone, telegraph, mail, or any other form of electronic or written communication in a manner which causes annoyance or alarm and serves no purpose of legitimate communication;

(b) Makes a telephone call, whether or not conversation ensues, with no purpose of legitimate communication; or

(c) Communicates, while enrolled as a student in a local school district, with or about another school student, anonymously or otherwise, by telephone, the Internet, telegraph, mail, or any other form of electronic or written communication in a manner which a reasonable person under the circumstances should know would cause the other student to suffer fear of physical harm, intimidation, humiliation, or embarrassment and which serves no purpose of legitimate communication.

(2) Harassing communications is a Class B misdemeanor.

525.085 Dissemination of personally identifying information

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) For the purposes of this section:

(a) “Dissemination” means electronically publishing, posting, or otherwise disclosing information to a public Internet site or public forum;

(b) “Household member” means a person who regularly resides in the household or who within the six (6) months preceding the conduct of the offense regularly resided in the household;

(c) “Immediate family member” means a parent, grandparent, spouse, child, stepchild, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, sibling, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, or grandchild; and

(d) “Personally identifying information” means information that identifies or reasonably can be used to identify an individual, including but not limited to:

1. Social Security number or other government-issued identifier;

2. Date of birth;

3. Home or physical address;

4. Electronic-mail address or telephone number;

5. Financial account number or credit or debit card number;

6. Biometric, health, or medical data, or insurance information; or

7. School or employment locations.

(2) A person is guilty of disseminating personally identifying information about another person when, with the intent to intimidate, abuse, threaten, harass, or frighten a person who resides in the Commonwealth, he or she:

(a) Intentionally disseminates the personally identifying information of the person or a person’s immediate family member or household member; and

(b) The dissemination would cause a reasonable person to be in fear of physical injury to himself or herself, or to his or her immediate family member or household member.

(3) This section shall apply to electronic communications originating within or accessible within the Commonwealth.

(4) Disseminating personally identifying information is a Class A misdemeanor, unless the dissemination results in:

(a) Physical injury to the victim or to a victim’s immediate family member or household member, in which case it is a Class D felony;

(b) Serious physical injury to the victim or to a victim’s immediate family member or household member, in which case it is a Class C felony; or

(c) Death of the victim or of a victim’s immediate family member or household member, in which case it is a Class B felony.

(5) Nothing in this section shall be construed to impose liability on a broadband Internet access service provider, a telecommunications service provider, an interconnected VoIP provider, or a mobile service provider as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 153, a commercial mobile service provider as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 332(d), or a cable operator as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 522, when acting in its capacity as a provider of those services.

525.125 Cruelty to animals in the first degree

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) As used in this section:

(a) “Dog” means a domesticated canid of the genus canis lupus familiaris; and

(b) “Dog fight” or “dog fighting” means any event that involves a fight conducted or to be conducted between at least two (2) dogs for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment, except that the term “dog fight” or “dog fighting” shall not be deemed to include any activity the purpose of which involves the use of one (1) or more dogs in hunting or taking another animal.

(2) The following persons are guilty of cruelty to animals in the first degree:

(a) Whenever a dog is knowingly caused to dog fight for pleasure or profit:

1. The owner of the dog;

2. The owner of the property on which the fight is conducted if the owner knows of the dog fight; and

3. Anyone who participates in the organization of the dog fight; and

(b) Any person who knowingly owns, possesses, keeps, trains, sells, or otherwise transfers a dog for the purpose of dog fighting.

(3) Activities of dogs engaged in hunting, field trials, dog training, and other activities authorized either by a hunting license or by the Department of Fish and Wildlife Resources shall not constitute a violation of this section.

(4) Activities of dogs engaged in working or guarding livestock shall not constitute a violation of this section.(5) Cruelty to animals in the first degree is a Class D felony.

525.130 Cruelty to animals in the second degree; exemptions; offense involving equines

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of cruelty to animals in the second degree when except as authorized by law he intentionally or wantonly:

(a) Subjects any animal to or causes cruel or injurious mistreatment through abandonment, participates other than as provided in KRS 525.125 in causing it to fight for pleasure or profit (including, but not limited to being a spectator or vendor at an event where a four (4) legged animal is caused to fight for pleasure or profit), mutilation, beating, torturing any animal other than a dog or cat, tormenting, failing to provide adequate food, drink, space, or health care, or by any other means;

(b) Subjects any animal in his custody to cruel neglect; or

(c) Kills any animal other than a domestic animal killed by poisoning. This paragraph shall not apply to intentional poisoning of a dog or cat. Intentional poisoning of a dog or cat shall constitute a violation of this section.

(2) Nothing in this section shall apply to the killing of animals:

(a) Pursuant to a license to hunt, fish, or trap;

(b) Incident to the processing as food or for other commercial purposes;

(c) For humane purposes;

(d) For veterinary, agricultural, spaying or neutering, or cosmetic purposes;

(e) For purposes relating to sporting activities, including but not limited to horse racing at organized races and training for organized races, organized horse shows, or other animal shows;

(f) For bona fide animal research activities of institutions of higher education; or a business entity registered with the United States Department of Agriculture under the Animal Welfare Act or subject to other federal laws governing animal research;

(g) In defense of self or another person against an aggressive or diseased animal;

(h) In defense of a domestic animal against an aggressive or diseased animal;

(i) For animal or pest control; or

(j) For any other purpose authorized by law.

(3) Activities of animals engaged in hunting, field trials, dog training other than training a dog to fight for pleasure or profit, and other activities authorized either by a hunting license or by the Department of Fish and Wildlife shall not constitute a violation of this section.

(4) Cruelty to animals in the second degree is a Class A misdemeanor.

(5) If a person is convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense under subsection (1) of this section arising from the person’s treatment of an equine, the court may impose one (1) or both of the following penalties against the person, in addition to fines and imprisonment:

(a) An order that the person pay restitution for damage to the property of others and for costs incurred by others, including reasonable costs, as determined by agreement or by the court after a hearing, incurred in feeding, sheltering, veterinary treatment, and incidental care of any equine that was the subject of the offense resulting in conviction; or

(b) An order terminating or imposing conditions on the person’s right to possession, title, custody, or care of any equine that was the subject of the offense resulting in conviction.

If a person’s ownership interest in an equine is terminated by a judicial order under paragraph (b) of this subsection, the court may order the sale, conveyance, or other disposition of the equine that was the subject of the offense resulting in conviction.

 

525.135 Torture of dog or cat

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires, “torture” means the intentional infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain or injury, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain of the animal.

(2) A person is guilty of torture of a dog or cat when he or she without legal justification intentionally tortures a domestic dog or cat.

(3) Torture of a dog or cat is a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class D felony for each subsequent offense if the dog or cat suffers physical injury as a result of the torture, and a Class D felony if the dog or cat suffers serious physical injury or death as a result of the torture.

(4) Nothing in this section shall apply to the killing or injuring of a dog or cat:

(a) In accordance with a license to hunt, fish, or trap;

(b) For humane purposes;

(c) For veterinary, agricultural, spaying or neutering, or cosmetic purposes;

(d) For purposes relating to sporting activities including but not limited to training for organized dog or cat shows, or other animal shows in which a dog or a cat, or both, participate;

(e) For bona fide animal research activities, using dogs or cats, of institutions of higher education; or a business entity registered with the United States Department of Agriculture under the Animal Welfare Act or subject to other federal laws governing animal research;

(f) In defense of self or another person against an aggressive or diseased dog or cat;

(g) In defense of a domestic animal against an aggressive or diseased dog or cat;

(h) For animal or pest control; or

(i) For any other purpose authorized by law.

(5) Activities of animals engaged in hunting, field trials, dog training other than training a dog to fight for pleasure or profit, and other activities authorized either by a hunting license or by the Department of Fish and Wildlife Resources shall not constitute a violation of this section.(6) The acts specified in this section shall not constitute cruelty to animals under KRS 525.125 or 525.130.

525.137 Sexual crimes against an animal

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) As used in this section:

(a) “Animal” means any nonhuman creature; and

(b) “Sexual contact” means any act committed between a person and an animal for the purpose of sexual arousal, sexual gratification, abuse, or financial gain involving:

1. Contact between the sex organs or anus of one and the mouth, sex organs, or anus of another;

2. The insertion of any part of the animal’s body into the vaginal or anal opening of the person; or

3. The insertion of any part of the body of a person or any object into the vaginal or anal opening of an animal without a bona fide veterinary or animal husbandry purpose.

(2) A person is guilty of sexual crimes against an animal if he or she:

(a) Engages in sexual contact with an animal;

(b) Advertises, solicits, offers, or accepts the offer of an animal, or possesses, purchases, or otherwise obtains an animal, with the intent that the animal be subject to sexual contact; or

(c) Causes, aids, or abets another person to engage in sexual contact with an animal.

(3) Sexual crimes against an animal is a Class D felony.

(4) Nothing in this section shall apply to:

(a) Accepted veterinary practices;

(b) Artificial insemination of an animal for reproductive purposes;

(c) Accepted animal husbandry practices, including grooming, raising, breeding, or assisting with the birthing process of animals or any other procedure that provides care for an animal; or

(d) Generally accepted practices related to the judging of breed conformation.

(5) In addition to the penalty imposed in subsection (3) of this section, the court shall order a person convicted of violating this section to:

(a) Relinquish custody of all animals under the person’s control. If the person convicted of violating this section is not the owner of the animal that was the subject of the violation, then the animal shall be returned to the owner of the animal. An animal returned to an owner under this section shall not be spayed or neutered prior to being returned;

(b) Not harbor, own, possess, or exercise control over any animal, reside in any household where animals are present, or work or volunteer in a place where the person has unsupervised access to animals for a minimum of five (5) years after completion of the imposed sentence;

(c) Attend an appropriate treatment program or obtain psychiatric or psychological counseling, at the person’s expense; and

(d) Reimburse the agency caring for the animal for reasonable costs incurred for the care and treatment of the animal from the date of impoundment until the disposition of the criminal proceeding.

Chapter 526. Eavesdropping and related offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

526.020. Eavesdropping

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of eavesdropping when he intentionally uses any device to eavesdrop, whether or not he is present at the time.

(2) Eavesdropping is a Class D felony.

Chapter 527. Offenses Relating to Firearms and Weapons

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

527.040 Possession of firearm by convicted felon; exceptions; applicability to youthful offenders

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of possession of a firearm by a convicted felon when he possesses, manufactures, or transports a firearm when he has been convicted of a felony, as defined by the laws of the jurisdiction in which he was convicted, in any state or federal court and has not:

(a) Been granted a full pardon by the Governor or by the President of the United States; or

(b) Been granted relief by the United States Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to the Federal Gun Control Act of 1968, as amended.

(2) (a) Possession of a firearm by a convicted felon is a Class D felony unless the firearm possessed is a handgun in which case it is a Class C felony.

(b) If a felon is convicted of a criminal offense other than possession of a firearm by a convicted felon, and he or she possessed a firearm in commission of that offense, then the felon shall be penalized for violating this section one (1) class more severely if it is a second or subsequent violation of this section.

(3) The provisions of this section shall apply to any youthful offender convicted of a felony offense under the laws of this Commonwealth. The exceptions contained in KRS 527.100 prohibiting possession of a handgun by a minor shall not apply to this section.

(4) The provisions of this section with respect to handguns, shall apply only to persons convicted after January 1, 1975, and with respect to other firearms, to persons convicted after July 15, 1994.

Chapter 530. Family Offenses

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

530.020 Incest

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of incest when he or she has sexual intercourse or deviate sexual intercourse, as defined in KRS 510.010, with a person whom he or she knows to be his or her parent, child, grandparent, grandchild, great-grandparent, great-grandchild, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, brother, sister, first cousin, ancestor, or descendant. The relationships referred to herein include blood relationships of either the whole or half blood without regard to legitimacy, relationship of parent and child by adoption, relationship of stepparent and stepchild, and relationship of stepgrandparent and stepgrandchild.

(2) (a) Incest is a Class C felony if the act is committed by consenting persons.

(b) Incest is a Class B felony if committed:

1. With a person without his or her consent;

2. By forcible compulsion as defined in KRS 510.010; or

3. With a person who is:

a. Less than eighteen (18) years of age by a person three (3) or more years older; or

b. Incapable of consent because he or she is physically helpless or mentally incapacitated as defined in KRS 510.010.

(c) Incest is a Class A felony if committed:

1. With a person who is less than twelve (12) years of age; or

2. With a person without his or her consent causing serious physical injury.

530.060 Endangering welfare of minor

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A parent, guardian or other person legally charged with the care or custody of a minor is guilty of endangering the welfare of a minor when he fails or refuses to exercise reasonable diligence in the control of such child to prevent him from becoming a neglected, dependent or delinquent child.

(2) Endangering the welfare of a minor is a Class A misdemeanor.

Chapter 531. Pornography

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

531.120. Distribution of sexually explicit images without consent.

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) A person is guilty of distribution of sexually explicit images without consent when:

(a) He or she intentionally distributes to any third party private erotic matter without the written consent of the person depicted, and does so with the intent to profit, or to harm, harass, intimidate, threaten, or coerce the person depicted; and

(b) The disclosure would cause a reasonable person to suffer harm.

(2) This section shall not apply to:

(a) Images involving voluntary nudity or sexual conduct in public, commercial settings, or in a place where a person does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy;

(b) Disclosures made in the public interest, including the reporting of unlawful conduct, or lawful and common practices of law enforcement, criminal reporting, corrections, legal proceedings, or medical treatment;

(c) Disclosures of materials that constitute a matter of public concern; or

(d) Internet service providers or telecommunications services, or interactive computer services, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 230(f)(2), for content solely provided by another person.

(3) A person who maintains an Internet Web site, online service, online application, or mobile application that distributes private erotic matter shall remove any such image if requested by a person depicted, and shall not solicit or accept a fee or other consideration to remove the visual image.

(4) Distribution of sexually explicit images without consent is a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class D felony for each subsequent offense, unless the person distributes the private erotic matter for profit or gain, in which case it is a Class D felony for the first offense and a Class C felony for each subsequent offense.

(5) In this section, “consent” means the consent to transmission of images to a specific recipient or recipients. Consent to the creation of the visual image does not, by itself, constitute consent to the distribution of the visual image.

(6) Notwithstanding KRS 17.500 to 17.580, a conviction under this section shall not result in the offender being deemed a registrant or being required to register as a sex offender.

Family Court Rules of Procedure and Practice

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

III. Custody, Shared Parenting, Visitation and Support

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

7. Custody

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) Unless otherwise ordered by the court, in any action in which the permanent custody or time-sharing of the child(ren) is in issue, each party shall, not less than 14 days prior to the day set for hearing, provide the other party(ies) with a list of the names and addresses of every person and a short statement of the subject of their testimony, other than a parent or the child(ren) of the parents, expected to be called as a witness, as well as a list of exhibits to be entered.

(2) Relocation.

(a) Before a joint custodian seeks to relocate, written notice shall be filed with the court and notice shall be served on the non-relocating joint custodian.

Either party may file a motion for change of custody or time-sharing within 20 days of service of the notice if the custodians are not in agreement; or, the parties shall file an agreed order if the time sharing arrangement is modified by agreement. See Pennington v. Marcum, 266 S.W.3d 759 (Ky. 2008) and Wilson v. Messinger, 840 S.W.2d 203 (Ky. 1992).

(b) Before a sole custodian seeks to relocate, written notice shall be filed with the court and notice shall be served on the non-custodial parent. If the court ordered visitation is affected by the relocation, the non-custodial parent may file a motion contesting the change in visitation within 20 days of service of the notice.

Title IV. Judicial Branch

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Chapter 24A. District Court

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

Small Claims

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

24A.230 Jurisdiction; authority

Updated: 
November 15, 2023

(1) The small claims division shall have jurisdiction, concurrent with that of the District Court, in all civil actions, other than libel, slander, alienation of affections, malicious prosecution and abuse of process actions, when the amount of money or damages or the value of the personal property claimed does not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) exclusive of interest and costs.

(2) The division may also be used in civil matters when the plaintiff seeks to disaffirm, avoid, or rescind a contract or agreement for the purchase of goods or services not in excess of two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) exclusive of interest and costs.

(3) The division shall have authority to grant appropriate relief, except no prejudgment actions for attachment, garnishment, replevin or other provisional remedy may be filed in the division.