In this title, unless the context otherwise requires:

1. “Absconder” means a probationer who has moved from the probationer’s primary residence without permission of the probation officer, who cannot be located within ninety days of the previous contact and against whom a petition to revoke has been filed in the superior court alleging that the probationer’s whereabouts are unknown. A probationer is no longer deemed an absconder when the probationer is voluntarily or involuntarily returned to probation service.

2. “Act” means a bodily movement.

3. “Benefit” means anything of value or advantage, present or prospective.

4. “Calendar year” means three hundred sixty-five days’ actual time served without release, suspension or commutation of sentence, probation, pardon or parole, work furlough or release from confinement on any other basis.

5. “Community supervision” means that portion of a felony sentence that is imposed by the court pursuant to § 13-603, subsection I and that is served in the community after completing a period of imprisonment or served in prison in accordance with § 41-1604.07.

6. “Conduct” means an act or omission and its accompanying culpable mental state.

7. “Crime” means a misdemeanor or a felony.

8. “Criminal street gang” means an ongoing formal or informal association of persons in which members or associates individually or collectively engage in the commission, attempted commission, facilitation or solicitation of any felony act and that has at least one individual who is a criminal street gang member.

9. “Criminal street gang member” means an individual to whom at least two of the following seven criteria that indicate criminal street gang membership apply:

(a) Self-proclamation.

(b) Witness testimony or official statement.

(c) Written or electronic correspondence.

(d) Paraphernalia or photographs.

(e) Tattoos.

(f) Clothing or colors.

(g) Any other indicia of street gang membership.

10. “Culpable mental state” means intentionally, knowingly, recklessly or with criminal negligence as those terms are defined in this paragraph:

(a) “Intentionally” or “with the intent to” means, with respect to a result or to conduct described by a statute defining an offense, that a person’s objective is to cause that result or to engage in that conduct.

(b) “Knowingly” means, with respect to conduct or to a circumstance described by a statute defining an offense, that a person is aware or believes that the person’s conduct is of that nature or that the circumstance exists. It does not require any knowledge of the unlawfulness of the act or omission.

(c) “Recklessly” means, with respect to a result or to a circumstance described by a statute defining an offense, that a person is aware of and consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the result will occur or that the circumstance exists. The risk must be of such nature and degree that disregard of such risk constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of conduct that a reasonable person would observe in the situation. A person who creates such a risk but who is unaware of such risk solely by reason of voluntary intoxication also acts recklessly with respect to such risk.

(d) “Criminal negligence” means, with respect to a result or to a circumstance described by a statute defining an offense, that a person fails to perceive a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the result will occur or that the circumstance exists. The risk must be of such nature and degree that the failure to perceive it constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable person would observe in the situation.

11. “Dangerous drug” means dangerous drug as defined in § 13-3401.

12. “Dangerous instrument” means anything that under the circumstances in which it is used, attempted to be used or threatened to be used is readily capable of causing death or serious physical injury.

13. “Dangerous offense” means an offense involving the discharge, use or threatening exhibition of a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument or the intentional or knowing infliction of serious physical injury on another person.

14. “Deadly physical force” means force that is used with the purpose of causing death or serious physical injury or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of creating a substantial risk of causing death or serious physical injury.

15. “Deadly weapon” means anything designed for lethal use, including a firearm.

16. “Economic loss” means any loss incurred by a person as a result of the commission of an offense. Economic loss includes lost interest, lost earnings and other losses that would not have been incurred but for the offense. Economic loss does not include losses incurred by the convicted person, damages for pain and suffering, punitive damages or consequential damages.

17. “Enterprise” includes any corporation, association, labor union or other legal entity.

18. “Felony” means an offense for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment in the custody of the state department of corrections is authorized by any law of this state.

19. “Firearm” means any loaded or unloaded handgun, pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun or other weapon that will or is designed to or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by the action of expanding gases, except that it does not include a firearm in permanently inoperable condition.

20. “Government” means the state, any political subdivision of the state or any department, agency, board, commission, institution or governmental instrumentality of or within the state or political subdivision.

21. “Governmental function” means any activity that a public servant is legally authorized to undertake on behalf of a government.

22. “Historical prior felony conviction” means:

(a) Any prior felony conviction for which the offense of conviction either:

(i) Mandated a term of imprisonment except for a violation of chapter 34 of this title involving a drug below the threshold amount.

(ii) Involved a dangerous offense.

(iii) Involved the illegal control of a criminal enterprise.

(iv) Involved aggravated driving or actual physical control while under the influence. This item applies only if the offense for which the historical prior felony conviction is being alleged is a violation of § 28-1383.

(v) Involved any dangerous crime against children as defined in § 13-705.

(b) Any class 2 or 3 felony, except the offenses listed in subdivision (a) of this paragraph, that was committed within the ten years immediately preceding the date of the present offense. Any time spent on absconder status while on probation, on escape status or incarcerated is excluded in calculating if the offense was committed within the preceding ten years. If a court determines a person was not on absconder status while on probation or escape status, that time is not excluded. For the purposes of this subdivision, “escape” means:

(i) A departure from custody or from a juvenile secure care facility, a juvenile detention facility or an adult correctional facility in which the person is held or detained, with knowledge that the departure is not allowed, or the failure to return to custody or detention following a temporary leave granted for a specific purpose or for a limited period.

(ii) A failure to report as ordered to custody or detention to begin serving a term of incarceration.

(c) Any class 4, 5 or 6 felony, except the offenses listed in subdivision (a) of this paragraph, that was committed within the five years immediately preceding the date of the present offense. Any time spent on absconder status while on probation, on escape status or incarcerated is excluded in calculating if the offense was committed within the preceding five years. If a court determines a person was not on absconder status while on probation or escape status, that time is not excluded. For the purposes of this subdivision, “escape” has the same meaning prescribed in subdivision (b) of this paragraph.

(d) Any felony conviction that is a third or more prior felony conviction. For the purposes of this subdivision, “prior felony conviction” includes any offense committed outside the jurisdiction of this state that was punishable by that jurisdiction as a felony.

(e) Any offense committed outside the jurisdiction of this state that was punishable by that jurisdiction as a felony and that was committed within the five years immediately preceding the date of the present offense. Any time spent on absconder status while on probation, on escape status or incarcerated is excluded in calculating if the offense was committed within the preceding five years. If a court determines a person was not on absconder status while on probation or escape status, that time is not excluded. For the purposes of this subdivision, “escape” has the same meaning prescribed in subdivision (b) of this paragraph.

(f) Any offense committed outside the jurisdiction of this state that involved the discharge, use or threatening exhibition of a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument or the intentional or knowing infliction of death or serious physical injury and that was punishable by that jurisdiction as a felony. A person who has been convicted of a felony weapons possession violation in any court outside the jurisdiction of this state that would not be punishable as a felony under the laws of this state is not subject to this paragraph.

23. “Human smuggling organization” means an ongoing formal or informal association of persons in which members or associates individually or collectively engage in the smuggling of human beings.

24. “Intoxication” means any mental or physical incapacity resulting from use of drugs, toxic vapors or intoxicating liquors.

25. “Misdemeanor” means an offense for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment other than to the custody of the state department of corrections is authorized by any law of this state.

26. “Narcotic drug” means narcotic drugs as defined in § 13-3401.

27. “Offense” or “public offense” means conduct for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment or of a fine is provided by any law of the state in which it occurred or by any law, regulation or ordinance of a political subdivision of that state and, if the act occurred in a state other than this state, it would be so punishable under the laws, regulations or ordinances of this state or of a political subdivision of this state if the act had occurred in this state.

28. “Omission” means the failure to perform an act as to which a duty of performance is imposed by law.

29. “Peace officer” means any person vested by law with a duty to maintain public order and make arrests and includes a constable.

30. “Person” means a human being and, as the context requires, an enterprise, a public or private corporation, an unincorporated association, a partnership, a firm, a society, a government, a governmental authority or an individual or entity capable of holding a legal or beneficial interest in property.

31. “Petty offense” means an offense for which a sentence of a fine only is authorized by law.

32. “Physical force” means force used upon or directed toward the body of another person and includes confinement, but does not include deadly physical force.

33. “Physical injury” means the impairment of physical condition.

34. “Possess” means knowingly to have physical possession or otherwise to exercise dominion or control over property.

35. “Possession” means a voluntary act if the defendant knowingly exercised dominion or control over property.

36. “Preconviction custody” means the confinement of a person in a jail in this state or another state after the person is arrested for or charged with a felony offense.

37. “Property” means anything of value, tangible or intangible.

38. “Public servant”:

(a) Means any officer or employee of any branch of government, whether elected, appointed or otherwise employed, including a peace officer, and any person participating as an advisor or consultant or otherwise in performing a governmental function.

(b) Does not include jurors or witnesses.

(c) Includes those who have been elected, appointed, employed or designated to become a public servant although not yet occupying that position.

39. “Serious physical injury” includes physical injury that creates a reasonable risk of death, or that causes serious and permanent disfigurement, serious impairment of health or loss or protracted impairment of the function of any bodily organ or limb.

40. “Unlawful” means contrary to law or, where the context so requires, not allowed by law.

41. “Vehicle” means a device in, upon or by which any person or property is, may be or could have been transported or drawn upon a highway, waterway or airway, excepting devices moved by human power or used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks.

42. “Voluntary act” means a bodily movement performed consciously and as a result of effort and determination.

43. “Voluntary intoxication” means intoxication caused by the knowing use of drugs, toxic vapors or intoxicating liquors by a person, the tendency of which to cause intoxication the person knows or ought to know, unless the person introduces them pursuant to medical advice or under such duress as would afford a defense to an offense.

A. A person who is at least eighteen years of age and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree involving commercial sexual exploitation of a minor or child sex trafficking and the person has previously been convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree shall be sentenced to imprisonment in the custody of the state department of corrections for natural life. A person who is sentenced to natural life is not eligible for commutation, parole, work furlough, work release or release from confinement on any basis for the remainder of the person’s natural life.

B. A person who is at least eighteen years of age and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree involving sexual assault of a minor who is twelve years of age or younger or sexual conduct with a minor who is twelve years of age or younger shall be sentenced to life imprisonment and is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the person has served thirty-five years or the sentence is commuted. This subsection does not apply to masturbatory contact.

C. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a person who is at least eighteen years of age or who has been tried as an adult and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree involving attempted first degree murder of a minor who is under twelve years of age, sexual assault of a minor who is under twelve years of age, sexual conduct with a minor who is under twelve years of age or manufacturing methamphetamine under circumstances that cause physical injury to a minor who is under twelve years of age may be sentenced to life imprisonment and is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the person has served thirty-five years or the sentence is commuted. If a life sentence is not imposed pursuant to this subsection, the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

13 years

20 years

27 years

D. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a person who is at least eighteen years of age or who has been tried as an adult and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree involving second degree murder of a minor who is under fifteen years of age may be sentenced to life imprisonment and is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the person has served thirty-five years or the sentence is commuted. If a life sentence is not imposed pursuant to this subsection, the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

25 years

30 years

35 years

E. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a person who is at least eighteen years of age or who has been tried as an adult and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree involving attempted first degree murder of a minor who is twelve, thirteen or fourteen years of age, sexual assault of a minor who is twelve, thirteen or fourteen years of age, taking a child for the purpose of prostitution, child sex trafficking, commercial sexual exploitation of a minor, sexual conduct with a minor who is twelve, thirteen or fourteen years of age or manufacturing methamphetamine under circumstances that cause physical injury to a minor who is twelve, thirteen or fourteen years of age or involving or using minors in drug offenses shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

13 years

20 years

27 years

A person who has been previously convicted of one predicate felony shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

23 years

30 years

37 years

F. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a person who is at least eighteen years of age or who has been tried as an adult and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree involving aggravated assault, unlawful mutilation, molestation of a child, sexual exploitation of a minor, aggravated luring a minor for sexual exploitation, child abuse or kidnapping shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

10 years

17 years

24 years

A person who has been previously convicted of one predicate felony shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

21 years

28 years

35 years

G. Except as otherwise provided in this section, if a person is at least eighteen years of age or has been tried as an adult and is convicted of a dangerous crime against children involving luring a minor for sexual exploitation, sexual extortion or unlawful age misrepresentation and is sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the term of imprisonment is as follows and the person is not eligible for release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed by the court has been served or is commuted, except that if the person is convicted of unlawful age misrepresentation the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

5 years

10 years

15 years

A person who has been previously convicted of one predicate felony shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows and the person is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed by the court has been served or is commuted, except that if the person is convicted of unlawful age misrepresentation the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

8 years

15 years

22 years

H. Except as otherwise provided in this section, if a person is at least eighteen years of age or has been tried as an adult and is convicted of a dangerous crime against children involving sexual abuse or bestiality under § 13-1411, subsection A, paragraph 2 and is sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the term of imprisonment is as follows and the person is not eligible for release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed by the court has been served, the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07 or the sentence is commuted:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

2.5 years

5 years

7.5 years

A person who has been previously convicted of one predicate felony shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows and the person is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed by the court has been served, the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07 or the sentence is commuted:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

8 years

15 years

22 years

I. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a person who is at least eighteen years of age or who has been tried as an adult and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the first degree involving continuous sexual abuse of a child shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

39 years

60 years

81 years

A person who has been previously convicted of one predicate felony shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as follows:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

69 years

90 years

111 years

J. The presumptive sentences prescribed in subsections C, D, E and F and I of this section or subsections G and H of this section if the person has previously been convicted of a predicate felony may be increased or decreased pursuant to § 13-701, subsections C, D and E.

K. Except as provided in subsections G, H, M and N of this section, a person who is sentenced for a dangerous crime against children in the first degree pursuant to this section is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed by the court has been served or commuted.

L. A person who is convicted of any dangerous crime against children in the first degree pursuant to subsection C, D, E or F or I of this section and who has been previously convicted of two or more predicate felonies shall be sentenced to life imprisonment and is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the person has served not fewer than thirty-five years or the sentence is commuted.

M. Notwithstanding chapter 10 of this title, a person who is at least eighteen years of age or who has been tried as an adult and who is convicted of a dangerous crime against children in the second degree pursuant to subsection B, C, E or F or I of this section is guilty of a class 3 felony and if the person is sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the term of imprisonment is as follows and the person is not eligible for release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the person has served the sentence imposed by the court, the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07 or the sentence is commuted:

Minimum

Presumptive

Maximum

5 years

10 years

15 years

N. A person who is convicted of any dangerous crime against children in the second degree and who has been previously convicted of one or more predicate felonies is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed by the court has been served, the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07 or the sentence is commuted.

O. Section 13-704, subsection J and § 13-707, subsection B apply to the determination of prior convictions.

P. The sentence imposed on a person by the court for a dangerous crime against children under subsection H of this section involving sexual abuse may be served concurrently with other sentences if the offense involved only one victim. The sentence imposed on a person for any other dangerous crime against children in the first or second degree shall be consecutive to any other sentence imposed on the person at any time, including sexual abuse of the same victim.

Q. In this section, for purposes of punishment an unborn child shall be treated like a minor who is under twelve years of age.

R. A dangerous crime against children is in the first degree if it is a completed offense and is in the second degree if it is a preparatory offense, except attempted first degree murder is a dangerous crime against children in the first degree.

S. It is not a defense to a dangerous crime against children that the minor is a person posing as a minor or is otherwise fictitious if the defendant knew or had reason to know the purported minor was under fifteen years of age.

T. For the purposes of this section:

1. “Dangerous crime against children” means any of the following that is committed against a minor who is under fifteen years of age:

(a) Second degree murder.

(b) Aggravated assault resulting in serious physical injury or involving the discharge, use or threatening exhibition of a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument.

(c) Sexual assault.

(d) Molestation of a child.

(e) Sexual conduct with a minor.

(f) Commercial sexual exploitation of a minor.

(g) Sexual exploitation of a minor.

(h) Child abuse as prescribed in § 13-3623, subsection A, paragraph 1.

(i) Kidnapping.

(j) Sexual abuse.

(k) Taking a child for the purpose of prostitution as prescribed in § 13-3206.

(l) Child sex trafficking as prescribed in § 13-3212.

(m) Involving or using minors in drug offenses.

(n) Continuous sexual abuse of a child.

(o) Attempted first degree murder.

(p) Sex trafficking.

(q) Manufacturing methamphetamine under circumstances that cause physical injury to a minor.

(r) Bestiality as prescribed in § 13-1411, subsection A, paragraph 2.

(s) Luring a minor for sexual exploitation.

(t) Aggravated luring a minor for sexual exploitation.

(u) Unlawful age misrepresentation.

(v) Unlawful mutilation.

(w) Sexual extortion as prescribed in § 13-1428.

2. “Predicate felony” means any felony involving child abuse pursuant to § 13-3623, subsection A, paragraph 1, a sexual offense, conduct involving the intentional or knowing infliction of serious physical injury or the discharge, use or threatening exhibition of a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument, or a dangerous crime against children in the first or second degree.

A. A sentence of imprisonment for a misdemeanor shall be for a definite term to be served other than a place within custody of the state department of corrections. The court shall fix the term of imprisonment within the following maximum limitations:

1. For a class 1 misdemeanor, six months.

2. For a class 2 misdemeanor, four months.

3. For a class 3 misdemeanor, thirty days.

B. A person who is at least eighteen years of age or who has been tried as an adult and who stands convicted of any misdemeanor or petty offense, other than a traffic offense, and who has been convicted of one or more of the same misdemeanors or petty offenses within two years next preceding the date of the present offense shall be sentenced for the next higher class of offense than that for which the person currently is convicted. Time spent incarcerated within the two years next preceding the date of the offense for which a person is currently being sentenced shall not be included in the two years required to be free of convictions.

C. If a person is convicted of a misdemeanor offense and the offense requires enhanced punishment because it is a second or subsequent offense, the court shall determine the existence of the previous conviction. The court shall allow the allegation of a prior conviction to be made in the same manner as the allegation prescribed by § 28-1387, subsection A.

D. A person who has been convicted in any court outside the jurisdiction of this state of an offense that if committed in this state would be punishable as a misdemeanor or petty offense is subject to this section. A person who has been convicted as an adult of an offense punishable as a misdemeanor or petty offense under the provisions of any prior code in this state is subject to this section.

E. The court may direct that a person who is sentenced pursuant to subsection A of this section shall not be released on any basis until the sentence imposed by the court has been served.

A. A sentence to pay a fine for a class 1 misdemeanor shall be a sentence to pay an amount, fixed by the court, not more than two thousand five hundred dollars.

B. A sentence to pay a fine for a class 2 misdemeanor shall be a sentence to pay an amount, fixed by the court, not more than seven hundred fifty dollars.

C. A sentence to pay a fine for a class 3 misdemeanor shall be a sentence to pay an amount, fixed by the court, not more than five hundred dollars.

D. A sentence to pay a fine for a petty offense shall be a sentence to pay an amount, fixed by the court, of not more than three hundred dollars.

E. A judgment that the defendant shall pay a fine, with or without the alternative of imprisonment, shall constitute a lien in like manner as a judgment for money rendered in a civil action.

F. This section does not apply to an enterprise.

A. A person commits theft if, without lawful authority, the person knowingly:

1. Controls property of another with the intent to deprive the other person of such property; or

2. Converts for an unauthorized term or use services or property of another entrusted to the defendant or placed in the defendant’s possession for a limited, authorized term or use; or

3. Obtains services or property of another by means of any material misrepresentation with intent to deprive the other person of such property or services; or

4. Comes into control of lost, mislaid or misdelivered property of another under circumstances providing means of inquiry as to the true owner and appropriates such property to the person’s own or another’s use without reasonable efforts to notify the true owner; or

5. Controls property of another knowing or having reason to know that the property was stolen; or

6. Obtains services known to the defendant to be available only for compensation without paying or an agreement to pay the compensation or diverts another’s services to the person’s own or another’s benefit without authority to do so; or

7. Controls the ferrous metal or nonferrous metal of another with the intent to deprive the other person of the metal; or

8. Controls the ferrous metal or nonferrous metal of another knowing or having reason to know that the metal was stolen; or

9. Purchases within the scope of the ordinary course of business the ferrous metal or nonferrous metal of another person knowing that the metal was stolen.

B. A person commits theft if, without lawful authority, the person knowingly takes control, title, use or management of a vulnerable adult’s property while acting in a position of trust and confidence and with the intent to deprive the vulnerable adult of the property. Proof that a person took control, title, use or management of a vulnerable adult’s property without adequate consideration to the vulnerable adult may give rise to an inference that the person intended to deprive the vulnerable adult of the property.

C. It is an affirmative defense to any prosecution under subsection B of this section that either:

1. The property was given as a gift consistent with a pattern of gift giving to the person that existed before the adult became vulnerable.

2. The property was given as a gift consistent with a pattern of gift giving to a class of individuals that existed before the adult became vulnerable.

3. The superior court approved the transaction before the transaction occurred.

D. The inferences set forth in § 13-2305 apply to any prosecution under subsection A, paragraph 5 of this section.

E. At the conclusion of any grand jury proceeding, hearing or trial, the court shall preserve any trade secret that is admitted in evidence or any portion of a transcript that contains information relating to the trade secret pursuant to § 44-405.

F. Subsection B of this section does not apply to an agent who is acting within the scope of the agent’s duties as or on behalf of a health care institution that is licensed pursuant to title 36, chapter 41 and that provides services to the vulnerable adult.

G. Theft of property or services with a value of twenty-five thousand dollars or more is a class 2 felony. Theft of property or services with a value of four thousand dollars or more but less than twenty-five thousand dollars is a class 3 felony. Theft of property or services with a value of three thousand dollars or more but less than four thousand dollars is a class 4 felony, except that theft of any vehicle engine or transmission is a class 4 felony regardless of value. Theft of property or services with a value of two thousand dollars or more but less than three thousand dollars is a class 5 felony. Theft of property or services with a value of one thousand dollars or more but less than two thousand dollars is a class 6 felony. Theft of any property or services valued at less than one thousand dollars is a class 1 misdemeanor, unless the property is taken from the person of another, is a firearm or is an animal taken for the purpose of animal fighting in violation of § 13-2910.01, in which case the theft is a class 6 felony.

H. A person who is convicted of a violation of subsection A, paragraph 1 or 3 of this section that involved property with a value of one hundred thousand dollars or more is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except pursuant to § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed by the court has been served, the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07 or the sentence is commuted.

I. For the purposes of this section, the value of ferrous metal or nonferrous metal includes the amount of any damage to the property of another caused as a result of the theft of the metal.

J. In an action for theft of ferrous metal or nonferrous metal:

1. Unless satisfactorily explained or acquired in the ordinary course of business by an automotive recycler that is licensed pursuant to title 28, chapter 102 or by a scrap metal dealer as defined in § 44-1641, proof of possession of scrap metal that was recently stolen may give rise to an inference that the person in possession of the scrap metal was aware of the risk that it had been stolen or in some way participated in its theft.

2. Unless satisfactorily explained or sold in the ordinary course of business by an automotive recycler that is licensed pursuant to title 28, chapter 10 or by a scrap metal dealer as defined in § 44-1641, proof of the sale of stolen scrap metal at a price substantially below its fair market value may give rise to an inference that the person selling the scrap metal was aware of the risk that it had been stolen.

K. For the purposes of this section:

1. “Adequate consideration” means the property was given to the person as payment for bona fide goods or services provided by the person and the payment was at a rate that was customary for similar goods or services in the community that the vulnerable adult resided in at the time of the transaction.

2. “Ferrous metal” has the same meaning prescribed in § 44-1641.

3. “Pattern of gift giving” means two or more gifts that are the same or similar in type and monetary value.

4. “Position of trust and confidence” has the same meaning prescribed in § 46-456.

5. “Property” includes all forms of real property and personal property.

6. “Vulnerable adult” has the same meaning prescribed in § 46-451.

A. A person commits negligent homicide if with criminal negligence the person causes the death of another person, including an unborn child.

B. An offense under this section applies to an unborn child in the womb at any stage of its development. A person may not be prosecuted under this section if any of the following applies:

1. The person was performing an abortion for which the consent of the pregnant woman, or a person authorized by law to act on the pregnant woman’s behalf, has been obtained or for which the consent was implied or authorized by law.

2. The person was performing medical treatment on the pregnant woman or the pregnant woman’s unborn child.

3. The person was the unborn child’s mother.

C. Negligent homicide is a class 4 felony.

A. A person commits second degree murder if without premeditation:

1. The person intentionally causes the death of another person, including an unborn child or, as a result of intentionally causing the death of another person, causes the death of an unborn child; or

2. Knowing that the person’s conduct will cause death or serious physical injury, the person causes the death of another person, including an unborn child or, as a result of knowingly causing the death of another person, causes the death of an unborn child; or

3. Under circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to human life, the person recklessly engages in conduct that creates a grave risk of death and thereby causes the death of another person, including an unborn child or, as a result of recklessly causing the death of another person, causes the death of an unborn child.

B. An offense under this section applies to an unborn child in the womb at any stage of its development. A person may not be prosecuted under this section if any of the following applies:

1. The person was performing an abortion for which the consent of the pregnant woman, or a person authorized by law to act on the pregnant woman’s behalf, has been obtained or for which the consent was implied or authorized by law.

2. The person was performing medical treatment on the pregnant woman or the pregnant woman’s unborn child.

3. The person was the unborn child’s mother.

C. Second degree murder is a class 1 felony and is punishable as provided by § 13-705 if the victim is under fifteen years of age or is an unborn child, § 13-706, subsection A or § 13-710.

A. A person commits threatening or intimidating if the person threatens or intimidates by word or conduct:

1. To cause physical injury to another person or serious damage to the property of another; or

2. To cause, or in reckless disregard to causing, serious public inconvenience including, but not limited to, evacuation of a building, place of assembly or transportation facility; or

3. To cause physical injury to another person or damage to the property of another in order to promote, further or assist in the interests of or to cause, induce or solicit another person to participate in a criminal street gang, a criminal syndicate or a racketeering enterprise.

B. Threatening or intimidating pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 1 or 2 is a class 1 misdemeanor, except that it is a class 6 felony if:

1. The offense is committed in retaliation for a victim’s either reporting criminal activity or being involved in an organization, other than a law enforcement agency, that is established for the purpose of reporting or preventing criminal activity.

2. The person is a criminal street gang member.

C. Threatening or intimidating pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 3 is a class 3 felony.

A. A person commits aggravated assault if the person commits assault as prescribed by § 13-1203 under any of the following circumstances:

1. If the person causes serious physical injury to another.

2. If the person uses a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument.

3. If the person commits the assault by any means of force that causes temporary but substantial disfigurement, temporary but substantial loss or impairment of any body organ or part or a fracture of any body part.

4. If the person commits the assault while the victim is bound or otherwise physically restrained or while the victim’s capacity to resist is substantially impaired.

5. If the person commits the assault after entering the private home of another with the intent to commit the assault.

6. If the person is eighteen years of age or older and commits the assault on a minor under fifteen years of age.

7. If the person commits assault as prescribed by § 13-1203, subsection A, paragraph 1 or 3 and the person is in violation of an order of protection issued against the person pursuant to § 13-3602 or 13-3624.

8. If the person commits the assault knowing or having reason to know that the victim is any of the following:

(a) A peace officer or a person summoned and directed by the officer.

(b) A constable or a person summoned and directed by the constable while engaged in the execution of any official duties or if the assault results from the execution of the constable’s official duties.

(c) A firefighter, fire investigator, fire inspector, emergency medical technician or paramedic engaged in the execution of any official duties or a person summoned and directed by such individual while engaged in the execution of any official duties or if the assault results from the execution of the official duties of the firefighter, fire investigator, fire inspector, emergency medical technician or paramedic.

(d) A teacher or other person employed by any school and the teacher or other employee is on the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to the school or is in any part of a building or vehicle used for school purposes, any teacher or school nurse visiting a private home in the course of the teacher’s or nurse’s professional duties or any teacher engaged in any authorized and organized classroom activity held on other than school grounds.

(e) A health care worker while engaged in the health care worker’s work duties or a health care practitioner who is certified or licensed pursuant to title 32, chapter 13, 14, 15, 17 or 25,1 or a person summoned and directed by the licensed health care practitioner while engaged in the person’s professional duties. This subdivision does not apply if the person who commits the assault does not have the ability to form the culpable mental state because of a mental disability or because the person is seriously mentally ill, as defined in § 36-550.

(f) A prosecutor while engaged in the execution of any official duties or if the assault results from the execution of the prosecutor’s official duties.

(g) A code enforcement officer as defined in § 39-123 while engaged in the execution of any official duties or if the assault results from the execution of the code enforcement officer’s official duties.

(h) A state or municipal park ranger while engaged in the execution of any official duties or if the assault results from the execution of the park ranger’s official duties.

(i) A public defender while engaged in the execution of any official duties or if the assault results from the execution of the public defender’s official duties.

(j) A judicial officer while engaged in the execution of any official duties or if the assault results from the execution of the judicial officer’s official duties.

(k) An employee of a law enforcement agency, other than a peace officer, while engaged in the execution of any official duties.

9. If the person knowingly takes or attempts to exercise control over any of the following:

(a) A peace officer’s or other officer’s firearm and the person knows or has reason to know that the victim is a peace officer or other officer employed by one of the agencies listed in paragraph 10, subdivision (a), item (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) or (v) of this subsection.

(b) Any weapon other than a firearm that is being used by a peace officer or other officer or that the officer is attempting to use, and the person knows or has reason to know that the victim is a peace officer or other officer employed by one of the agencies listed in paragraph 10, subdivision (a), item (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) or (v) of this subsection.

(c) Any implement that is being used by a peace officer or other officer or that the officer is attempting to use, and the person knows or has reason to know that the victim is a peace officer or other officer employed by one of the agencies listed in paragraph 10, subdivision (a), item (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) or (v) of this subsection. For the purposes of this subdivision, “implement” means an object that is designed for or that is capable of restraining or injuring an individual. Implement does not include handcuffs.

10. If the person meets both of the following conditions:

(a) Is imprisoned or otherwise subject to the custody of any of the following:

(i) The state department of corrections.

(ii) The department of juvenile corrections.

(iii) A law enforcement agency.

(iv) A county or city jail or an adult or juvenile detention facility of a city or county.

(v) Any other entity that is contracting with the state department of corrections, the department of juvenile corrections, a law enforcement agency, another state, any private correctional facility, a county, a city or the federal bureau of prisons or other federal agency that has responsibility for sentenced or unsentenced prisoners.

(b) Commits an assault knowing or having reason to know that the victim is acting in an official capacity as an employee of any of the entities listed in subdivision (a) of this paragraph.

11. If the person uses a simulated deadly weapon.

B. A person commits aggravated assault if the person commits assault by either intentionally, knowingly or recklessly causing any physical injury to another person, intentionally placing another person in reasonable apprehension of imminent physical injury or knowingly touching another person with the intent to injure the person, and both of the following occur:

1. The person intentionally or knowingly impedes the normal breathing or circulation of blood of another person by applying pressure to the throat or neck or by obstructing the nose and mouth either manually or through the use of an instrument.

2. Any of the circumstances exists that are set forth in § 13-3601, subsection A, paragraph 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6.

C. A person who is convicted of intentionally or knowingly committing aggravated assault on a peace officer pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 1 or 2 of this section shall be sentenced to imprisonment for not less than the presumptive sentence authorized under chapter 7 of this title and is not eligible for suspension of sentence, commutation or release on any basis until the sentence imposed is served.

D. If a person is convicted of committing aggravated assault on a peace officer pursuant to this section and the trier of fact determines that § 13-701, subsection D, paragraph 17 applies, the person shall be sentenced to two years more than would otherwise be imposed for the offense. The additional sentence imposed under this subsection is in addition to any enhanced punishment that may be applicable under this section or chapter 7 of this title2 and is not eligible for suspension of sentence, commutation or release from confinement on any basis, except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B, until the sentence imposed is served the person is eligible for release pursuant to § 41-1604.07 or the sentence is commuted.

E. It is not a defense to a prosecution for assaulting a peace officer or a mitigating circumstance that the peace officer was not on duty or engaged in the execution of any official duties.

F. Except pursuant to subsections G and H of this section, aggravated assault pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 1 or 2, paragraph 9, subdivision (a) or paragraph 11 of this section is a class 3 felony except if the aggravated assault is a violation of subsection A, paragraph 1 or 2 of this section and the victim is under fifteen years of age it is a class 2 felony punishable pursuant to § 13-705. Aggravated assault pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 3 or subsection B of this section is a class 4 felony. Aggravated assault pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 9, subdivision (b) or paragraph 10 of this section is a class 5 felony. Aggravated assault pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 or paragraph 9, subdivision (c) of this section is a class 6 felony.

G. Aggravated assault pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 1 or 2 of this section committed on a peace officer or an employee of a law enforcement agency is a class 2 felony. Aggravated assault pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 3 of this section committed on a peace officer or an employee of a law enforcement agency is a class 3 felony. Aggravated assault pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 8, subdivision (a) or (k) of this section committed on a peace officer or an employee of a law enforcement agency is a class 5 felony unless the assault results in any physical injury to the peace officer or employee, in which case it is a class 4 felony.

H. Aggravated assault pursuant to:

1. Subsection A, paragraph 1 or 2 of this section is a class 2 felony if committed on a prosecutor.

2. Subsection A, paragraph 3 of this section is a class 3 felony if committed on a prosecutor.

3. Subsection A, paragraph 8, subdivision (f) of this section is a class 5 felony if the assault results in physical injury to a prosecutor.

I. For the purposes of this section:

1. “Health care worker” means:

(a) A person who is employed by or contracted to work at a health care institution that is licensed pursuant to title 36.3

(b) A person who is employed or contracted to provide health care or related services in a fieldwork setting, including:

(i) Home health care, home-based hospice and home-based social work, unless the worker is employed or contracted by an individual who privately employs, in the individual’s residence, the worker to perform covered services for the individual or a family member of the individual.

(ii) Any emergency services and transport, including the services provided by firefighters and emergency responders.

2. “Judicial officer” means a justice of the supreme court, judge, justice of the peace or magistrate or a commissioner or hearing officer of a state, county or municipal court.

3. “Mental disability” means a disabling neurological condition, or brain injury, or involuntary impairment as a result of a medication that is administered by a health care provider or a medical procedure that is performed at a health care treatment site.

4. “Prosecutor” means a county attorney, a municipal prosecutor or the attorney general and includes an assistant or deputy county attorney, municipal prosecutor or attorney general.

A. A person commits custodial interference if, knowing or having reason to know that the person has no legal right to do so, the person does one of the following:

1. Takes, entices or keeps from lawful custody any child, or any person who is incompetent, and who is entrusted by authority of law to the custody of another person or institution.

2. Before the entry of a court order determining custodial rights, takes, entices or withholds any child from the other parent denying that parent access to any child.

3. If the person is one of two persons who have joint legal custody of a child, takes, entices or withholds from physical custody the child from the other custodian.

4. At the expiration of access rights outside this state, intentionally fails or refuses to return or impedes the return of a child to the lawful custodian.

B. If a child is born out of wedlock, the mother is the legal custodian of the child for the purposes of this section until paternity is established and custody or access is determined by a court.

C. It is a defense to a prosecution pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 2 if both of the following apply:

1. The defendant has begun the process to obtain an order of protection or files a petition for custody within a reasonable period of time and the order of protection or petition states the defendant’s belief that the child was at risk if left with the other parent.

2. The defendant is the child’s parent and has the right of custody and the defendant either:

(a) Has a good faith and reasonable belief that the taking, enticing or withholding is necessary to protect the child from immediate danger.

(b) Is a victim of domestic violence by the other parent and has a good faith and reasonable belief that the child will be in immediate danger if the child is left with the other parent.

D. Subsection A, paragraphs 2 and 3 do not apply to a person who is the child’s parent if both of the following apply:

1. The person has filed an emergency petition regarding custodial rights with the superior court and has received a hearing date from the court.

2. The person has a good faith and reasonable belief that the child will be in immediate danger if the child is left with the other parent.

E. A violation of this section is:

1. A class 3 felony if committed by a person other than the parent or agent of the parent or custodian or agent of the custodian.

2. Notwithstanding paragraph 3 of this subsection, a class 4 felony if the child or incompetent person is taken, enticed or kept from lawful custody out of this state by the parent or agent of the parent or custodian or the agent of the custodian.

3. A class 6 felony if committed by a parent or agent of the parent or custodian or agent of the custodian.

4. A class 1 misdemeanor if the child or incompetent person is voluntarily returned without physical injury by the parent or defendant or the agent of the parent or defendant no later than forty-eight hours after the parent or defendant takes, entices or keeps from lawful custody the child or incompetent person.

A. A person commits kidnapping by knowingly restraining another person with the intent to:

1. Hold the victim for ransom, as a shield or hostage; or

2. Hold the victim for involuntary servitude; or

3. Inflict death, physical injury or a sexual offense on the victim, or to otherwise aid in the commission of a felony; or

4. Place the victim or a third person in reasonable apprehension of imminent physical injury to the victim or the third person; or

5. Interfere with the performance of a governmental or political function; or

6. Seize or exercise control over any airplane, train, bus, ship or other vehicle.

B. Kidnapping is a class 2 felony unless the victim is released voluntarily by the defendant without physical injury in a safe place before arrest and before accomplishing any of the further enumerated offenses in subsection A of this section in which case it is a class 4 felony. If the victim is released pursuant to an agreement with the state and without any physical injury, it is a class 3 felony. If the victim is under fifteen years of age kidnapping is a class 2 felony punishable pursuant to § 13-705. The sentence for kidnapping of a victim under fifteen years of age shall run consecutively to any other sentence imposed on the defendant and to any undischarged term of imprisonment of the defendant.

A. A person commits sexual conduct with a minor by intentionally or knowingly engaging in sexual intercourse or oral sexual contact with any person who is under eighteen years of age.

B. Sexual conduct with a minor who is under fifteen years of age is a class 2 felony and is punishable pursuant to § 13-705. Sexual conduct with a minor who is at least fifteen years of age is a class 6 felony. Sexual conduct with a minor who is at least fifteen years of age is a class 2 felony if the person is or was in a position of trust and the convicted person is not eligible for suspension of sentence, probation, pardon or release from confinement on any basis except as specifically authorized by § 31-233, subsection A or B until the sentence imposed has been served or commuted.

A. A person who over a period of three months or more in duration engages in three or more acts in violation of § 13-1405, 13-1406 or 13-1410 with a child who is under fourteen years of age is guilty of continuous sexual abuse of a child.

B. Continuous sexual abuse of a child is a class 2 felony and is punishable pursuant to § 13-705.

C. To convict a person of continuous sexual abuse of a child, the trier of fact shall unanimously agree that the requisite number of acts occurred. The trier of fact does not need to agree on which acts constitute the requisite number.

D. Any other felony sexual offense involving the victim shall not be charged in the same proceeding with a charge under this section unless the other charged felony sexual offense occurred outside the time period charged under this section or the other felony sexual offense is charged in the alternative. A defendant may be charged with only one count under this section unless more than one victim is involved. If more than one victim is involved, a separate count may be charged for each victim.

A. It is unlawful to knowingly invade the privacy of another person without the knowledge of the other person for the purpose of sexual stimulation.
B. It is unlawful for a person to disclose, display, distribute or publish a photograph, videotape, film or digital recording that is made in violation of subsection A of this section without the consent or knowledge of the person depicted.
C. For the purposes of this section, a person’s privacy is invaded if both of the following apply:
1. The person has a reasonable expectation that the person will not be photographed, videotaped, filmed, digitally recorded or otherwise viewed or recorded.
2. The person is photographed, videotaped, filmed, digitally recorded or otherwise viewed, with or without a device, either:
(a) While the person is in a state of undress or partial dress.
(b) While the person is engaged in sexual intercourse or sexual contact.
(c) While the person is urinating or defecating.
(d) In a manner that directly or indirectly captures or allows the viewing of the person’s genitalia, buttock or female breast, whether clothed or unclothed, that is not otherwise visible to the public.
D. This section does not apply to any of the following:
1. Photographing, videotaping, filming or digitally recording for security purposes if notice of the use of the photographing, videotaping, filming or digital recording equipment is clearly posted in the location and the location is one in which the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.
2. Photographing, videotaping, filming or digitally recording by correctional officials for security reasons or in connection with the investigation of alleged misconduct of persons on the premises of a jail or prison.
3. Photographing, videotaping, filming or digitally recording by law enforcement officers pursuant to an investigation, which is otherwise lawful.
4. The use of a child monitoring device as defined in § 13-3001.
E. A violation of subsection A or B of this section is a class 5 felony, except that a violation of subsection B of this section is a class 4 felony if the person depicted is recognizable.

A. A person commits criminal trespass in the third degree by:

1. Knowingly entering or remaining unlawfully on any real property after a reasonable request to leave by a law enforcement officer, the owner or any other person having lawful control over such property, or reasonable notice prohibiting entry.

2. Knowingly entering or remaining unlawfully on the right-of-way for tracks, or the storage or switching yards or rolling stock of a railroad company.

B. Pursuant to subsection A, paragraph 1 of this section, a request to leave by a law enforcement officer acting at the request of the owner of the property or any other person having lawful control over the property has the same legal effect as a request made by the property owner or other person having lawful control of the property.

C. Criminal trespass in the third degree is a class 3 misdemeanor.

A. A person commits criminal trespass in the first degree by knowingly:

1. Entering or remaining unlawfully in or on a residential structure.

2. Entering or remaining unlawfully in a fenced residential yard.

3. Entering any residential yard and, without lawful authority, looking into the residential structure thereon in reckless disregard of infringing on the inhabitant’s right of privacy.

4. Entering unlawfully on real property that is subject to a valid mineral claim or lease with the intent to hold, work, take or explore for minerals on the claim or lease.

5. Entering or remaining unlawfully on the property of another and burning, defacing, mutilating or otherwise desecrating a religious symbol or other religious property of another without the express permission of the owner of the property.

6. Entering or remaining unlawfully in or on a critical public service facility.

B. Criminal trespass in the first degree under subsection A, paragraph 6 of this section is a class 5 felony. Criminal trespass in the first degree under subsection A, paragraph 1 or 5 of this section is a class 6 felony. Criminal trespass in the first degree under subsection A, paragraph 2, 3 or 4 of this section is a class 1 misdemeanor.

A. A person commits criminal damage by:

1. Recklessly defacing or damaging property of another person.

2. Recklessly tampering with property of another person so as substantially to impair its function or value.

3. Recklessly damaging property of a utility.

4. Recklessly parking any vehicle in such a manner as to deprive livestock of access to the only reasonably available water.

5. Recklessly drawing or inscribing a message, slogan, sign or symbol that is made on any public or private building, structure or surface, except the ground, and that is made without permission of the owner.

6. Intentionally tampering with utility property.

B. Criminal damage is punished as follows:

1. Criminal damage is a class 4 felony if the person recklessly damages property of another in an amount of ten thousand dollars or more.

2. Criminal damage is a class 4 felony if the person recklessly damages the property of a utility in an amount of five thousand dollars or more or if the person intentionally tampers with utility property and the damage causes an imminent safety hazard to any person.

3. Criminal damage is a class 5 felony if the person recklessly damages property of another in an amount of two thousand dollars or more but less than ten thousand dollars or if the damage is inflicted to promote, further or assist any criminal street gang or criminal syndicate with the intent to intimidate and the person is not subject to paragraph 1 or 2 of this subsection.

4. Criminal damage is a class 6 felony if the person recklessly damages property of another in an amount of one thousand dollars or more but less than two thousand dollars.

5. Criminal damage is a class 1 misdemeanor if the person recklessly damages property of another in an amount of more than two hundred fifty dollars but less than one thousand dollars.

6. In all other cases criminal damage is a class 2 misdemeanor.

C. For a violation of subsection A, paragraph 5 of this section, in determining the amount of damage to property, damages include reasonable labor costs of any kind, reasonable material costs of any kind and any reasonable costs that are attributed to equipment that is used to abate or repair the damage to the property.

A. A person commits armed robbery if, in the course of committing robbery as proscribed in § 13-1902, the person or an accomplice does any of the following:

1. Is armed with a deadly weapon or a simulated deadly weapon.

2. Uses or threatens to use a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument or a simulated deadly weapon.

3. Takes possession of or attempts to take possession of a deadly weapon.

B. Armed robbery is a class 2 felony.

In this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:

1. “Access device” means any card, token, code, account number, electronic serial number, mobile or personal identification number, password, encryption key, biometric identifier or other means of account access, including a canceled or revoked access device, that can be used alone or in conjunction with another access device to obtain money, goods, services, computer or network access or any other thing of value or that can be used to initiate a transfer of any thing of value.

2. “Coin machine” means a coin box, turnstile, vending machine or other mechanical, electrical or electronic device or receptacle that is designed to receive a coin or bill of a certain denomination or a token made for such purpose and that, in return for the insertion or deposit of the coin, bill or token, automatically offers, provides, assists in providing or permits the acquisition or use of some property or service.

3. “Complete written instrument” means a written instrument that purports to be genuine and fully drawn with respect to every essential feature.

4. “Entity identifying information” includes, if the entity is a person other than a human being, any written document or electronic data that does or purports to provide information concerning the entity’s name, address, telephone number, employer identification number, account number or electronic serial number, the identifying number of the entity’s depository account or any other information or data that is unique to, assigned to or belongs to the entity and that is intended to be used to access services, funds or benefits of any kind that the entity owns or to which the entity is entitled.

5. “Falsely alters a written instrument” means to change a complete or incomplete written instrument, without the permission of anyone entitled to grant it, by means of counterfeiting, washing, erasure, obliteration, deletion, insertion of new matter, connecting together different parts of the whole of more than one genuine instrument or transposition of matter or in any other manner, so that the altered instrument falsely appears or purports to be in all respects an authentic creation of its ostensible maker or authorized by him.

6. “Falsely completes a written instrument” means to transform an incomplete written instrument into a complete one by adding, inserting or changing matter without the permission of anyone entitled to grant it, so that the complete written instrument falsely appears or purports to be in all respects an authentic creation of its ostensible maker or authorized by him.

7. “Falsely makes a written instrument” means to make or draw a complete or incomplete written instrument that purports to be an authentic creation of its ostensible maker but that is not either because the ostensible maker is fictitious, or because, if real, the ostensible maker did not authorize the making or drawing of the written instrument.

8. “Forged instrument” means a written instrument that has been falsely made, completed or altered.

9. “Incomplete written instrument” means a written instrument that contains some matter by way of content or authentication but that requires additional matter to render it a complete written instrument.

10. “Personal identifying information” means any written document or electronic data that does or purports to provide information concerning a name, signature, electronic identifier or screen name, electronic mail signature, address or account, biometric identifier, driver or professional license number, access device, residence or mailing address, telephone number, employer, student or military identification number, social security number, tax identification number, employment information, citizenship status or alien identification number, personal identification number, photograph, birth date, savings, checking or other financial account number, credit card, charge card or debit card number, mother’s maiden name, fingerprint or retinal image, the image of an iris or deoxyribonucleic acid or genetic information.

11. “Slug” means an object, article or device that by virtue of its size, its shape or any other quality is capable of being inserted, deposited or otherwise used in a coin machine as a fraudulent substitute for a genuine token, lawful coin or bill of the United States.

12. “Written instrument” means either:

(a) Any paper, document or other instrument that contains written or printed matter or its equivalent.

(b) Any token, stamp, seal, badge, trademark, graphical image, access device or other evidence or symbol of value, right, privilege or identification.

A. A person commits taking the identity of another person or entity if the person knowingly takes, purchases, manufactures, records, possesses or uses any personal identifying information or entity identifying information of another person or entity, including a real or fictitious person or entity, without the consent of that other person or entity, with the intent to obtain or use the other person’s or entity’s identity for any unlawful purpose or to cause loss to a person or entity whether or not the person or entity actually suffers any economic loss as a result of the offense, or with the intent to obtain or continue employment.

B. On the request of a person or entity, a peace officer in any jurisdiction in which an element of an offense under this section is committed, a result of an offense under this section occurs or the person or entity whose identity is taken or accepted resides or is located shall take a report. The peace officer may provide a copy of the report to any other law enforcement agency that is located in a jurisdiction in which a violation of this section occurred.

C. If a defendant is alleged to have committed multiple violations of this section within the same county, the prosecutor may file a complaint charging all of the violations and any related charges under other sections that have not been previously filed in any precinct in which a violation is alleged to have occurred. If a defendant is alleged to have committed multiple violations of this section within the state, the prosecutor may file a complaint charging all of the violations and any related charges under other sections that have not been previously filed in any county in which a violation is alleged to have occurred.

D. This section does not apply to a violation of section 4-241 by a person who is under twenty-one years of age.

E. Taking the identity of another person or entity is a class 4 felony.

A. A person commits trafficking in the identity of another person or entity if the person knowingly sells, transfers or transmits any personal identifying information or entity identifying information of another person or entity, including a real or fictitious person or entity, without the consent of the other person or entity for any unlawful purpose or to cause loss to the person or entity whether or not the other person or entity actually suffers any economic loss, or allowing another person to obtain or continue employment.

B. This section does not apply to a violation of section 4-241 by a person who is under twenty-one years of age.

C. Trafficking in the identity of another person or entity is a class 2 felony.

A. A person commits interfering with judicial proceedings if such person knowingly:

1. Engages in disorderly, disrespectful or insolent behavior during the session of a court which directly tends to interrupt its proceedings or impairs the respect due to its authority; or

2. Disobeys or resists the lawful order, process or other mandate of a court; or

3. Refuses to be sworn or affirmed as a witness in any court proceeding; or

4. Publishes a false or grossly inaccurate report of a court proceeding; or

5. Refuses to serve as a juror unless exempted by law; or

6. Fails inexcusably to attend a trial at which he has been chosen to serve as a juror.

B. Interfering with judicial proceedings is a class 1 misdemeanor.

A. A person commits disorderly conduct if, with intent to disturb the peace or quiet of a neighborhood, family or person, or with knowledge of doing so, such person:

1. Engages in fighting, violent or seriously disruptive behavior; or

2. Makes unreasonable noise; or

3. Uses abusive or offensive language or gestures to any person present in a manner likely to provoke immediate physical retaliation by such person; or

4. Makes any protracted commotion, utterance or display with the intent to prevent the transaction of the business of a lawful meeting, gathering or procession; or

5. Refuses to obey a lawful order to disperse issued to maintain public safety in dangerous proximity to a fire, a hazard or any other emergency; or

6. Recklessly handles, displays or discharges a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument.

B. Disorderly conduct under subsection A, paragraph 6 is a class 6 felony. Disorderly conduct under subsection A, paragraph 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 is a class 1 misdemeanor.

A. It is unlawful for a person to do any of the following:

1. Knowingly refuse to yield or surrender the use of a party line to another person to report a fire or summon police or medical or other aid in case of emergency.

2. Ask for or request the use of a party line on the pretext that an emergency exists, knowing that no emergency in fact exists.

3. Intentionally prevent or interfere with the use of a telephone by another person in an emergency situation.

B. Every telephone directory that is compiled and distributed to subscribers shall contain a notice explaining this section. The notice shall be printed in type that is no smaller than any other type on the same page, other than headings, and shall be preceded by the word “warning”. This subsection does not apply to directories that are distributed solely for business advertising purposes, commonly known as classified directories.

C. This section does not require a person to allow another person to enter the person’s home or place of residence for the purpose of using a telephone in an emergency situation.

D. A person who violates this section is guilty of a class 2 misdemeanor.

E. For the purposes of this section:

1. “Emergency” means a situation in which property or human life is in jeopardy and the prompt summoning of aid is essential.

2. “Emergency situation” means a situation in which both of the following apply:

(a) Human health, life or safety is in jeopardy and the prompt summoning of aid is essential.

(b) It is reasonable to believe that a domestic violence offense pursuant to § 13-3601 is being, has been or is about to be committed.

3. “Party line” means a subscriber’s line telephone circuit, consisting of two or more main telephone stations connected therewith, each station with a distinctive ring or telephone number.

A. A person commits harassment if the person knowingly and repeatedly commits an act or acts that harass another person or the person knowingly commits any one of the following acts in a manner that harasses:

1. Contacts or causes a communication with another person by verbal, electronic, mechanical, telegraphic, telephonic or written means.

2. Continues to follow another person in or about a public place after being asked by that person to desist.

3. Surveils or causes a person to surveil another person.

4. Makes a false report to a law enforcement, credit or social service agency against another person.

5. Interferes with the delivery of any public or regulated utility to another person.

B. A person commits harassment against a public officer or employee if the person, with intent to harass, files a nonconsensual lien against any public officer or employee that is not accompanied by an order or a judgment from a court of competent jurisdiction authorizing the filing of the lien or is not issued by a governmental entity or political subdivision or agency pursuant to its statutory authority, a validly licensed utility or water delivery company, a mechanics’ lien claimant or an entity created under covenants, conditions, restrictions or declarations affecting real property.

C. Harassment under subsection A is a class 1 misdemeanor. Harassment under subsection B is a class 5 felony.

D. This section does not apply to any of the following:

1. A lawful demonstration, assembly or picketing.

2. A professional investigator or peace officer who is licensed by this state and who is acting within the scope of the investigator’s or officer’s duties in connection with any criminal or civil investigation.

3. A certified and duly authorized process server who is acting within the scope of the process server’s duties in connection with any judicial or administrative action or proceeding.

E. For the purposes of this section, “harass” means conduct that is directed at a specific person and that would cause a reasonable person to be seriously alarmed, annoyed, humiliated or mentally distressed and the conduct in fact seriously alarms, annoys, humiliates or mentally distresses the person.

A. A person commits stalking if the person intentionally or knowingly engages in a course of conduct that is directed toward another person and if that conduct causes the victim to:

1. Suffer emotional distress or reasonably fear that either:

(a) The victim’s property will be damaged or destroyed.

(b) Any of the following will be physically injured:

(i) The victim.

(ii) The victim’s family member, domestic animal or livestock.

(iii) A person with whom the victim has or has previously had a romantic or sexual relationship.

(iv) A person who regularly resides in the victim’s household or has resided in the victim’s household within the six months before the last conduct occurred.

2. Reasonably fear death or the death of any of the following:

(a) The victim’s family member, domestic animal or livestock.

(b) A person with whom the victim has or has previously had a romantic or sexual relationship.

(c) A person who regularly resides in the victim’s household or has resided in the victim’s household within the six months before the last conduct occurred.

B. This section does not apply to an interactive computer service, as defined in 47 United States Code section 230(f)(2), or to an information service or telecommunications service, as defined in 47 United States Code section 153, for content that is provided by another person.

C. Stalking under subsection A, paragraph 1 of this section is a class 5 felony. Stalking under subsection A, paragraph 2 of this section is a class 3 felony.

D. For the purposes of this section:

1. “Course of conduct”:

(a) Means directly or indirectly, in person or through one or more third persons or by any other means, to do any of the following:

(i) Maintain visual or physical proximity to a specific person or direct verbal, written or other threats, whether express or implied, to a specific person on two or more occasions over a period of time, however short.

(ii) Use any electronic, digital or global positioning system device to surveil a specific person or a specific person’s internet or wireless activity continuously for twelve hours or more or on two or more occasions over a period of time, however short, without authorization.

(iii) Communicate, or cause to be communicated, on more than one occasion words, images or language by or through the use of electronic mail or an electronic communication that is directed at a specific person without authorization and without a legitimate purpose.

(b) Does not include constitutionally protected activity or other activity authorized by law, the other person, the other person’s authorized representative or if the other person is a minor, the minor’s parent or guardian.2. “Emotional distress” means significant mental suffering or distress that may, but does not have to, require medical or other professional treatment or counseling.

A. It is unlawful for any person to knowingly photograph, videotape, film, digitally record or by any other means secretly view, with or without a device, another person without that person’s consent under either of the following circumstances:

1. In a restroom, bathroom, locker room, bedroom or other location where the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy and the person is urinating, defecating, dressing, undressing, nude or involved in sexual intercourse or sexual contact.

2. In a manner that directly or indirectly captures or allows the viewing of the person’s genitalia, buttock or female breast, whether clothed or unclothed, that is not otherwise visible to the public.

B. It is unlawful to disclose, display, distribute or publish a photograph, videotape, film or digital recording made in violation of subsection A of this section without the consent or knowledge of the person depicted.

C. This section does not apply to:

1. Photographing, videotaping, filming or digitally recording for security purposes if notice of the use of photographing, videotaping, filming or digital recording equipment is clearly posted in the location and the location is one in which the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.

2. Photographing, videotaping, filming or digitally recording by correctional officials for security reasons or in connection with the investigation of alleged misconduct of persons on the premises of a jail or prison.

3. Photographing, videotaping, filming or digitally recording by law enforcement officers pursuant to an investigation, which is otherwise lawful.

4. The use of a child monitoring device as defined in section 13-3001.

D. A violation of subsection A or B of this section is a class 5 felony.

E. Notwithstanding subsection D of this section, a violation of subsection A or B of this section that does not involve the use of a device is a class 6 felony, except that a second or subsequent violation of subsection A or B of this section that does not involve the use of a device is a class 5 felony.

F. Notwithstanding subsection D of this section, a violation of subsection B of this section is a class 4 felony if the person depicted is recognizable.

G. For the purposes of this section, “sexual contact” and “sexual intercourse” have the same meanings prescribed in section 13-1401.

A. The department of public safety shall issue a permit to carry a concealed weapon to a person who is qualified under this section. The person shall carry the permit at all times when the person is in actual possession of the concealed weapon and is required by § 4-229 or 4-244 to carry the permit. If the person is in actual possession of the concealed weapon and is required by § 4-229 or 4-244 to carry the permit, the person shall present the permit for inspection to any law enforcement officer on request.

B. The permit of a person who is arrested or indicted for an offense that would make the person unqualified under § 13-3101, subsection A, paragraph 7 or this section shall be immediately suspended and seized. The permit of a person who becomes unqualified on conviction of that offense shall be revoked. The permit shall be restored on presentation of documentation from the court if the permittee is found not guilty or the charges are dismissed. The permit shall be restored on presentation of documentation from the county attorney that the charges against the permittee were dropped or dismissed.

C. A permittee who carries a concealed weapon, who is required by § 4-229 or 4-244 to carry a permit and who fails to present the permit for inspection on the request of a law enforcement officer commits a violation of this subsection and is subject to a civil penalty of not more than $300. The department of public safety shall be notified of all violations of this subsection and shall immediately suspend the permit. A permittee shall not be convicted of a violation of this subsection if the permittee produces to the court a legible permit that is issued to the permittee and that was valid at the time the permittee failed to present the permit for inspection.

D. A law enforcement officer shall not confiscate or forfeit a weapon that is otherwise lawfully possessed by a permittee whose permit is suspended pursuant to subsection C of this section, except that a law enforcement officer may take temporary custody of a firearm during an investigatory stop of the permittee.

E. The department of public safety shall issue a permit to an applicant who meets all of the following conditions:

1. Is a resident of this state or a United States citizen.

2. Is twenty-one years of age or older or is at least nineteen years of age and provides evidence of current military service or proof of honorable discharge or general discharge under honorable conditions from the United States armed forces, the United States armed forces reserve or a state national guard.

3. Is not under indictment for and has not been convicted in any jurisdiction of a felony unless that conviction has been expunged, set aside or vacated or the applicant’s rights have been restored and the applicant is currently not a prohibited possessor under state or federal law.

4. Does not suffer from mental illness and has not been adjudicated mentally incompetent or committed to a mental institution.

5. Is not unlawfully present in the United States.

6. Has ever demonstrated competence with a firearm as prescribed by subsection N of this section and provides adequate documentation that the person has satisfactorily completed a training program or demonstrated competence with a firearm in any state or political subdivision in the United States. For the purposes of this paragraph, “adequate documentation” means:

(a) A current or expired permit issued by the department of public safety pursuant to this section.

(b) An original or copy of a certificate, card or document that shows the applicant has ever completed any course or class prescribed by subsection N of this section or an affidavit from the instructor, school, club or organization that conducted or taught the course or class attesting to the applicant’s completion of the course or class.

(c) An original or a copy of a United States department of defense form 214 (DD-214) indicating an honorable discharge or general discharge under honorable conditions, a certificate of completion of basic training or any other document demonstrating proof of the applicant’s current or former service in the United States armed forces as prescribed by subsection N, paragraph 5 of this section.

(d) An original or a copy of a concealed weapon, firearm or handgun permit or a license as prescribed by subsection N, paragraph 6 of this section.

F. The application shall be completed on a form prescribed by the department of public safety. The form shall not require the applicant to disclose the type of firearm for which a permit is sought. The applicant shall attest under penalty of perjury that all of the statements made by the applicant are true, that the applicant has been furnished a copy of this chapter and chapter 4 of this title1 and that the applicant is knowledgeable about the provisions contained in those chapters. The applicant shall submit the application to the department with any documentation prescribed by subsection E of this section, two sets of fingerprints and a reasonable fee determined by the director of the department.

G. On receipt of a concealed weapon permit application, the department of public safety shall conduct a check of the applicant’s criminal history record pursuant to § 41-1750. The department of public safety may exchange fingerprint card information with the federal bureau of investigation for federal criminal history record checks.

H. The department of public safety shall complete all of the required qualification checks within sixty days after receiving the application and shall issue a permit within fifteen working days after completing the qualification checks if the applicant meets all of the conditions specified in subsection E of this section. If a permit is denied, the department of public safety shall notify the applicant in writing within fifteen working days after completing all of the required qualification checks and shall state the reasons why the application was denied. On receipt of the notification of the denial, the applicant has twenty days to submit any additional documentation to the department. On receipt of the additional documentation, the department shall reconsider its decision and inform the applicant within twenty days of the result of the reconsideration. If denied, the applicant shall be informed that the applicant may request a hearing pursuant to title 41, chapter 6, article 10. For the purposes of this subsection, “receiving the application” means the first day that the department has physical control of the application and that is presumed to be on the date of delivery as evidenced by proof of delivery by the United States postal service or a written receipt, which shall be provided by the department on request of the applicant.

I. On issuance, a permit is valid for five years, except a permit that is held by a member of the United States armed forces, including a member of the Arizona national guard or a member of the reserves of any military establishment of the United States, who is on federal active duty and who is deployed overseas shall be extended until ninety days after the end of the member’s overseas deployment.

J. The department of public safety shall maintain a computerized permit record system that is accessible to criminal justice agencies for the purpose of confirming the permit status of any person who is contacted by a law enforcement officer and who claims to hold a valid permit issued by this state. This information and any other records that are maintained regarding applicants, permit holders or instructors shall not be available to any other person or entity except on an order from a state or federal court. A criminal justice agency shall not use the computerized permit record system to conduct inquiries on whether a person is a concealed weapons permit holder unless the criminal justice agency has reasonable suspicion to believe the person is carrying a concealed weapon and the person is subject to a lawful criminal investigation, arrest, detention or investigatory stop.

K. A permit issued pursuant to this section is renewable every five years. At least sixty days before the expiration date of a permit, the department of public safety shall send a renewal reminder notice and renewal application form to the permit holder. Before a permit may be renewed, a criminal history records check shall be conducted pursuant to § 41-1750 within sixty days after receipt of the application for renewal. For the purposes of permit renewal, the permit holder is not required to submit additional fingerprints.

L. Applications for renewal shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the director of the department of public safety.

M. The department of public safety shall suspend or revoke a permit issued under this section if the permit holder becomes ineligible pursuant to subsection E of this section. The department of public safety shall notify the permit holder in writing within fifteen working days after the revocation or suspension and shall state the reasons for the revocation or suspension.

N. An applicant shall demonstrate competence with a firearm through any of the following:

1. Completion of any firearms safety or training course or class that is available to the general public, that is offered by a law enforcement agency, a junior college, a college or a private or public institution, academy, organization or firearms training school and that is approved by the department of public safety or that uses instructors who are certified by the national rifle association.

2. Completion of any hunter education or hunter safety course approved by the Arizona game and fish department or a similar agency of another state.

3. Completion of any national rifle association firearms safety or training course.

4. Completion of any law enforcement firearms safety or training course or class that is offered for security guards, investigators, special deputies or other divisions or subdivisions of law enforcement or security enforcement and that is approved by the department of public safety.

5. Evidence of current military service or proof of honorable discharge or general discharge under honorable conditions from the United States armed forces.

6. A valid current or expired concealed weapon, firearm or handgun permit or license that is issued by another state or a political subdivision of another state and that has a training or testing requirement for initial issuance.

7. Completion of any governmental police agency firearms training course and qualification to carry a firearm in the course of normal police duties.

8. Completion of any other firearms safety or training course or class that is conducted by a department of public safety approved or national rifle association certified firearms instructor.

O. The department of public safety shall maintain information comparing the number of permits requested, the number of permits issued and the number of permits denied. The department shall annually report this information electronically to the governor and the legislature.

P. The director of the department of public safety shall adopt rules for the purpose of implementing and administering this section including fees relating to permits that are issued pursuant to this section.

Q. This state and any political subdivision of this state shall recognize a concealed weapon, firearm or handgun permit or license that is issued by another state or a political subdivision of another state if both:

1. The permit or license is recognized as valid in the issuing state.

2. The permit or license holder is all of the following:

(a) Legally present in this state.

(b) Not legally prohibited from possessing a firearm in this state.

R. For the purpose of establishing mutual permit or license recognition with other states, the department of public safety shall enter into a written agreement if another state requires a written agreement. The department of public safety shall submit an electronic report to the governor and the legislature each year that includes any changes that were made in the previous year to a written agreement with another state.

S. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a person with a concealed weapons permit from another state may not carry a concealed weapon in this state if the person is under twenty-one years of age or is under indictment for, or has been convicted of, a felony offense in any jurisdiction, unless that conviction is expunged, set aside or vacated or the person’s rights have been restored and the person is currently not a prohibited possessor under state or federal law.

T. The department of public safety may issue certificates of firearms proficiency according to the Arizona peace officer standards and training board firearms qualification for the purposes of implementing the law enforcement officers safety act of 2004 (P.L. 108-277; 118 Stat. 865; 18 United States Code §§ 926B and 926C). A law enforcement or prosecutorial agency shall issue to a qualified retired law enforcement officer who has honorably retired a photographic identification that states that the officer has honorably retired from the agency. A person who was a municipal, county or state prosecutor is deemed to meet the qualifications of 18 United States Code § 926C(c)(2). The chief law enforcement officer shall determine whether an officer has honorably retired and the determination is not subject to review. A law enforcement or prosecutorial agency has no obligation to revoke, alter or modify the honorable discharge photographic identification based on conduct that the agency becomes aware of or that occurs after the officer has separated from the agency. For the purposes of this subsection, “qualified retired law enforcement officer” has the same meaning prescribed in 18 United States Code § 926C.

U. The initial and renewal application fees collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited, pursuant to §§ 35-146 and 35-147, in the concealed weapons permit fund established by § 41-1722.

A. The judge shall order a person who is convicted of a misdemeanor domestic violence offense to complete a domestic violence offender treatment program that is provided by a facility approved by the court pursuant to rules adopted by the supreme court, the department of health services, the United States department of veterans affairs or a probation department. If a person has previously been ordered to complete a domestic violence offender treatment program pursuant to this section, the judge shall order the person to complete a domestic violence offender treatment program unless the judge deems that alternative sanctions are more appropriate. The department of health services shall adopt and enforce guidelines that establish standards for domestic violence offender treatment program approval.

B. On conviction of a misdemeanor domestic violence offense, if a person within a period of sixty months has previously been convicted of a violation of a domestic violence offense or is convicted of a misdemeanor domestic violence offense and has previously been convicted of an act in another state, a court of the United States or a tribal court that if committed in this state would be a domestic violence offense, the judge may order the person to be placed on supervised probation and the person may be incarcerated as a condition of probation. If the court orders supervised probation, the court may conduct an intake assessment when the person begins the term of probation and may conduct a discharge summary when the person is released from probation. If the person is incarcerated and the court receives confirmation that the person is employed or is a student, the court, on pronouncement of any jail sentence, may provide in the sentence that the person, if the person is employed or is a student and can continue the person’s employment or studies, may continue the employment or studies for not more than twelve hours a day nor more than five days a week. The person shall spend the remaining day, days or parts of days in jail until the sentence is served and shall be allowed out of jail only long enough to complete the actual hours of employment or studies.

C. A person who is ordered to complete a domestic violence offender treatment program shall pay the cost of the program.

D. If a person is ordered to attend a domestic violence offender treatment program pursuant to this section, the program shall report to the court whether the person has attended the program and has successfully completed the program.

E. For the purposes of this section, prior convictions for misdemeanor domestic violence offenses apply to convictions for offenses that were committed on or after January 1, 1999.

F. For the purposes of this section, “domestic violence offense” means an offense involving domestic violence as defined in § 13-3601.

A. A person may file a verified petition, as in civil actions, with a magistrate, justice of the peace or superior court judge for an order of protection for the purpose of restraining a person from committing an act included in domestic violence. If the person is a minor, the parent, legal guardian or person who has legal custody of the minor shall file the petition unless the court determines otherwise. The petition shall name the parent, guardian or custodian as the plaintiff and the minor is a specifically designated person for the purposes of subsection G of this section. If a person is either temporarily or permanently unable to request an order, a third party may request an order of protection on behalf of the plaintiff. After the request, the judicial officer shall determine if the third party is an appropriate requesting party for the plaintiff. For the purposes of this section, notwithstanding the location of the plaintiff or defendant, any court in this state may issue or enforce an order of protection.

B. An order of protection shall not be granted:

1. Unless the party who requests the order files a written verified petition for an order.

2. Against a person who is less than twelve years of age unless the order is granted by the juvenile division of the superior court.

3. Against more than one defendant.

C. The petition shall state the:

1. Name of the plaintiff. The plaintiff’s address and contact information shall be disclosed to the court for purposes of service and notification. The address and contact information shall not be listed on the petition. Whether or not the court issues an order of protection, the plaintiff’s address and contact information shall be maintained in a separate document or automated database and is not subject to release or disclosure by the court or any form of public access except as ordered by the court.

2. Name and address, if known, of the defendant.

3. Specific statement, including dates, of the domestic violence alleged.

4. Relationship between the parties pursuant to § 13-3601, subsection A and whether there is pending between the parties an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage.

5. Name of the court in which any prior or pending proceeding or order was sought or issued concerning the conduct that is sought to be restrained.

6. Desired relief.

D. A fee shall not be charged for filing a petition under this section or for service of process. Each court shall provide, without charge, forms for purposes of this section for assisting parties without counsel. The court shall make reasonable efforts to provide the appropriate information to both parties on emergency and counseling services that are available in the local area.

E. The court shall review the petition, any other pleadings on file and any evidence offered by the plaintiff, including any evidence of harassment by electronic contact or communication, to determine whether the orders requested should issue without further hearing. The court shall issue an order of protection under subsection G of this section if the court determines that there is reasonable cause to believe any of the following:

1. The defendant may commit an act of domestic violence.

2. The defendant has committed an act of domestic violence within the past year or within a longer period of time if the court finds that good cause exists to consider a longer period.

F. For the purposes of determining the period of time under subsection E, paragraph 2 of this section, any time that the defendant has been incarcerated or out of this state shall not be counted. If the court denies the requested relief, it may schedule a further hearing within ten days, with reasonable notice to the defendant.

G. If a court issues an order of protection, the court may do any of the following:

1. Enjoin the defendant from committing a violation of one or more of the offenses included in domestic violence.

2. Grant one party the use and exclusive possession of the parties’ residence on a showing that there is reasonable cause to believe that physical harm may otherwise result. If the other party is accompanied by a law enforcement officer, the other party may return to the residence on one occasion to retrieve belongings. A law enforcement officer is not liable for any act or omission in the good faith exercise of the officer’s duties under this paragraph. While the order of protection is in effect, if a party was granted the use and exclusive possession of the parties’ residence and subsequently moves out of the house, the party must file a notice in writing with the court within five days after moving out of the residence. After receiving the notification from the plaintiff, the court shall provide notice to the defendant that the plaintiff has moved out of the residence and of the defendant’s right to request a hearing pursuant to subsection L of this section.

3. Restrain the defendant from contacting the plaintiff or other specifically designated persons and from coming near the residence, place of employment or school of the plaintiff or other specifically designated locations or persons on a showing that there is reasonable cause to believe that physical harm may otherwise result.

4. If the court finds that the defendant is a credible threat to the physical safety of the plaintiff or other specifically designated persons, prohibit the defendant from possessing or purchasing a firearm for the duration of the order. If the court prohibits the defendant from possessing a firearm, the court shall also order the defendant to transfer any firearm owned or possessed by the defendant immediately after service of the order to the appropriate law enforcement agency for the duration of the order. If the defendant does not immediately transfer the firearm, the defendant shall transfer the firearm within twenty-four hours after service of the order.

5. If the order was issued after notice and a hearing at which the defendant had an opportunity to participate, require the defendant to complete a domestic violence offender treatment program that is provided by a facility approved by the department of health services or a probation department or any other program deemed appropriate by the court.

6. Grant relief that is necessary for the protection of the alleged victim and other specifically designated persons and that is proper under the circumstances.

7. Grant the plaintiff the exclusive care, custody or control of any animal that is owned, possessed, leased, kept or held by the plaintiff, the defendant or a minor child residing in the residence or household of the plaintiff or the defendant, and order the defendant to stay away from the animal and forbid the defendant from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, committing an act of cruelty or neglect in violation of § 13-2910 or otherwise disposing of the animal.

H. The court shall not grant a mutual order of protection. If opposing parties separately file verified petitions for an order of protection, the courts after consultation between the judges involved may consolidate the petitions of the opposing parties for hearing. This does not prohibit a court from issuing cross orders of protection.

I. After granting an order of protection, the court shall provide the order to a law enforcement agency or a constable as set forth in subsection J of this section for service or to an entity that is authorized in subsection K of this section to serve process. The agency or entity serving the order shall provide confirmation of service to the plaintiff as soon as practicable. If service of an order cannot be completed within fifteen days after the agency or entity receives the order, the agency or entity that is attempting service shall notify the plaintiff and continue to attempt service. This notification may be completed by a victim notification system, if available.

J. If the order of protection is provided to a law enforcement agency or a constable, service of an order of protection is as follows:

1. For each order of protection that is issued by a municipal court, if the defendant can be served within that city or town, the order shall be served by the law enforcement agency of that city or town. If the order can be served in another city or town, the order shall be served by the law enforcement agency of that city or town. If the order cannot be served within a city or town, the order shall be served by the sheriff or constable of the county in which the defendant can be served.

2. For each order of protection that is issued by a justice of the peace, the order of protection shall be served by the sheriff or constable of the county in which the defendant can be served or by a municipal law enforcement agency.

3. For each order of protection that is issued by a superior court judge or commissioner, the order of protection shall by served by the sheriff or constable of the county where the defendant can be served.

K. In addition to persons authorized to serve process pursuant to rule 4(d) of the Arizona rules of civil procedure, a peace officer or a correctional officer as defined in § 41-1661 who is acting in the officer’s official capacity may serve an order of protection that is issued pursuant to this section. Service of the order of protection has priority over other service of process that does not involve an immediate threat to the safety of a person.

L. At any time during the period during which the order is in effect, a party who is under an order of protection or who is restrained from contacting the other party is entitled to one hearing on written request. No fee may be charged for requesting a hearing. A hearing that is requested by a party who is under an order of protection or who is restrained from contacting the other party shall be held within ten days from the date requested unless the court finds good cause to continue the hearing. If exclusive use of the home is awarded, the hearing shall be held within five days from the date requested. The hearing shall be held at the earliest possible time. An ex parte order that is issued under this section shall state on its face that the defendant is entitled to a hearing on written request and shall include the name and address of the judicial office where the request may be filed. After the hearing, the court may modify, quash or continue the order. If the exclusive use of the home is awarded to the party, the court, on written request of a party, may hold additional hearings at any time if there is a change in circumstances related to the primary residence.

M. The order shall include the following statement:

Warning

This is an official court order. If you disobey this order, you will be subject to arrest and prosecution for the crime of interfering with judicial proceedings and any other crime you may have committed in disobeying this order.

N. An order of protection that is not served on the defendant within one year after the date that the order is issued expires. An order is effective on the defendant on service of a copy of the order and petition. An order expires two years after service on the defendant. A modified order is effective on service and expires two years after service of the initial order and petition.

O. A supplemental information form that is used by the court or a law enforcement agency solely for the purposes of service of process on the defendant and that contains information provided by the plaintiff is confidential.

P. Each affidavit, declaration, acceptance or return of service shall be filed as soon as practicable but not later than seventy-two hours, excluding weekends and holidays, with the clerk of the issuing court or as otherwise required by court rule. This filing shall be completed in person, electronically or by fax.

Q. The supreme court shall maintain a central repository for orders of protection. Within twenty-four hours after the affidavit, declaration, acceptance or return of service has been filed, excluding weekends and holidays, the court from which the order or any modified order was issued shall enter the order and proof of service into the supreme court’s central repository for orders of protection. The supreme court shall register the order with the national crime information center. The effectiveness of an order does not depend on its registration, and for enforcement purposes pursuant to § 13-2810, a copy of an order of the court, whether or not registered, is presumed to be a valid existing order of the court for a period of two years from the date of service of the order on the defendant.

R. A peace officer, with or without a warrant, may arrest a person if the peace officer has probable cause to believe that the person has violated § 13-2810 by disobeying or resisting an order that is issued in any jurisdiction in this state pursuant to this section, whether or not such violation occurred in the presence of the officer. Criminal violations of an order issued pursuant to this section shall be referred to an appropriate law enforcement agency. The provisions for release under § 13-3883, subsection A, paragraph 4 and § 13-3903 do not apply to an arrest made pursuant to this section. For the purposes of this section, any court in this state has jurisdiction to enforce a valid order of protection that is issued in this state and that has been violated in any jurisdiction in this state.

S. A person who is arrested pursuant to subsection R of this section may be released from custody in accordance with the Arizona rules of criminal procedure or any other applicable statute. An order for release, with or without an appearance bond, shall include pretrial release conditions that are necessary to provide for the protection of the alleged victim and other specifically designated persons and may provide for any other additional conditions that the court deems appropriate, including participation in any counseling programs available to the defendant. The agency with custody of the defendant shall make reasonable efforts to contact the victim and other specifically designated persons in the order of protection, if known to the custodial agency, who requested notification immediately on release of the arrested person from custody.

T. The remedies provided in this section for enforcement of the orders of the court are in addition to any other civil and criminal remedies available. The superior court shall have exclusive jurisdiction to issue orders of protection in all cases if it appears from the petition that an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage is pending between the parties. A municipal court or justice court shall not issue an order of protection if it appears from the petition that an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage is pending between the parties. After issuance of an order of protection, if the municipal court or justice court determines that an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage is pending between the parties, the municipal court or justice court shall stop further proceedings in the action and forward all papers, together with a certified copy of docket entries or any other record in the action, to the superior court where they shall be docketed in the pending superior court action and shall proceed as though the petition for an order of protection had been originally brought in the superior court. Notwithstanding any other law and unless prohibited by an order of the superior court, a municipal court or justice court may hold a hearing on all matters relating to its ex parte order of protection if the hearing was requested before receiving written notice of the pending superior court action. No order of protection shall be invalid or determined to be ineffective merely because it was issued by a lower court at a time when an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage was pending in a higher court. After a hearing with notice to the affected party, the court may enter an order requiring any party to pay the costs of the action, including reasonable attorney fees, if any. An order that is entered by a justice court or municipal court after a hearing pursuant to this section may be appealed to the superior court as provided in title 22, chapter 2, article 4,1 § 22-425, subsection B and the superior court rules of civil appellate procedure without regard to an amount in controversy. No fee may be charged to either party for filing an appeal. For the purposes of this subsection, “pending” means, with respect to an action for annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage or for maternity or paternity, either that:

1. An action has been commenced but a final judgment, decree or order has not been entered.

2. A post-decree proceeding has been commenced but a judgment, decree or order finally determining the proceeding has not been entered.

U. A peace officer who makes an arrest pursuant to this section or § 13-3601 is not civilly or criminally liable for the arrest if the officer acts on probable cause and without malice.

V. A valid protection order that is related to domestic or family violence and that is issued by a court in another state, a court of a United States territory or a tribal court shall be accorded full faith and credit and shall be enforced as if it were issued in this state for as long as the order is effective in the issuing jurisdiction. For the purposes of this subsection:

1. A protection order includes any injunction or other order that is issued for the purpose of preventing violent or threatening acts or harassment against, contact or communication with or physical proximity to another person. A protection order includes temporary and final orders other than support or child custody orders that are issued by civil and criminal courts if the order is obtained by the filing of an independent action or is a pendente lite order in another proceeding. The civil order shall be issued in response to a complaint, petition or motion that was filed by or on behalf of a person seeking protection.

2. A protection order is valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and the matter under the laws of the issuing state, a United States territory or an Indian tribe and the person against whom the order was issued had reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard. If the order is issued ex parte, the notice and opportunity to be heard shall be provided within the time required by the laws of the issuing state, a United States territory or an Indian tribe and within a reasonable time after the order was issued.

3. A mutual protection order that is issued against both the party who filed a petition or a complaint or otherwise filed a written pleading for protection against abuse and the person against whom the filing was made is not entitled to full faith and credit if either:

(a) The person against whom an initial order was sought has not filed a cross or counter petition or other written pleading seeking a protection order.

(b) The issuing court failed to make specific findings supporting the entitlement of both parties to be granted a protection order.

4. A peace officer may presume the validity of and rely on a copy of a protection order that is issued by another state, a United States territory or an Indian tribe if the order was given to the officer by any source. A peace officer may also rely on the statement of any person who is protected by the order that the order remains in effect. A peace officer who acts in good faith reliance on a protection order is not civilly or criminally liable for enforcing the protection order pursuant to this section.

W. For the purposes of this section, “victim notification system” means an automated system that may provide plaintiffs and crime victims with an automated notification regarding the person’s case.

A. Under circumstances likely to produce death or serious physical injury, any person who causes a child or vulnerable adult to suffer physical injury or, having the care or custody of a child or vulnerable adult, who causes or permits the person or health of the child or vulnerable adult to be injured or who causes or permits a child or vulnerable adult to be placed in a situation where the person or health of the child or vulnerable adult is endangered is guilty of an offense as follows:

1. If done intentionally or knowingly, the offense is a class 2 felony and if the victim is under fifteen years of age it is punishable pursuant to § 13-705.

2. If done recklessly, the offense is a class 3 felony.

3. If done with criminal negligence, the offense is a class 4 felony.

B. Under circumstances other than those likely to produce death or serious physical injury to a child or vulnerable adult, any person who causes a child or vulnerable adult to suffer physical injury or abuse or, having the care or custody of a child or vulnerable adult, who causes or permits the person or health of the child or vulnerable adult to be injured or who causes or permits a child or vulnerable adult to be placed in a situation where the person or health of the child or vulnerable adult is endangered is guilty of an offense as follows:

1. If done intentionally or knowingly, the offense is a class 4 felony.

2. If done recklessly, the offense is a class 5 felony.

3. If done with criminal negligence, the offense is a class 6 felony.

C. For the purposes of subsections A and B of this section, the terms endangered and abuse include but are not limited to circumstances in which a child or vulnerable adult is permitted to enter or remain in any structure or vehicle in which volatile, toxic or flammable chemicals are found or equipment is possessed by any person for the purpose of manufacturing a dangerous drug in violation of § 13-3407, subsection A, paragraph 3 or 4. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a violation committed under the circumstances described in this subsection does not require that a person have care or custody of the child or vulnerable adult.

D. A person who intentionally or knowingly engages in emotional abuse of a vulnerable adult who is a patient or resident in any setting in which health care, health-related services or assistance with one or more of the activities of daily living is provided or, having the care or custody of a vulnerable adult, who intentionally or knowingly subjects or permits the vulnerable adult to be subjected to emotional abuse is guilty of a class 6 felony.

E. This section does not apply to:

1. A health care provider as defined in § 36-3201 who permits a patient to die or the patient’s condition to deteriorate by not providing health care if that patient refuses that care directly or indirectly through a health care directive as defined in § 36-3201, through a surrogate pursuant to § 36-3231 or through a court appointed guardian as provided for in title 14, chapter 5, article 3. [FN1]

2. A vulnerable adult who is being furnished spiritual treatment through prayer alone and who would not otherwise be considered to be abused, neglected or endangered if medical treatment were being furnished.

F. For the purposes of this section:

1. “Abuse”, when used in reference to a child, means abuse as defined in § 8-201, except for those acts in the definition that are declared unlawful by another statute of this title and, when used in reference to a vulnerable adult, means:

(a) Intentional infliction of physical harm.

(b) Injury caused by criminally negligent acts or omissions.

(c) Unlawful imprisonment, as described in § 13-1303.

(d) Sexual abuse or sexual assault.

2. “Child” means an individual who is under eighteen years of age.

3. “Emotional abuse” means a pattern of ridiculing or demeaning a vulnerable adult, making derogatory remarks to a vulnerable adult, verbally harassing a vulnerable adult or threatening to inflict physical or emotional harm on a vulnerable adult.

4. “Physical injury” means the impairment of physical condition and includes any skin bruising, pressure sores, bleeding, failure to thrive, malnutrition, dehydration, burns, fracture of any bone, subdural hematoma, soft tissue swelling, injury to any internal organ or any physical condition that imperils health or welfare.

5. “Serious physical injury” means physical injury that creates a reasonable risk of death or that causes serious or permanent disfigurement, serious impairment of health or loss or protracted impairment of the function of any bodily organ or limb.

6. “Vulnerable adult” means an individual who is eighteen years of age or older and who is unable to protect himself from abuse, neglect or exploitation by others because of a mental or physical impairment.